IR Gleims 3

60問 • 1年前

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(Refer to figure 1.) Which item(s) should be checked in block 1 for a composite flight plan?

VFR and IFR.

(Refer to figure 1.) Which equipment determines the code to be entered in block 3 as a suffix to aircraft type on the flight plan form?

DME, transponder, and RNAV.

(Refer to figure 1.) What information should be entered in block 7 of an IFR flight plan if the flight has three legs, each at a different altitude?

Altitude for first leg.

(Refer to figure 1.) The time entered in block 12 for an IFR flight should be based on which fuel quantity?

Total useable fuel on board.

What point at the destination should be used to compute estimated time en route on an IFR flight plan?

The point of first intended landing.

When may a pilot file a composite flight plan?

Any time a portion of the flight will be VFR.

When filing a composite flight plan where the first portion of the flight is IFR, which fix(es) should be indicated on the flight plan form?

All points of transition from one airway to another, fixes defining direct route segments, and the clearance limit fix.

What is the recommended procedure for transitioning from VFR to IFR on a composite flight plan?

Prior to transitioning to IFR, contact the nearest FSS, close the VFR portion, and request ATC clearance.

How is your flight plan closed when your destination airport has IFR conditions and there is no control tower or flight service station (FSS) on the field?

Upon landing, you must close your flight plan by radio or by telephone to any FSS or ATC facility.

What response is expected when ATC issues an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft?

Read back those parts containing altitude assignments or vectors and any part requiring verification.

Which clearance items are always given in an abbreviated IFR departure clearance? (Assume radar environment.)

Destination airport, altitude, DP Name, Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate.

An abbreviated departure clearance "...CLEARED AS FILED..." will always contain the name

of the destination airport filed in the flight plan.

When departing from an airport not served by a control tower, the issuance of a clearance containing a void time indicates that

The pilot must advise ATC as soon as possible, but no later than 30 minutes, of their intentions if not off by the void time.

What is the significance of an ATC clearance which reads "...CRUISE SIX THOUSAND..."?

It authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and including 6,000.

What is the significance of an ATC clearance which reads "...CRUISE SIX THOUSAND..."?

Climbs may be made to, or descents made from, 6,000 feet at the pilot's discretion.

A "CRUISE FOUR THOUSAND FEET" clearance would mean that the pilot is authorized to

vacate 4,000 feet without notifying ATC.

During a takeoff into IFR conditions with low ceilings, when should the pilot contact departure control?

When advised by the tower.

To comply with ATC instructions for altitude changes of more than 1,000 feet, what rate of climb or descent should be used?

As rapidly as practicable to 1,000 feet above/below the assigned altitude, and then between 500 and 1,500 feet per minute until reaching the assigned altitude.

When ATC has not imposed any climb or descent restrictions and aircraft are within 1,000 feet of assigned altitude, pilots should attempt to both climb and descend at a rate of between

500 feet per minute and 1,500 feet per minute.

Which report should be made to ATC without a specific request when not in radar contact?

When leaving final approach fix in bound on final approach.

For IFR planning purposes, what are the compulsory reporting points when using VOR/DME or VORTAC fixes to define a direct route not on established airways?

Fixes selected to define the route.

During a flight, the controller advises "traffic 2 o'clock 5 miles southbound." The pilot is holding 20° correction for a crosswind from the right. Where should the pilot look for the traffic?

40° to the right of the aircraft's nose.

During the en route phase of an IFR flight, the pilot is advised "Radar service terminated." What action is appropriate?

Resume normal position reporting.

What does the ATC term "Radar Contact" signify?

Your aircraft has been identified on the radar display and radar flight-following will be provided until radar identification is terminated.

What is meant when departure control instructs you to "resume own navigation" after you have been vectored to a Victor airway?

You should maintain the airway by use of your navigation equipment.

What service is provided by departure control to an IFR flight when operating from an airport within the outer area of Class C airspace?

Separation from all IFR aircraft and participating VFR aircraft.

You are being vectored to the ILS approach course, but have not been cleared for the approach. It becomes evident that you will pass through the localizer course. What action should be taken?

Continue on the assigned heading and query ATC.

When are you required to establish communications with the tower (Class D airspace), if you cancel your IFR flight plan 10 miles from the destination?

Before entering Class D airspace.

If a control tower and an FSS are located on the same airport, which function is provided by the FSS during those periods when the tower is closed?

Airport Advisory Service.

Which service is provided for IFR arrivals by a FSS located on an airport without a control tower?

Airport advisories.

What does declaring "minimum fuel" to ATC imply?

Merely an advisory that indicates an emergency situation is possible should any undue delay occur.

You enter a holding pattern (at a fix that is not the same as the approach fix) with an EFC time of 1530. At 1520 you experience complete two-way communications failure. Which procedure should you follow to execute the approach to a landing?

Depart the holding fix at the EFC time, and complete the approach.

Which procedure should you follow if you experience two-way communications failure while holding at a holding fix with an EFC time? (The holding fix is not the same as the approach fix.)

Depart the holding fix at the EFC time.

You are in IMC and have two-way radio communications failure. If you do not exercise emergency authority, what procedure are you expected to follow?

Set transponder to code 7600, continue flight on assigned route and fly at the last assigned altitude or the MEA, whichever is higher.

What altitude and route should be used if you are flying in IMC and have two-way radio communications failure?

Continue on the route specified in your clearance, fly at an altitude that is the highest of last assigned altitude, altitude ATC has informed you to expect, or the MEA.

Which procedure should you follow if, during an IFR flight in VFR conditions, you have two-way radio communications failure?

Continue the flight under VFR and land as soon as practicable.

While flying on an IFR flight plan, you experience two-way communications radio failure while in VFR conditions. In this situation, you should continue your flight under

VFR and land as soon as practicable.

What action should you take if your DME fails at FL 240?

Notify ATC of the failure and continue to the next airport of intended landing where repairs can be made.

What is the procedure when the DME malfunctions at or above 24,000 feet MSL?

After immediately notifying ATC, you may continue to the next airport of intended landing where repairs can be made.

What action should you take if your No. 1 VOR receiver malfunctions while operating in controlled airspace under IFR? Your aircraft is equipped with two VOR receivers. The No. 1 receiver has Omni/Localizer/Glide Slope capability, and the No. 2 receiver has only VOR/Localizer capability.

Report the malfunction immediately to ATC.

Which types of airspace are depicted on the En Route Low Altitude Chart?

Class D, Class C, Class B, Class E, and special use airspace.

Class G airspace is that airspace where

ATC does not control air traffic.

Which airspace is defined as a transition area when designated in conjunction with an airport which has a prescribed IAP?

The Class E airspace extending upward from 700 feet or more above the surface and terminating at the base of the overlying controlled airspace.

What are the vertical limits of a transition area that is designated in conjunction with an airport having a prescribed IAP?

700 feet AGL or more to the base of the overlying controlled airspace.

MOAs are established to

separate certain military activities from IFR traffic.

(Refer to figure 93.) What is the floor of Class A airspace?

18,000 feet MSL.

What are the main differences between a visual approach and a contact approach?

The pilot must request a contact approach; the pilot may be assigned a visual approach and higher weather minimums must exist.

What are the requirements for a contact approach to an airport that has an approved IAP, if the pilot is on an instrument flight plan and clear of clouds?

The pilot must request the approach, have at least 1-mile visibility, and be reasonably sure of remaining clear of clouds.

When is radar service terminated during a visual approach?

Automatically when ATC instructs the pilot to contact the tower.

What are the main differences between the SDF and the localizer of an ILS?

The SDF course may not be aligned with the runway and the course may be wider.

How wide is an SDF course?

Either 6° or 12°.

If an early missed approach is initiated before reaching the MAP, the following procedure should be used unless otherwise cleared by ATC.

Proceed to the missed approach point at or above the MDA or DH before executing a turning maneuver.

If the pilot loses visual reference while circling to land from an instrument approach and ATC radar service is not available, the missed approach action should be to

make a climbing turn toward the landing runway and continue the turn until established on the missed approach course.

If all ILS components are operating and the required visual references are not established, the missed approach should be initiated upon

arrival at the DH on the glide slope.

If during an ILS approach in IFR conditions, the approach lights are not visible upon arrival at the DH, the pilot is

required to immediately execute the missed approach procedure.

Approximately what height is the glide slope centerline at the MM of a typical ILS?

200 feet.

Which range facility associated with the ILS is identified by the last two letters of the localizer identification group?

Middle compass locator.

Which substitution is permitted when an ILS component is inoperative?

A compass locator or precision radar may be substituted for the ILS outer or middle marker.

Which substitution is appropriate during an ILS approach?

LOC minimums should be substituted for ILS minimums whenever the glide slope becomes inoperative.

Immediately after passing the final approach fix in bound during an ILS approach in IFR conditions, the glide slope warning flag appears. The pilot is

permitted to continue the approach and descend to the localizer MDA.

CPL HUMAN PERFORMANCE AND LIMITATIONS (1)

Via · 78問 · 1年前

CPL HUMAN PERFORMANCE AND LIMITATIONS (1)