ログイン

OP 10
50問 • 1年前
  • Via
  • 通報

    問題一覧

  • 1

    Immediately after passing the final approach fix in bound during an ILS approach in IFR conditions, the glide slope warning flag appears. The pilot is

    permitted to continue the approach and descend to the localizer MDA.

  • 2

    When a VOR/DME is collocated under frequency pairings and the VOR portion is inoperative, the DME identifier will repeat at an interval of

    30 second intervals at 1350 Hz.

  • 3

    To remain on the ILS glidepath, the rate of descent must be

    increased if the groundspeed is increased.

  • 4

    How can an IAF be identified on a Standard Instrument Approach Procedure (SIAP) Chart?

    All fixes that are labeled IAF

  • 5

    When may a pilot make a straight in landing, if using an IAP having only circling minimums?

    A straight in landing may be made if the pilot has the runway in sight in sufficient time to make a normal approach for landing, and has been cleared to land.

  • 6

    Your avionics system offers advisory VNAV functions, but does not use WAAS or baro-VNAV systems. Which statement is true?

    Your avionics system cannot be used to execute approaches to LNAV/VNAV minimums.

  • 7

    While being vectored, if crossing the ILS final approach course becomes imminent and an approach clearance has not been issued, what action should be taken by the pilot?

    Maintain the last assigned heading and query ATC.

  • 8

    Which is true regarding STARs?

    STARs are established to simplify clearance delivery procedures.

  • 9

    When is radar service terminated during a visual approach?

    Automatically when ATC instructs the pilot to contact the tower.

  • 10

    When making an instrument approach at the selected alternate airport, what landing minimums apply?

    The landing minimums published for the type of procedure selected.

  • 11

    During an instrument approach, under what conditions, if any, is the holding pattern course reversal not required?

    When radar vectors are provided.

  • 12

    It should be remembered that while instrument departure procedures (DPs) do provide obstacle clearance, their main purpose is to provide

    efficient routing to maximize aircraft capacity and minimize communication.

  • 13

    While on an ILS approach, what is the proper way to recover from an impending stall?

    Reducing the angle of attack.

  • 14

    After being handed off to the final approach controller during a 'no gyro' surveillance or precision approach, the pilot should make all turns

    one half standard rate.

  • 15

    What does the symbol T within a black triangle in the minimums section of the IAP for a particular airport indicate?

    Takeoff minimums are not standard and/or departure procedures are published.

  • 16

    What does the absence of the procedure turn barb on the plan view on an approach chart indicate?

    A procedure turn is not authorized.

  • 17

    Precision Runway Monitoring (PRM) is

    a RADAR system for monitoring approaches to closely spaced parallel runways.

  • 18

    Your onboard GPS-based FMS/RNAV unit is IFR certified under TSO-C129. Your destination is below minimums and you proceed to your filed alternate. You know that

    once diverted to the alternate airport, you may fly a GPS-based approach as long as there is an operational ground-based NAVAID and appropriate airborne receiver for use as a backup.

  • 19

    What obstacle clearance and navigation signal coverage is a pilot assured with the Minimum Sector Altitudes depicted on the IAP charts?

    1,000 feet within a 25 NM radius of the navigation facility, but not acceptable navigation signal coverage.

  • 20

    Under which condition does ATC issue a STAR?

    When ATC deems it appropriate, unless the pilot requests "No STAR."

  • 21

    How can an initial approach fix be identified on a Standard Instrument Approach Procedure (SIAP) Chart?

    All fixes that are labeled "IAF" which are depicted on the plan view.

  • 22

    If all ILS components are operating and the required visual references are not established, the missed approach should be initiated upon

    arrival at the DH on the glide slope.

  • 23

    If your GPS receiver displays LNAV+V and you're flying straight in, which line of the minimums section on an approach chart would you use?

    LNAV.

  • 24

    If you do not see the required visual references on an ILS approach, you must execute the missed approach procedure no later than

    decision altitude.

  • 25

    A Precision Runway Monitoring (PRM) approach may require

    monitoring of two communication frequencies simultaneously.

  • 26

    In what circumstances would a baro-VNAV approach not be authorized?

    In areas of hazardous terrain or when a remote altimeter setting is required.

  • 27

    On a WAAS-capable GPS approach, what is the significance of "LNAV+V" being displayed?

    Advisory vertical guidance is provided as an aid to the pilot during the descent to the runway.

  • 28

    A contact approach is an approach procedure that may be used

    in lieu of conducting a SIAP.

  • 29

    During an instrument precision approach, terrain and obstacle clearance depends on adherence to

    minimum altitude shown on the IAP.

  • 30

    Which approach and landing objective is assured when the pilot remains on the proper glidepath of the VASI?

    Safe obstruction clearance in the approach area.

  • 31

    What conditions are necessary before ATC can authorize a visual approach?

    You must have the airport in sight or a preceding aircraft to be followed, and be able to proceed to the airport in VFR conditions.

  • 32

    Which of the following statements is true regarding Parallel ILS approaches?

    Parallel ILS approaches provide aircraft a minimum of 1 1/2 miles radar separation between successive aircraft on the adjacent localizer course.

  • 33

    What effect will a change in wind direction have upon maintaining a 3° glide slope at a constant true airspeed?

    When groundspeed increases, rate of descent must increase.

  • 34

    Which information, in addition to headings, does the radar controller provide without request during an ASR approach?

    When to commence descent to MDA, the aircraft's position each mile on final from the runway, and arrival at the MAP.

  • 35

    What are the vertical limits of a transition area that is designated in conjunction with an airport having a prescribed IAP?

    700 feet AGL or more to the base of the overlying controlled airspace.

  • 36

    When being radar vectored for an ILS approach, at what point may you start a descent from your last assigned altitude to a lower minimum altitude if cleared for the approach?

    When established on a segment of a published route or IAP.

  • 37

    The rate of descent required to stay on the ILS glide slope

    must be decreased if the groundspeed is decreased.

  • 38

    Which of the following indications would a pilot see while approaching to land on a runway served by a 2 bar VASI?

    If departing to the high side of the glidepath, the far bars will change from red to white.

  • 39

    You are in IMC and descending below 1,000 feet above the TDZE on a straight-in instrument approach in a turbojet. The approach is considered stabilized when the airplane is

    fully configured and on the correct speed with a descent rate of less than 1,000 FPM.

  • 40

    How does a pilot determine if DME is available on an ILS/LOC?

    IAP indicate DME\TACAN channel in LOC frequency box.

  • 41

    Which approach and landing objective is assured when the pilot remains on the proper glidepath of the VASI?

    Safe obstruction clearance in the approach area.

  • 42

    You have been given the following approach clearance, "N696US you are cleared for the ILS RWY 7 left approach, side-step RWY 7 right." At what point are you expected to commence the side-step maneuver?

    As soon as possible after the runway or runway environment is in sight.

  • 43

    When flying a localizer back course approach, the glideslope can

    project a false signal.

  • 44

    Changing the default sensitivity on your GPS approach will

    disable (deselect) the GPS annunciator.

  • 45

    Lights which indicate the runway is occupied are

    flashing PAPIs.

  • 46

    The primary purpose of runway end identifier lights, installed at many airfields, is to provide

    rapid identification of the approach end of the runway during reduced visibility.

  • 47

    What are the main differences between a visual approach and a contact approach?

    The pilot must request a contact approach; the pilot may be assigned a visual approach and higher weather minimums must exist.

  • 48

    You arrive at your destination airport on an IFR flight plan. Which is a prerequisite condition for the performance of a contact approach?

    Clear of clouds and at least 1 SM flight visibility.

  • 49

    The instrument approach criteria for a Category A airplane is based on a maximum airspeed of

    90 knots.

  • 50

    How does baro-VNAV provide vertical guidance during an RNAV approach?

    By defined vertical angles or altitudes as fixes using the local altimeter setting.

  • CPL HUMAN PERFORMANCE AND LIMITATIONS (1)

    CPL HUMAN PERFORMANCE AND LIMITATIONS (1)

    Via · 78問 · 1年前

    CPL HUMAN PERFORMANCE AND LIMITATIONS (1)

    CPL HUMAN PERFORMANCE AND LIMITATIONS (1)

    78問 • 1年前
    Via

    CPL HUMAN PERFORMANCE AND LIMITATIONS (2)

    CPL HUMAN PERFORMANCE AND LIMITATIONS (2)

    Via · 81問 · 1年前

    CPL HUMAN PERFORMANCE AND LIMITATIONS (2)

    CPL HUMAN PERFORMANCE AND LIMITATIONS (2)

    81問 • 1年前
    Via

    CPL Radio Telephony (1)

    CPL Radio Telephony (1)

    Via · 100問 · 1年前

    CPL Radio Telephony (1)

    CPL Radio Telephony (1)

    100問 • 1年前
    Via

    CPL Radio Telephony (2)

    CPL Radio Telephony (2)

    Via · 100問 · 1年前

    CPL Radio Telephony (2)

    CPL Radio Telephony (2)

    100問 • 1年前
    Via

    CPL Radio Telephony (3)

    CPL Radio Telephony (3)

    Via · 20問 · 1年前

    CPL Radio Telephony (3)

    CPL Radio Telephony (3)

    20問 • 1年前
    Via

    Met 1

    Met 1

    Via · 78問 · 1年前

    Met 1

    Met 1

    78問 • 1年前
    Via

    Met 2

    Met 2

    Via · 43問 · 1年前

    Met 2

    Met 2

    43問 • 1年前
    Via

    Met 3

    Met 3

    Via · 49問 · 1年前

    Met 3

    Met 3

    49問 • 1年前
    Via

    Met 4

    Met 4

    Via · 14問 · 1年前

    Met 4

    Met 4

    14問 • 1年前
    Via

    Met 5

    Met 5

    Via · 83問 · 1年前

    Met 5

    Met 5

    83問 • 1年前
    Via

    Met 6

    Met 6

    Via · 35問 · 1年前

    Met 6

    Met 6

    35問 • 1年前
    Via

    Met 7

    Met 7

    Via · 54問 · 1年前

    Met 7

    Met 7

    54問 • 1年前
    Via

    Met 8

    Met 8

    Via · 7問 · 1年前

    Met 8

    Met 8

    7問 • 1年前
    Via

    Human Performance 3

    Human Performance 3

    Via · 57問 · 1年前

    Human Performance 3

    Human Performance 3

    57問 • 1年前
    Via

    Met 9

    Met 9

    Via · 35問 · 1年前

    Met 9

    Met 9

    35問 • 1年前
    Via

    Met 10

    Met 10

    Via · 43問 · 1年前

    Met 10

    Met 10

    43問 • 1年前
    Via

    AGK 1

    AGK 1

    Via · 63問 · 1年前

    AGK 1

    AGK 1

    63問 • 1年前
    Via

    AGK 2

    AGK 2

    Via · 47問 · 1年前

    AGK 2

    AGK 2

    47問 • 1年前
    Via

    AGK 3

    AGK 3

    Via · 97問 · 1年前

    AGK 3

    AGK 3

    97問 • 1年前
    Via

    問題一覧

  • 1

    Immediately after passing the final approach fix in bound during an ILS approach in IFR conditions, the glide slope warning flag appears. The pilot is

    permitted to continue the approach and descend to the localizer MDA.

  • 2

    When a VOR/DME is collocated under frequency pairings and the VOR portion is inoperative, the DME identifier will repeat at an interval of

    30 second intervals at 1350 Hz.

  • 3

    To remain on the ILS glidepath, the rate of descent must be

    increased if the groundspeed is increased.

  • 4

    How can an IAF be identified on a Standard Instrument Approach Procedure (SIAP) Chart?

    All fixes that are labeled IAF

  • 5

    When may a pilot make a straight in landing, if using an IAP having only circling minimums?

    A straight in landing may be made if the pilot has the runway in sight in sufficient time to make a normal approach for landing, and has been cleared to land.

  • 6

    Your avionics system offers advisory VNAV functions, but does not use WAAS or baro-VNAV systems. Which statement is true?

    Your avionics system cannot be used to execute approaches to LNAV/VNAV minimums.

  • 7

    While being vectored, if crossing the ILS final approach course becomes imminent and an approach clearance has not been issued, what action should be taken by the pilot?

    Maintain the last assigned heading and query ATC.

  • 8

    Which is true regarding STARs?

    STARs are established to simplify clearance delivery procedures.

  • 9

    When is radar service terminated during a visual approach?

    Automatically when ATC instructs the pilot to contact the tower.

  • 10

    When making an instrument approach at the selected alternate airport, what landing minimums apply?

    The landing minimums published for the type of procedure selected.

  • 11

    During an instrument approach, under what conditions, if any, is the holding pattern course reversal not required?

    When radar vectors are provided.

  • 12

    It should be remembered that while instrument departure procedures (DPs) do provide obstacle clearance, their main purpose is to provide

    efficient routing to maximize aircraft capacity and minimize communication.

  • 13

    While on an ILS approach, what is the proper way to recover from an impending stall?

    Reducing the angle of attack.

  • 14

    After being handed off to the final approach controller during a 'no gyro' surveillance or precision approach, the pilot should make all turns

    one half standard rate.

  • 15

    What does the symbol T within a black triangle in the minimums section of the IAP for a particular airport indicate?

    Takeoff minimums are not standard and/or departure procedures are published.

  • 16

    What does the absence of the procedure turn barb on the plan view on an approach chart indicate?

    A procedure turn is not authorized.

  • 17

    Precision Runway Monitoring (PRM) is

    a RADAR system for monitoring approaches to closely spaced parallel runways.

  • 18

    Your onboard GPS-based FMS/RNAV unit is IFR certified under TSO-C129. Your destination is below minimums and you proceed to your filed alternate. You know that

    once diverted to the alternate airport, you may fly a GPS-based approach as long as there is an operational ground-based NAVAID and appropriate airborne receiver for use as a backup.

  • 19

    What obstacle clearance and navigation signal coverage is a pilot assured with the Minimum Sector Altitudes depicted on the IAP charts?

    1,000 feet within a 25 NM radius of the navigation facility, but not acceptable navigation signal coverage.

  • 20

    Under which condition does ATC issue a STAR?

    When ATC deems it appropriate, unless the pilot requests "No STAR."

  • 21

    How can an initial approach fix be identified on a Standard Instrument Approach Procedure (SIAP) Chart?

    All fixes that are labeled "IAF" which are depicted on the plan view.

  • 22

    If all ILS components are operating and the required visual references are not established, the missed approach should be initiated upon

    arrival at the DH on the glide slope.

  • 23

    If your GPS receiver displays LNAV+V and you're flying straight in, which line of the minimums section on an approach chart would you use?

    LNAV.

  • 24

    If you do not see the required visual references on an ILS approach, you must execute the missed approach procedure no later than

    decision altitude.

  • 25

    A Precision Runway Monitoring (PRM) approach may require

    monitoring of two communication frequencies simultaneously.

  • 26

    In what circumstances would a baro-VNAV approach not be authorized?

    In areas of hazardous terrain or when a remote altimeter setting is required.

  • 27

    On a WAAS-capable GPS approach, what is the significance of "LNAV+V" being displayed?

    Advisory vertical guidance is provided as an aid to the pilot during the descent to the runway.

  • 28

    A contact approach is an approach procedure that may be used

    in lieu of conducting a SIAP.

  • 29

    During an instrument precision approach, terrain and obstacle clearance depends on adherence to

    minimum altitude shown on the IAP.

  • 30

    Which approach and landing objective is assured when the pilot remains on the proper glidepath of the VASI?

    Safe obstruction clearance in the approach area.

  • 31

    What conditions are necessary before ATC can authorize a visual approach?

    You must have the airport in sight or a preceding aircraft to be followed, and be able to proceed to the airport in VFR conditions.

  • 32

    Which of the following statements is true regarding Parallel ILS approaches?

    Parallel ILS approaches provide aircraft a minimum of 1 1/2 miles radar separation between successive aircraft on the adjacent localizer course.

  • 33

    What effect will a change in wind direction have upon maintaining a 3° glide slope at a constant true airspeed?

    When groundspeed increases, rate of descent must increase.

  • 34

    Which information, in addition to headings, does the radar controller provide without request during an ASR approach?

    When to commence descent to MDA, the aircraft's position each mile on final from the runway, and arrival at the MAP.

  • 35

    What are the vertical limits of a transition area that is designated in conjunction with an airport having a prescribed IAP?

    700 feet AGL or more to the base of the overlying controlled airspace.

  • 36

    When being radar vectored for an ILS approach, at what point may you start a descent from your last assigned altitude to a lower minimum altitude if cleared for the approach?

    When established on a segment of a published route or IAP.

  • 37

    The rate of descent required to stay on the ILS glide slope

    must be decreased if the groundspeed is decreased.

  • 38

    Which of the following indications would a pilot see while approaching to land on a runway served by a 2 bar VASI?

    If departing to the high side of the glidepath, the far bars will change from red to white.

  • 39

    You are in IMC and descending below 1,000 feet above the TDZE on a straight-in instrument approach in a turbojet. The approach is considered stabilized when the airplane is

    fully configured and on the correct speed with a descent rate of less than 1,000 FPM.

  • 40

    How does a pilot determine if DME is available on an ILS/LOC?

    IAP indicate DME\TACAN channel in LOC frequency box.

  • 41

    Which approach and landing objective is assured when the pilot remains on the proper glidepath of the VASI?

    Safe obstruction clearance in the approach area.

  • 42

    You have been given the following approach clearance, "N696US you are cleared for the ILS RWY 7 left approach, side-step RWY 7 right." At what point are you expected to commence the side-step maneuver?

    As soon as possible after the runway or runway environment is in sight.

  • 43

    When flying a localizer back course approach, the glideslope can

    project a false signal.

  • 44

    Changing the default sensitivity on your GPS approach will

    disable (deselect) the GPS annunciator.

  • 45

    Lights which indicate the runway is occupied are

    flashing PAPIs.

  • 46

    The primary purpose of runway end identifier lights, installed at many airfields, is to provide

    rapid identification of the approach end of the runway during reduced visibility.

  • 47

    What are the main differences between a visual approach and a contact approach?

    The pilot must request a contact approach; the pilot may be assigned a visual approach and higher weather minimums must exist.

  • 48

    You arrive at your destination airport on an IFR flight plan. Which is a prerequisite condition for the performance of a contact approach?

    Clear of clouds and at least 1 SM flight visibility.

  • 49

    The instrument approach criteria for a Category A airplane is based on a maximum airspeed of

    90 knots.

  • 50

    How does baro-VNAV provide vertical guidance during an RNAV approach?

    By defined vertical angles or altitudes as fixes using the local altimeter setting.