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OP 14
33問 • 1年前
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    問題一覧

  • 1

    While performing a VFR practice instrument approach, Radar Approach Control assigns an altitude or heading that will cause you to enter the clouds, what action should you take?

    advise "unable" and remain clear of clouds.

  • 2

    Once a pilot accepts a LAHSO clearance, the pilot must adhere to that clearance and:

    A LAHSO clearance does not preclude rejected landings.

  • 3

    What action is recommended if a pilot does not wish to use an instrument departure procedure?

    Enter "No DP" in the REMARKS section of the IFR flight plan.

  • 4

    When proceeding on a "Climb Via" Standard Instrument Departure, the Top Altitude is

    the highest altitude you climb to on the SID.

  • 5

    If, while in Class E airspace, a clearance is received to 'maintain VFR conditions on top,' the pilot should maintain a VFR cruising altitude based on the direction of the

    magnetic course.

  • 6

    What is the rule for a pilot receiving a "Land and Hold Short Operation (LAHSO) clearance?"

    The pilot has the option to accept or reject all LAHSO clearances regardless of the meteorological conditions.

  • 7

    When exiting the runway, what is the purpose of the runway exit sign?

    Indicates designation and direction of exit taxiway from runway.

  • 8

    What is the significance of an ATC clearance which reads '...CRUISE SIX THOUSAND...'?

    It authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and including 6,000.

  • 9

    How does a pilot normally obtain the current altimeter setting during an IFR flight in Class E airspace below 18,000 feet?

    ATC periodically advises the pilot of the proper altimeter setting.

  • 10

    An abbreviated departure clearance '...CLEARED AS FILED...' will always contain the name

    of the destination airport filed in the flight plan.

  • 11

    What response is expected when ATC issues an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft?

    Read back those parts containing altitude assignments or vectors and any part requiring verification.

  • 12

    On the runup pad, you receive the following clearance from ground control: CLEARED TO THE DALLAS LOVE AIRPORT AS FILED - MAINTAIN SIX THOUSAND - SQUAWK ZERO SEVEN ZERO FOUR JUST BEFORE DEPARTURE - DEPARTURE CONTROL WILL BE ONE TWO FOUR POINT NINER. An abbreviated clearance, such as this, will always contain the

    destination airport and route.

  • 13

    Which lines should you cross when exiting the runway?

    Both dashed and solid lines.

  • 14

    A 'CRUISE FOUR THOUSAND FEET' clearance would mean that the pilot is authorized to

    vacate 4,000 feet without notifying ATC.

  • 15

    What action should you take if your No. 1 VOR receiver malfunctions while operating in controlled airspace under IFR? Your aircraft is equipped with two VOR receivers. The No. 1 receiver has VOR/Localizer/Glide Slope capability, and the No. 2 receiver has only VOR/Localizer capability.

    Report the malfunction immediately to ATC.

  • 16

    Which information is always given in an abbreviated departure clearance?

    Name of destination airport or specific fix and altitude.

  • 17

    When the approach procedure involves a procedure turn, the maximum speed should not be greater than

    200 knots IAS.

  • 18

    You have not yet been cleared for the approach, but you are being vectored to the ILS approach course. It is clear that you will pass through the localizer course unless you take action. You should

    continue as assigned and query ATC.

  • 19

    Which clearance items are always given in an abbreviated IFR departure clearance? (Assume radar environment.)

    Destination airport, altitude, DP Name, Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate.

  • 20

    What conditions would cause an air traffic controller to issue you a safety alert?

    When the aircraft altitude places it in unsafe proximity to terrain, obstructions, or other aircraft.

  • 21

    If the pilot loses visual reference while circling to land from an instrument approach and ATC radar service is not available, the missed approach action should be to

    make a climbing turn toward the landing runway and continue the turn until established on the missed approach course.

  • 22

    When can a VFR on Top clearance be assigned by ATC?

    Only upon request of the pilot when conditions are indicated to be suitable.

  • 23

    You have requested taxi instructions for takeoff using Runway 16. The controller issues the following taxi instructions: "N123, Taxi to runway 16." Where are you required to stop in order to be in compliance with the controller's instructions?

    You may taxi via the assigned route to the threshold of Runway 16, but must stop and receive further clearance before entering any other runways or runway approach areas.

  • 24

    Which ATC clearance should instrument rated pilots request in order to climb through a cloud layer or an area of reduced visibility and then continue the flight VFR?

    To VFR on Top.

  • 25

    Which procedure should you follow if you experience two-way communications failure while holding at a holding fix with an EFC time? (The holding fix is not the same as the approach fix.)

    Depart the holding fix at the EFC time.

  • 26

    Which condition is guaranteed for all of the following altitude limits: MAA, MCA, MRA, MOCA, and MEA? (Non mountainous area.)

    1,000 foot obstacle clearance.

  • 27

    You are in IMC and have two way radio communications failure. If you do not exercise emergency authority, what procedure are you expected to follow?

    Set transponder to code 7600, continue flight on assigned route and fly at the last assigned altitude or the MEA, whichever is higher.

  • 28

    Which procedure should you follow if, during an IFR flight in VFR conditions, you have two way radio communications failure?

    Continue the flight under VFR and land as soon as practicable.

  • 29

    During a takeoff into IMC with low ceilings, you should contact departure

    when the tower instructs the change.

  • 30

    During an IFR flight in IMC, a distress condition is encountered, (fire, mechanical, or structural failure). The pilot should

    not hesitate to declare an emergency and obtain an amended clearance.

  • 31

    While on an instrument flight in VFR conditions, ATC asks you to "...ADVISE WHEN YOU HAVE ATIS..." for your destination airport. Upon tuning to ATIS, you discover that it hasn't been updated in over an hour. Which statement is true?

    Since it has been over an hour, check back in a moment because it is likely being updated now.

  • 32

    Which rules apply to the pilot in command when operating on a VFR on Top clearance?

    VFR and IFR.

  • 33

    When departing from an airport not served by a control tower, the issuance of a clearance containing a void time indicates that

    the pilot must advise ATC as soon as possible, but no later than 30 minutes, of their intentions if not off by the void time.

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    問題一覧

  • 1

    While performing a VFR practice instrument approach, Radar Approach Control assigns an altitude or heading that will cause you to enter the clouds, what action should you take?

    advise "unable" and remain clear of clouds.

  • 2

    Once a pilot accepts a LAHSO clearance, the pilot must adhere to that clearance and:

    A LAHSO clearance does not preclude rejected landings.

  • 3

    What action is recommended if a pilot does not wish to use an instrument departure procedure?

    Enter "No DP" in the REMARKS section of the IFR flight plan.

  • 4

    When proceeding on a "Climb Via" Standard Instrument Departure, the Top Altitude is

    the highest altitude you climb to on the SID.

  • 5

    If, while in Class E airspace, a clearance is received to 'maintain VFR conditions on top,' the pilot should maintain a VFR cruising altitude based on the direction of the

    magnetic course.

  • 6

    What is the rule for a pilot receiving a "Land and Hold Short Operation (LAHSO) clearance?"

    The pilot has the option to accept or reject all LAHSO clearances regardless of the meteorological conditions.

  • 7

    When exiting the runway, what is the purpose of the runway exit sign?

    Indicates designation and direction of exit taxiway from runway.

  • 8

    What is the significance of an ATC clearance which reads '...CRUISE SIX THOUSAND...'?

    It authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and including 6,000.

  • 9

    How does a pilot normally obtain the current altimeter setting during an IFR flight in Class E airspace below 18,000 feet?

    ATC periodically advises the pilot of the proper altimeter setting.

  • 10

    An abbreviated departure clearance '...CLEARED AS FILED...' will always contain the name

    of the destination airport filed in the flight plan.

  • 11

    What response is expected when ATC issues an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft?

    Read back those parts containing altitude assignments or vectors and any part requiring verification.

  • 12

    On the runup pad, you receive the following clearance from ground control: CLEARED TO THE DALLAS LOVE AIRPORT AS FILED - MAINTAIN SIX THOUSAND - SQUAWK ZERO SEVEN ZERO FOUR JUST BEFORE DEPARTURE - DEPARTURE CONTROL WILL BE ONE TWO FOUR POINT NINER. An abbreviated clearance, such as this, will always contain the

    destination airport and route.

  • 13

    Which lines should you cross when exiting the runway?

    Both dashed and solid lines.

  • 14

    A 'CRUISE FOUR THOUSAND FEET' clearance would mean that the pilot is authorized to

    vacate 4,000 feet without notifying ATC.

  • 15

    What action should you take if your No. 1 VOR receiver malfunctions while operating in controlled airspace under IFR? Your aircraft is equipped with two VOR receivers. The No. 1 receiver has VOR/Localizer/Glide Slope capability, and the No. 2 receiver has only VOR/Localizer capability.

    Report the malfunction immediately to ATC.

  • 16

    Which information is always given in an abbreviated departure clearance?

    Name of destination airport or specific fix and altitude.

  • 17

    When the approach procedure involves a procedure turn, the maximum speed should not be greater than

    200 knots IAS.

  • 18

    You have not yet been cleared for the approach, but you are being vectored to the ILS approach course. It is clear that you will pass through the localizer course unless you take action. You should

    continue as assigned and query ATC.

  • 19

    Which clearance items are always given in an abbreviated IFR departure clearance? (Assume radar environment.)

    Destination airport, altitude, DP Name, Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate.

  • 20

    What conditions would cause an air traffic controller to issue you a safety alert?

    When the aircraft altitude places it in unsafe proximity to terrain, obstructions, or other aircraft.

  • 21

    If the pilot loses visual reference while circling to land from an instrument approach and ATC radar service is not available, the missed approach action should be to

    make a climbing turn toward the landing runway and continue the turn until established on the missed approach course.

  • 22

    When can a VFR on Top clearance be assigned by ATC?

    Only upon request of the pilot when conditions are indicated to be suitable.

  • 23

    You have requested taxi instructions for takeoff using Runway 16. The controller issues the following taxi instructions: "N123, Taxi to runway 16." Where are you required to stop in order to be in compliance with the controller's instructions?

    You may taxi via the assigned route to the threshold of Runway 16, but must stop and receive further clearance before entering any other runways or runway approach areas.

  • 24

    Which ATC clearance should instrument rated pilots request in order to climb through a cloud layer or an area of reduced visibility and then continue the flight VFR?

    To VFR on Top.

  • 25

    Which procedure should you follow if you experience two-way communications failure while holding at a holding fix with an EFC time? (The holding fix is not the same as the approach fix.)

    Depart the holding fix at the EFC time.

  • 26

    Which condition is guaranteed for all of the following altitude limits: MAA, MCA, MRA, MOCA, and MEA? (Non mountainous area.)

    1,000 foot obstacle clearance.

  • 27

    You are in IMC and have two way radio communications failure. If you do not exercise emergency authority, what procedure are you expected to follow?

    Set transponder to code 7600, continue flight on assigned route and fly at the last assigned altitude or the MEA, whichever is higher.

  • 28

    Which procedure should you follow if, during an IFR flight in VFR conditions, you have two way radio communications failure?

    Continue the flight under VFR and land as soon as practicable.

  • 29

    During a takeoff into IMC with low ceilings, you should contact departure

    when the tower instructs the change.

  • 30

    During an IFR flight in IMC, a distress condition is encountered, (fire, mechanical, or structural failure). The pilot should

    not hesitate to declare an emergency and obtain an amended clearance.

  • 31

    While on an instrument flight in VFR conditions, ATC asks you to "...ADVISE WHEN YOU HAVE ATIS..." for your destination airport. Upon tuning to ATIS, you discover that it hasn't been updated in over an hour. Which statement is true?

    Since it has been over an hour, check back in a moment because it is likely being updated now.

  • 32

    Which rules apply to the pilot in command when operating on a VFR on Top clearance?

    VFR and IFR.

  • 33

    When departing from an airport not served by a control tower, the issuance of a clearance containing a void time indicates that

    the pilot must advise ATC as soon as possible, but no later than 30 minutes, of their intentions if not off by the void time.