Final

100問 • 4ヶ月前

問題一覧

When will the approach phase activate?

Automatically when overflying the DECEL pseudo waypoint with NAV, LOC* or LOC engaged. It can also be manually activated by selecting ACTIVATE PHASE on the PERF page

How can the secondary flight plan be activated in flight?

When HDG or TRK lateral guidance modes are engaged, select the ACTIVATE SECONDARY prompt on the SEC INDEX page of the MCDU. This prompt will not be available in NAV unless the active leg in the primary and secondary are the same

When do the transfer valves close automatically?

At the next refueling operation

When SRS is engaged during takeoﬀ, what is the target airspeed?

V2+10 all engines operating, if OEl the highest of V2 or the airspeed at the time of engine failure (maximum V2+15 knots)

What happens to the wing and engine anti-ice valves when the hot air supply is unavailable?

Wing anti-ice valves close, engine anti-ice valves close

When is pack flow automatically increased to HIGH, regardless of the position of the PACK FLOW control knob?

When using APU bleed or during single pack operation

What can the flight crew do if the Captain loses audio in their headset (audio channel failure)?

The AUDIO SWITCHING selector should be set to CAPT/3, this connects the Captain's headset to ACP3 on the overhead panel

Which C/Bs have red caps on them to prevent them from being reset?

WTBs

Which ACP transmission key will illuminate if the cabin attendants are calling the cockpit?

CAB

What information is always available on the permanent data section of the SD?

TAT (Total Air Temperature)

How can armed FMA modes be identified on the PFD?

Armed FMA modes are displayed in blue (selected) or magenta (managed)

What are the two main functions of the FMGC?

Flight management and flight guidance

Which DMCs can receive information from ADIRU 3?

DMC 1, 2, or 3 depending on the configuration of the ATT HDG and AIR DATA rotary selectors on the switching panel

The MIXER unit is connected to:

Packs, re-circulated cabin air, emergency ram air inlet, and LP ground connector

Select the correct starter limitation for the CFM engine:

A 15 minute cooling period is required following 4 failed start cycles

How is an armed slide indicated on the DOOR/OXY page?

The word SLIDE appears in WHITE next to the associated door

Below what altitude does the vacuum generator produce the necessary pressure diﬀerential to force waste from the toilet bowls into the waste storage tank?

16,000 ft

Select the correct statement about the FAULT lights on the IR push buttons on the ADIRS panel:

A steady FAULT light indicates that the NAV mode of the associated IR has been lost. Refer to the ECAM procedure to check If it is possible to recover aetude and heading in ATT mode

What is the meaning of a BLUE light in a flight deck pushbutton?

Normal operation of a system used temporarily

What protections are available in alternate law?

Load factor limitation is the only protection available in alternate law. High speed and low speed stabilities may be available

What is the meaning of a GREEN light in a flight deck pushbutton?

Normal system operation

Select the correct statement about the ADIRS panel.

The ADR or IR part of an ADIRU can be individually switched OFF using the IR or ADR pushbuttons. Setting the IR Mode Selector to OFF will remove power from the whole ADIRU

The NAV and LOGO switch has two positions, 1 and 2. What is the difference between the two positions?

Position 1 turns on the logo lights and the first set of navigation lights, position 2 turns on the logo lights and the second set of navigation lights

In which areas of the engine are the fire detection loops located?

In the pylon nacelle, in the engine core, and in the engine fan section

What impact does a single hydraulic failure have on the slats and flaps?

The corresponding surfaces operate at half speed

Select the correct statement about the FIRE detection and fault logic for the ENG and APU (select the most complete

A fire warning is triggered if a break occurs in both fire detection loops within 5 sec of each other (flame effect)

Which LGIU normally controls the retraction cycle?

One LGCIU controls one complete gear cycle, then switches over automatically to the other LGIU at the completion of the retraction cycle. It also switches over in the case of failure

When the PACK FLOW selector is positioned to HI, airflow is:

120% of normal

Which system/computer provides the predictive windshear function?

The weather radar

Only _______ is functional in the emergency electrical configuration:

RMP 1

When will the autobrake system activate following a rejected takeoff?

The command for ground spoiler deployment from the SECs (wheel speed > 72 kt) will activate the autobrake

During cockpit preparation, what is the significance of an amber half box around the oxygen pressure indication on the DOOR/OXY page?

The pressure in the oxygen bottle is less than 1500PSI. Refer to the limitations section of the FCOM to determine whether the remaining quantity is not below the minimum for the number of occupants in the flight deck

Which valves can the flight crew control via the ENG1 (ENG2) MASTER switches?

LP and HP fuel shutoff valves

During cruise flight, how are the cockpit panels and avionics compartment cooled?

The avionics ventilation system extracts air from the cockpit panels and avionics compartment, and then removes heat using a skin air heat exchanger

The sidestick is pulled fully aft during a terrain escape manoeuvre. What does this pitch input demand from the flight control computers?

Initially load factor transitioning to an angle of attack demand. If the side stick is later released the F/CTRL computers will maintain an AoA equal to alpha prot, until the sidestick is pushed forward

The cross feed valve (X FEED) is :

Normally closed

Roll control is provided by:

Ailerons and spoilers 2, 3, 4 and 5

What is the cockpit handset typically used for?

PA announcements to the cabin only

Which computer generates amber cautions?

FWC

41. *What information is required to confirm that the landing gear is down-locked?

On the WHEEL SD page, at least one green triangle for each landing gear strut is sufficient to confirm that the landing gear is down-locked. Even if a red UNLK light is illuminated on the landing gear indicator panel

If AP 2 is engaged, which FMGC is master and controls the A/THR?

FMGC 2

During final approach, when is LAND annunciated on the FMA?

It engages <400 ft RA until approximately 40RA when it is replaced by FLARE. It can be disengaged by setting TOGA thrust, or by disconnecting both AP and FD

How can the flight crew arm the LOC and GS modes in order to fly an ILS approach?

Push the APP pushbutton on the FCU. The ILS information (including LOC and G/S scales) will not be displayed on the PFD unless the LS push button is selected on the EFIS panels

Which compartments are unpressurised?

Radome, nose gear bay, main gear bay, air conditioning compartment, and the tail cone

What is the normal voltage and frequency for the AC and DC systems on the A320?

3 phase AC 115/200v 400Hz, and 28v DC

During a successful manual engine start when does the start valve close, and ignition cut off?

The FADEC automatically closes the start valve and cuts off ignition when N2 reaches 50%

What happens when the landing gear is selected down on approach?

The WHEEL page appears on the LOWER ECAM DU

Which of the following statements best describes bank angle protection?

Above 33° an input on the sidestick will be required to hold the bank attitude. Full deflection will give a roll rate of 15% and the bank angle will not exceed 67°

How many flight control computers are there?

7:2 x ELACS, 3 x SECs, 2 x FACS

Can wing anti-ice be used when one engine is inoperative?

Yes, provided the x-bleed is selected open, one pack is selected off and the fire push button has not been pushed

On the ground, which configuration would you expect the avionics ventilation system to select if the OAT is 3°C on an overcast day?

Closed

Select the most complete statement about mechanical backup

Mechanical backup allows the flight crew to manage a temporary loss of 5 flight control computers. The THS and rudder are mechanically controlled, and hydraulically actuated. MAN PITCH TRIM ONLY (RED) is displayed on the PFD

Which valves can the flight crew control via the ENG1 (ENG2) MASTER switches?

LP and HP fuel shutoff valves

How many channels does a SFCC have?

2 channels: 1 SLAT and 1 FLAP

What impact does a FWS FWC 1+2 FAULT have?

All ECAM cautions and warnings, aural warnings, master caution and master warning lights are lost

What is the normal operating pressure of the hydraulic systems?

3000 PSI (2500 PSI when powered by the RAT)

If power to the cockpit door fails:

The door unlocks automatically, but remains closed

What is output power of each of the AC generators?

IDG 90 KVA, APU 90 KVA, emergency generator 5 KVA, Static Inverter 1 KVA

What is the cabin pressure safety relief valve setting?

8.6 PSI

What is the maximum speed with the landing gear extended (VLE)?

280 kt

What is the maximum speed (VFE) with CONF 1+F for the A320?

215 kt

What is the maximum demonstrated crosswind for the A320?

38 kt (gusts included)

Maximum reverse thrust should not be used below what airspeed?

70 kt

What are the flight maneuvering load acceleration limits for the A320?

Clean - 1g to 2.5g. Other configurations 0g to 2g

What is the runway slope limitation for the A320?

± 2%

What is the maximum operating speed for the windshield wipers?

230 kt

What are the minimum and maximum cabin differential pressure limits?

+9 to -1 PSI

What is the maximum speed at which the landing gear may be retracted (VLO retraction)?

220 kt

What is the minimum fuel quantity for takeoff?

1,500 kg

What is the maximum operating altitude with slats and/or flaps extended?

20,000 ft

What is VMO/MMO for the A320?

350/0.82

What is the maximum wind speed for passenger door operation?

65 kt

How long can you remain in TOGA thrust?

10 min during single engine operations

What is the maximum speed (VFE) with CONF FULL for the A320?

177 kt

Factored Landing Distance is Flight Landing Distance multiplied by a Factor of:

1.15

With abnormal landing, what is the runway length you can use for landing distance?

The entire length available

In the event of an engine failure during cruise, what is the initial drift-down speed with the obstacle strategy?

Green dot speed

In the case of one engine out, the TOGA thrust rating may be used for a maximum of:

Maximum of 10 min

APPR COR is the highest of: 5 kt in case of A/THR ON; or kt in case of Ice Accretion in CONF FULL; or kt in case of Ice Accretion in CONF 3; or 1/3 Headwind component (excluding gust - maximum 15 kt)

5, 10

How is VAPP with failure determined?

Includes VREF + VREF+APPR COR

The Long Range Cruise speed (LRC) is defined as the Mach number for which the specific range is equal to _ % of the maximum specific range.

Flex temperature calculations are based on?

Aircraft weight and environmental conditions

A runway is considered as wet, when the surface is covered by any visible moisture or water up to and including:

3 mm

What is the maximum thrust reduction allowed on a flex takeoff?

25%

In terms of performance, a contaminated runway is a runway covered by a hard contaminant that:

All of the answers are correct

What determines Maximum Takeoff Weight (MTOW)?

Lowest of certified limit takeoff weight and performance limit takeoff weight

EU-OPS requires a minimum go-around climb gradient of __ % for instrument approaches with decision heights below 200 ft.

2.5

When ECAM directs adding a speed increment to VREF for a failure, what do you add it to in the MCDU?

Vis at CONF FULL

What are some of the limitations that might impact Max Takeoff Weight?

Runway length, Obstacles, Tire Speed

VREF is equal to the VLS of CONF FULL. VREF is used to determine the:

Final Approach Speed (VAPP) when a system failure affects the landing performance

On a contaminated runway, which of the following is true?

V1 is the adjusted lowest safe go speed

Use provided loadsheet. What is the Index correction for PAX in CO?

-1

Use provided loadsheet. What is the index correction for takeoff fuel of 15.000 kg?

-5

Use provided loadsheet. What is the index effect of 3,000 kg in COMPT 4?

Where is the refuelling / defueling panel located?

On the fuselage side beneath the right wing

Use provided loadsheet. What is the allowed traffic load, with given information?

19,185 kg

In case of electrical failure, or if the electric pump fails, can the cargo doors still be operated?

Yes, when electrical power is not available, the operator can use a hydraulic hand pump to operate the cargo doors

During manual refuelling, which fuel tanks should be filled first?

Wing tanks

Where are the gravity refuelling points located?

On the upper surface of each wing

100

What should the pilots do to leave the cockpit in an emergency?

If it is not possible to reach the passenger cabin, evacuate via a sliding window, using an escape rope

CPL HUMAN PERFORMANCE AND LIMITATIONS (1)

Via · 78問 · 1年前

CPL HUMAN PERFORMANCE AND LIMITATIONS (1)

78問 • 1年前

Via

CPL HUMAN PERFORMANCE AND LIMITATIONS (2)

Via · 81問 · 1年前

CPL HUMAN PERFORMANCE AND LIMITATIONS (2)

81問 • 1年前

Via

CPL Radio Telephony (1)

Via · 100問 · 1年前

CPL Radio Telephony (1)

100問 • 1年前

Via

CPL Radio Telephony (2)

Via · 100問 · 1年前

CPL Radio Telephony (2)

100問 • 1年前

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CPL Radio Telephony (3)

Via · 20問 · 1年前

CPL Radio Telephony (3)

Met 1

Met 1

Met 2

Met 2

Met 3

Met 3

Met 4

Met 4

Met 5

Met 5

Met 6

Met 6

Met 7

Met 7

Met 8

Met 8

Human Performance 3

Human Performance 3

Met 9

Met 9

Met 10

Met 10

AGK 1

AGK 1

AGK 2

AGK 2

AGK 3

AGK 3

問題一覧

When will the approach phase activate?

Automatically when overflying the DECEL pseudo waypoint with NAV, LOC* or LOC engaged. It can also be manually activated by selecting ACTIVATE PHASE on the PERF page

How can the secondary flight plan be activated in flight?

When do the transfer valves close automatically?

At the next refueling operation

When SRS is engaged during takeoﬀ, what is the target airspeed?

V2+10 all engines operating, if OEl the highest of V2 or the airspeed at the time of engine failure (maximum V2+15 knots)

What happens to the wing and engine anti-ice valves when the hot air supply is unavailable?

Wing anti-ice valves close, engine anti-ice valves close

When is pack flow automatically increased to HIGH, regardless of the position of the PACK FLOW control knob?

When using APU bleed or during single pack operation

What can the flight crew do if the Captain loses audio in their headset (audio channel failure)?

The AUDIO SWITCHING selector should be set to CAPT/3, this connects the Captain's headset to ACP3 on the overhead panel

Which C/Bs have red caps on them to prevent them from being reset?

WTBs

Which ACP transmission key will illuminate if the cabin attendants are calling the cockpit?

CAB

What information is always available on the permanent data section of the SD?

TAT (Total Air Temperature)

How can armed FMA modes be identified on the PFD?

Armed FMA modes are displayed in blue (selected) or magenta (managed)

What are the two main functions of the FMGC?

Flight management and flight guidance

Which DMCs can receive information from ADIRU 3?

DMC 1, 2, or 3 depending on the configuration of the ATT HDG and AIR DATA rotary selectors on the switching panel

The MIXER unit is connected to:

Packs, re-circulated cabin air, emergency ram air inlet, and LP ground connector

Select the correct starter limitation for the CFM engine:

A 15 minute cooling period is required following 4 failed start cycles

How is an armed slide indicated on the DOOR/OXY page?

The word SLIDE appears in WHITE next to the associated door

Below what altitude does the vacuum generator produce the necessary pressure diﬀerential to force waste from the toilet bowls into the waste storage tank?

16,000 ft

Select the correct statement about the FAULT lights on the IR push buttons on the ADIRS panel:

A steady FAULT light indicates that the NAV mode of the associated IR has been lost. Refer to the ECAM procedure to check If it is possible to recover aetude and heading in ATT mode

What is the meaning of a BLUE light in a flight deck pushbutton?

Normal operation of a system used temporarily

What protections are available in alternate law?

Load factor limitation is the only protection available in alternate law. High speed and low speed stabilities may be available

What is the meaning of a GREEN light in a flight deck pushbutton?

Normal system operation

Select the correct statement about the ADIRS panel.

The ADR or IR part of an ADIRU can be individually switched OFF using the IR or ADR pushbuttons. Setting the IR Mode Selector to OFF will remove power from the whole ADIRU

The NAV and LOGO switch has two positions, 1 and 2. What is the difference between the two positions?

Position 1 turns on the logo lights and the first set of navigation lights, position 2 turns on the logo lights and the second set of navigation lights

In which areas of the engine are the fire detection loops located?

In the pylon nacelle, in the engine core, and in the engine fan section

What impact does a single hydraulic failure have on the slats and flaps?

The corresponding surfaces operate at half speed

Select the correct statement about the FIRE detection and fault logic for the ENG and APU (select the most complete

A fire warning is triggered if a break occurs in both fire detection loops within 5 sec of each other (flame effect)

Which LGIU normally controls the retraction cycle?

One LGCIU controls one complete gear cycle, then switches over automatically to the other LGIU at the completion of the retraction cycle. It also switches over in the case of failure

When the PACK FLOW selector is positioned to HI, airflow is:

120% of normal

Which system/computer provides the predictive windshear function?

The weather radar

Only _______ is functional in the emergency electrical configuration:

RMP 1

When will the autobrake system activate following a rejected takeoff?

The command for ground spoiler deployment from the SECs (wheel speed > 72 kt) will activate the autobrake

During cockpit preparation, what is the significance of an amber half box around the oxygen pressure indication on the DOOR/OXY page?

Which valves can the flight crew control via the ENG1 (ENG2) MASTER switches?

LP and HP fuel shutoff valves

During cruise flight, how are the cockpit panels and avionics compartment cooled?

The avionics ventilation system extracts air from the cockpit panels and avionics compartment, and then removes heat using a skin air heat exchanger

The sidestick is pulled fully aft during a terrain escape manoeuvre. What does this pitch input demand from the flight control computers?

The cross feed valve (X FEED) is :

Normally closed

Roll control is provided by:

Ailerons and spoilers 2, 3, 4 and 5

What is the cockpit handset typically used for?

PA announcements to the cabin only

Which computer generates amber cautions?

FWC

41. *What information is required to confirm that the landing gear is down-locked?

If AP 2 is engaged, which FMGC is master and controls the A/THR?

FMGC 2

During final approach, when is LAND annunciated on the FMA?

It engages <400 ft RA until approximately 40RA when it is replaced by FLARE. It can be disengaged by setting TOGA thrust, or by disconnecting both AP and FD

How can the flight crew arm the LOC and GS modes in order to fly an ILS approach?

Push the APP pushbutton on the FCU. The ILS information (including LOC and G/S scales) will not be displayed on the PFD unless the LS push button is selected on the EFIS panels

Which compartments are unpressurised?

Radome, nose gear bay, main gear bay, air conditioning compartment, and the tail cone

What is the normal voltage and frequency for the AC and DC systems on the A320?

3 phase AC 115/200v 400Hz, and 28v DC

During a successful manual engine start when does the start valve close, and ignition cut off?

The FADEC automatically closes the start valve and cuts off ignition when N2 reaches 50%

What happens when the landing gear is selected down on approach?

The WHEEL page appears on the LOWER ECAM DU

Which of the following statements best describes bank angle protection?

Above 33° an input on the sidestick will be required to hold the bank attitude. Full deflection will give a roll rate of 15% and the bank angle will not exceed 67°

How many flight control computers are there?

7:2 x ELACS, 3 x SECs, 2 x FACS

Can wing anti-ice be used when one engine is inoperative?

Yes, provided the x-bleed is selected open, one pack is selected off and the fire push button has not been pushed

On the ground, which configuration would you expect the avionics ventilation system to select if the OAT is 3°C on an overcast day?

Closed

Select the most complete statement about mechanical backup

Which valves can the flight crew control via the ENG1 (ENG2) MASTER switches?

LP and HP fuel shutoff valves

How many channels does a SFCC have?

2 channels: 1 SLAT and 1 FLAP

What impact does a FWS FWC 1+2 FAULT have?

All ECAM cautions and warnings, aural warnings, master caution and master warning lights are lost

What is the normal operating pressure of the hydraulic systems?

3000 PSI (2500 PSI when powered by the RAT)

If power to the cockpit door fails:

The door unlocks automatically, but remains closed

What is output power of each of the AC generators?

IDG 90 KVA, APU 90 KVA, emergency generator 5 KVA, Static Inverter 1 KVA

What is the cabin pressure safety relief valve setting?

8.6 PSI

What is the maximum speed with the landing gear extended (VLE)?

280 kt

What is the maximum speed (VFE) with CONF 1+F for the A320?

215 kt

What is the maximum demonstrated crosswind for the A320?

38 kt (gusts included)

Maximum reverse thrust should not be used below what airspeed?

70 kt

What are the flight maneuvering load acceleration limits for the A320?

Clean - 1g to 2.5g. Other configurations 0g to 2g

What is the runway slope limitation for the A320?

± 2%

What is the maximum operating speed for the windshield wipers?

230 kt

What are the minimum and maximum cabin differential pressure limits?

+9 to -1 PSI

What is the maximum speed at which the landing gear may be retracted (VLO retraction)?

220 kt

What is the minimum fuel quantity for takeoff?

1,500 kg

What is the maximum operating altitude with slats and/or flaps extended?

20,000 ft

What is VMO/MMO for the A320?

350/0.82

What is the maximum wind speed for passenger door operation?

65 kt

How long can you remain in TOGA thrust?

10 min during single engine operations

What is the maximum speed (VFE) with CONF FULL for the A320?

177 kt

Factored Landing Distance is Flight Landing Distance multiplied by a Factor of:

1.15

With abnormal landing, what is the runway length you can use for landing distance?

The entire length available

In the event of an engine failure during cruise, what is the initial drift-down speed with the obstacle strategy?

Green dot speed

In the case of one engine out, the TOGA thrust rating may be used for a maximum of:

Maximum of 10 min

APPR COR is the highest of: 5 kt in case of A/THR ON; or kt in case of Ice Accretion in CONF FULL; or kt in case of Ice Accretion in CONF 3; or 1/3 Headwind component (excluding gust - maximum 15 kt)

5, 10

How is VAPP with failure determined?

Includes VREF + VREF+APPR COR

The Long Range Cruise speed (LRC) is defined as the Mach number for which the specific range is equal to _ % of the maximum specific range.

Flex temperature calculations are based on?

Aircraft weight and environmental conditions

A runway is considered as wet, when the surface is covered by any visible moisture or water up to and including:

3 mm

What is the maximum thrust reduction allowed on a flex takeoff?

25%

In terms of performance, a contaminated runway is a runway covered by a hard contaminant that:

All of the answers are correct

What determines Maximum Takeoff Weight (MTOW)?

Lowest of certified limit takeoff weight and performance limit takeoff weight

EU-OPS requires a minimum go-around climb gradient of __ % for instrument approaches with decision heights below 200 ft.

2.5

When ECAM directs adding a speed increment to VREF for a failure, what do you add it to in the MCDU?

Vis at CONF FULL

What are some of the limitations that might impact Max Takeoff Weight?

Runway length, Obstacles, Tire Speed

VREF is equal to the VLS of CONF FULL. VREF is used to determine the:

Final Approach Speed (VAPP) when a system failure affects the landing performance

On a contaminated runway, which of the following is true?

V1 is the adjusted lowest safe go speed

Use provided loadsheet. What is the Index correction for PAX in CO?

-1

Use provided loadsheet. What is the index correction for takeoff fuel of 15.000 kg?

-5

Use provided loadsheet. What is the index effect of 3,000 kg in COMPT 4?

Where is the refuelling / defueling panel located?

On the fuselage side beneath the right wing

Use provided loadsheet. What is the allowed traffic load, with given information?

19,185 kg

In case of electrical failure, or if the electric pump fails, can the cargo doors still be operated?

Yes, when electrical power is not available, the operator can use a hydraulic hand pump to operate the cargo doors

During manual refuelling, which fuel tanks should be filled first?

Wing tanks

Where are the gravity refuelling points located?

On the upper surface of each wing

100

What should the pilots do to leave the cockpit in an emergency?

If it is not possible to reach the passenger cabin, evacuate via a sliding window, using an escape rope