問題一覧
1
A pilot is making an ILS approach and is past the OM to a runway which has a VASI. What action should the pilot take if an electronic glide slope malfunction occurs and the pilot has the VASI in sight?
The pilot may continue the approach and use the VASI glide slope in place of the electronic glide slope.
2
The rate of descent on the glide slope is dependent upon
ground speed.
3
The rate of descent required to stay on the ILS glide slope
must be decreased if the ground speed is decreased.
4
To remain on the ILS glidepath, the rate of descent must be
increased if the ground speed is increased.
5
What effect will a change in wind direction have upon maintaining a 3° glide slope at a constant true airspeed?
When ground speed increases, rate of descent must increase.
6
The glide slope and localizer are centered, but the airspeed is too fast. Which should be adjusted initially?
Power only.
7
While being vectored, if crossing the ILS final approach course becomes imminent and an approach clearance has not been issued, what action should be taken by the pilot?
Maintain the last assigned heading and query ATC.
8
While flying a 3° glide slope, a constant tailwind shears to a calm wind. Which conditions should the pilot expect?
Airspeed and pitch attitude increase and there is a tendency to go above glide slope
9
While flying a 3° glide slope, a headwind shears to a tailwind. Which conditions should the pilot expect on the glide slope?
Airspeed and pitch attitude decrease and there is a tendency to go below glide slope.
10
Which of the following conditions is required before "timed approaches from a holding fix" may be conducted?
If more than one missed approach procedure is available, none may require a course reversal.
11
If only one missed approach procedure is available, which of the following conditions is required when conducting "timed approaches from a holding fix"?
The reported ceiling and visibility minimums must be equal to or greater than the highest prescribed circling minimums for the IAP.
12
Prior to conducting "timed approaches from a holding fix," which one of the following is required?
The airport where the approach is to be conducted must have a control tower in operation.
13
When making a "timed approach" from a holding fix at the outer marker, the pilot should adjust the
holding pattern to leave the final approach fix inbound at the assigned time.
14
What does the symbol T within a black triangle in the minimums section of the IAP for a particular airport indicate?
Takeoff minimums are not standard and/or departure procedures are published.
15
When being radar vectored for an ILS approach, at what point may you start a descent from your last assigned altitude to a lower minimum altitude if cleared for the approach?
When established on a segment of a published route or IAP.
16
While being radar vectored, an approach clearance is received. The last assigned altitude should be maintained until
established on a segment of a published route or IAP.
17
(Refer to figure 123.) What minimum navigation equipment is required to complete the VOR/DME-A procedure?
One VOR receiver and DME.
18
Under which condition does ATC issue a STAR?
When ATC deems it appropriate, unless the pilot requests "No STAR."
19
Which is true regarding the use of an instrument departure procedure chart?
To use an instrument departure procedure, the pilot must possess at least the textual description of the approved procedure.
20
Which is true regarding STAR's?
STAR's are established to simplify clearance delivery procedures.
21
What action is recommended if a pilot does not wish to use an instrument departure procedure?
Enter "No DP" in the REMARKS section of the IFR flight plan.
22
Which procedure applies to instrument departure procedures?
If an instrument departure procedure is accepted, the pilot must possess at least a textual description.
23
If Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM) is not available when setting up a GPS approach, the pilot should
select another type of navigation and approach system.
24
When using GPS for navigation and instrument approaches, any required alternate airport must have
an approved operational instrument approach procedure other than GPS.
25
What action should be taken if hyperventilation is suspected?
Consciously breathe at a slower rate than normal.
26
A pilot is more subject to spatial disorientation if
body signals are used to interpret flight attitude.
27
Which procedure is recommended to prevent or overcome spatial disorientation?
Rely on the indications of the flight instruments.
28
Which technique should a pilot use to scan for traffic to the right and left during straight-and-level flight?
Systematically focus on different segments of the sky for short intervals.
29
Which force, in the Northern Hemisphere, acts at a right angle to the wind and deflects it to the right until parallel to the isobars?
Coriolis.
30
What relationship exists between the winds at 2,000 feet above the surface and the surface winds?
The winds at 2,000 feet tend to parallel the isobars while the surface winds cross the isobars at an angle toward lower pressure and are weaker.
31
What causes surface winds to flow across the isobars at an angle rather than parallel to the isobars?
Surface friction.
32
What type of clouds will be formed if very stable moist air is forced up slope?
Stratified clouds with little vertical development
33
Which of the following combinations of weather producing variables would likely result in cumuliform-type clouds, good visibility, rain showers, and possible clear-type icing in clouds?
Unstable, moist air, and orographic lifting.
34
The presence of standing lenticular altocumulus clouds is a good indication of
very strong turbulence.
35
Why is frost considered hazardous to flight operation?
Frost causes early airflow separation resulting in a loss of lift.
36
What is meant by the entry in the remarks section of METAR surface report for KBNA? METAR KBNA 211250Z 33018KT 290V260 1/2SM R31/2700FT +SN BLSNFG VV008 00/M03 A2991 RMK RAE42SNB42
Rain ended 42 past the hour, snow began 42 past the hour.
37
The reporting station originating this Aviation Routine Weather Report has a field elevation of 620 feet. If the reported sky cover is one continuous layer, what is its thickness (tops of OVC are reported at 6,500 feet)? METAR KMDW 121856Z AUTO 32005KT 1 1/2SM +RA BR OVC007 17/16 A2980
5,180 feet.
38
The station originating the following weather report has a field elevation of 1,300 feet MSL. From the bottom of the overcast cloud layer, what is its thickness (tops of OVC are reported at 3,800 feet)? SPECI KOKC 2228Z 28024G36KT 3/4SM BKN008 OVC020 28/23 A3000
500 feet.
39
What significant sky condition is reported in this METAR observation? METAR KBNA 1250Z 33018KT 290V360 1/2SM R31/2700FT +SN BLSNFG VV008 00/M03 A2991 RMK RERAE42SNB42
Sky is obscured with vertical visibility of 800 feet.
40
Interpret this PIREP. MRB UA/OV MRB/TM 1430/FL 060/TP C182/SK BKN BL /WX RA/TB MDT.
At 6,000 feet; between layers; moderate turbulence; moderate rain.
41
Which response most closely interprets the following PIREP? UA/OV OKC 063064/TM 1522/FL080/TP C172/TA - 04 /WV245040/TB LGT/RM IN CLR.
64 nautical miles on the 63 degree radial from Oklahoma City VOR at 1522 UTC, flight level 8,000 ft. Type of aircraft is a Cessna 172.
42
From which primary source should you obtain information regarding the weather expected to exist at your destination at your estimated time of arrival?
Terminal Aerodrome Forecast.
43
What is the wind shear forecast in the following TAF? TAF KCVG 231051Z 231212 12012KT 4SM -RA BR OVC008 WS005/27050KT TEMPO 1719 1/2SM -RA FG FM1930 09012KT 1SM -DZ BR VV003 BECMG 2021 5SM HZ=
500 feet AGL from 270° at 50 KT.
44
What is the forecast wind at 1800Z in the following TAF? KMEM 091740Z 1818 00000KT 1/2SM RAFG OVC005=
Calm.
45
When the visibility is greater than 6 SM on a TAF it is expressed as
P6SM.
46
A "VRB" wind entry in a Terminal Aerodrome Forecast (TAF) will be indicated when the wind is
3 knots or less.
47
Which primary source should be used to obtain forecast weather information at your destination for the planned ETA?
Terminal Aerodrome Forecast (TAF).
48
The body of a Terminal Aerodrome Forecast (TAF) covers a geographical proximity within a
5 statute mile radius from the center of an airport runway complex.
49
How much colder than standard temperature is the forecast temperature at 9,000 feet, as indicated in the following excerpt from the Winds and Temperature Aloft Forecast? FT 6000 9000 0737-04 1043-10
7°C.
50
Decode the excerpt from the Winds and Temperature Aloft Forecast (FD) for OKC at 39,000 feet. FT 3000 6000 39000 OKC 830558
Wind 330° at 105 knots, temperature -58°C.
51
A prognostic chart depicts the conditions
forecast to exist at a specific time in the future.
52
A pilot planning to depart at 1100Z on an IFR flight is particularly concerned about the hazard of icing. What sources reflect the most accurate information on icing conditions (current and forecast) at the time of departure?
Pilot weather reports (PIREPs), AIRMETs, and SIGMETs.
53
What is the definition of MEA?
The lowest published altitude which meets obstacle clearance requirements and assures acceptable navigational signal coverage.
54
Reception of signals from an off-airway radio facility may be inadequate to identify the fix at the designated MEA. In this case, which altitude is designated for the fix?
MRA.
55
Reception of signals from a radio facility, located off the airway being flown, may be inadequate at the designated MEA to identify the fix. In this case, which altitude is designated for the fix?
MRA.
56
ATC may assign the MOCA when certain special conditions exist, and when within
22 NM of a VOR.
57
Acceptable navigational signal coverage at the MOCA is assured for a distance from the VOR of only
22 NM.
58
Which aeronautical chart depicts Military Training Routes (MTR) above 1,500 feet?
IFR Low Altitude En Route Chart.
59
The altitude that provides acceptable navigational signal coverage for the route, and meets obstacle clearance requirements is the minimum:
enroute altitude.
60
Which condition is guaranteed for all of the following altitude limits: MAA, MCA, MRA, MOCA, and MEA? (Non-mountainous area.)
1,000-foot obstacle clearance.