問題一覧
1
What is the first fundamental skill in attitude instrument flying?
Instrument cross-check.
2
What are the three fundamental skills involved in attitude instrument flying?
Cross-check, instrument interpretation, and aircraft control.
3
What is the third fundamental skill in attitude instrument flying?
Aircraft control.
4
What is the correct sequence in which to use the three skills used in instrument flying?
Cross-check, instrument interpretation, and aircraft control.
5
As power is reduced to change airspeed from high to low cruise in level flight, which instruments are primary for pitch, bank, and power, respectively?
Altimeter, heading indicator, and manifold pressure gauge or tachometer.
6
Which instrument provides the most pertinent information (primary) for bank control in straight-and-level flight?
Heading indicator.
7
Which instruments, in addition to the attitude indicator, are pitch instruments?
Altimeter, airspeed indicator, and vertical speed indicator.
8
For maintaining level flight at constant thrust, which instrument would be the least appropriate for determining the need for a pitch change?
Attitude indicator.
9
The gyroscopic heading indicator is inoperative. What is the primary bank instrument in unaccelerated straight-and-level flight?
Magnetic compass.
10
What is the primary pitch instrument during a stabilized climbing left turn at cruise climb airspeed?
Airspeed indicator.
11
While recovering from an unusual flight attitude without the aid of the attitude indicator, approximate level pitch attitude is reached when the
airspeed and altimeter stop their movement and the VSI reverses its trend.
12
Which is the correct sequence for recovery from a spiraling, nose-low, increasing airspeed, unusual flight attitude?
Reduce power, correct the bank attitude, and raise the nose to a level attitude.
13
During recoveries from unusual attitudes, level flight is attained the instant
the altimeter and airspeed needles stop prior to reversing their direction of movement.
14
If you fly into severe turbulence, which flight condition should you attempt to maintain?
Level flight attitude.
15
Which distance is displayed by the DME indicator?
Slant range distance in NM.
16
When a VOR/DME is collocated under frequency pairings and the VOR portion is inoperative, the DME identifier will repeat at an interval of
30 second intervals at 1350 Hz.
17
Full scale deflection of a CDI occurs when the course deviation bar or needle
deflects from the center of the scale to either far side of the scale.
18
During IFR operation using an approved GPS system for navigation,
the aircraft must have an approved and operational alternate navigation system appropriate for the route.
19
The pilot in command of a civil aircraft must have an instrument rating only when operating
under IFR, in weather conditions less than the minimum for VFR flight or in Class A airspace.
20
To meet the minimum required instrument flight experience to act as pilot in command of an aircraft under IFR, you must have logged within the preceding 6 calendar months in the same category of aircraft: six instrument approaches,
holding procedures, intercepting and tracking courses through the use of navigation systems.
21
A pilot's recent IFR experience expires on July 1 of this year. What is the latest date the pilot can meet the IFR experience requirement without having to take an instrument proficiency check?
December 31, this year.
22
Which limitation is imposed on the holder of a Commercial Pilot Certificate if that person does not hold an instrument rating?
The carrying of passengers for hire on cross-country flights is limited to 50 NM and the carrying of passengers for hire at night is prohibited.
23
What limitation is imposed on a newly certificated commercial airplane pilot if that person does not hold an instrument pilot rating?
The carrying of passengers for hire on cross-country flights is limited to 50 NM and the carrying of passengers for hire at night is prohibited.
24
In addition to a VOR receiver and two-way communications capability, which additional equipment is required for IFR operation in Class B airspace?
An operable coded transponder having Mode C capability.
25
What is the required flight visibility and distance from clouds if you are operating in Class E airspace at 9,500 feet MSL with a VFR-on-Top clearance during daylight hours?
3 SM, 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontal.
26
What is the minimum flight visibility and distance from clouds for flight at 10,500 feet with a VFR-on-Top clearance during daylight hours? (Class E airspace.)
5 SM, 1,000 feet above, 1,000 feet below, and 1 mile horizontal.
27
What are the minimum fuel requirements in IFR conditions, if the first airport of intended landing is forecast to have a 1,500-foot ceiling and 3 miles visibility at flight-planned ETA? Fuel to fly to the first airport of intended landing,
fly to the alternate, and fly thereafter for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed.
28
During your preflight planning for an IFR flight, you determine that the first airport of intended landing has no instrument approach prescribed in 14 CFR part 97. The weather forecast for one hour before through one hour after your estimated time of arrival is 3,000 ft. scattered with 5 miles visibility. To meet the fuel requirements for this flight, you must be able to fly to the first airport of intended landing,
then to the alternate airport, and then for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed.
29
For aircraft other than helicopters, is an alternate airport required for an IFR flight to ATL (Atlanta Hartsfield) if the proposed ETA is 1930Z? TAF KATL 121720Z 121818 20012KT 5SM HZ BKN030 FM2000 3SM TSRA OVC025CB FM2200 33015G20KT P6SM BKN015 OVC040 BECMG 0608 02008KT BKN040 BECMG 1012 00000KT P6SM CLR=
No, because the ceiling and visibility are forecast to be at or above 2,000 feet and 3 miles within 1 hour before to 1 hour after the ETA.
30
What minimum weather conditions must be forecast for your ETA at an alternate airport, that has only a VOR approach with standard alternate minimums, for the airport to be listed as an alternate on the IFR flight plan?
800-foot ceiling and 2 statute miles visibility.
31
For aircraft other than helicopters, what minimum conditions must exist at the destination airport to avoid listing an alternate airport on an IFR flight plan when a standard IAP is available?
From 1 hour before to 1 hour after ETA, forecast ceiling 2,000, and visibility 3 miles.
32
What are the minimum weather conditions that must be forecast to list an airport as an alternate when the airport has no approved IAP?
The ceiling and visibility at ETA must allow descent from MEA, approach, and landing, under basic VFR.
33
For aircraft other than helicopters, what minimum weather conditions must be forecast for your ETA at an alternate airport that has a precision approach procedure, with standard alternate minimums, in order to list it as an alternate for the IFR flight?
600-foot ceiling and 2 SM visibility at your ETA.
34
What are the alternate minimums that must be forecast at the ETA for an airport that has a precision approach procedure?
600-foot ceiling and 2 miles visibility.
35
An airport without an authorized IAP may be included on an IFR flight plan as an alternate, if the current weather forecast indicates that the ceiling and visibility at the ETA will
allow for a descent from the MEA, approach, and a landing under basic VFR conditions.
36
When an alternate airport is required, what are the weather minimums that must be forecast at the ETA for an alternate airport that has a precision approach procedure?
600 foot ceiling and 2 statute miles visibility.
37
To operate under IFR below 18,000 feet, a pilot must file an IFR flight plan and receive an appropriate ATC clearance prior to
entering controlled airspace.
38
In the 48 contiguous states, excluding the airspace at or below 2,500 feet AGL, an operable coded transponder equipped with Mode C capability is required in all controlled airspace at and above
10,000 feet MSL.
39
A coded transponder equipped with altitude reporting capability is required in all controlled airspace
at and above 10,000 feet MSL, excluding at and below 2,500 feet AGL.
40
Which type of runway lighting consists of a pair of synchronized flashing lights, one on each side of the runway threshold?
REIL.
41
Which runway marking indicates a displaced threshold on an instrument runway?
Arrows leading to the threshold mark.
42
The "runway hold position" sign denotes
an entrance to runway from a taxiway
43
"Runway hold position" markings on the taxiway
identifies where aircraft hold short of the runway.
44
The "No Entry" sign identifies
paved area where aircraft entry is prohibited.
45
Which approach and landing objective is assured when the pilot remains on the proper glidepath of the VASI?
Safe obstruction clearance in the approach area.
46
If an approach is being made to a runway that has an operating 3-bar VASI and all the VASI lights appear red as the airplane reaches the MDA, the pilot should
level off momentarily to intercept the proper approach path.
47
The middle and far bars of a 3-bar VASI will
constitute a 2-bar VASI for using the upper glidepath.
48
Tricolor Visual Approach Indicators normally consist of
a single unit, projecting a three-color visual approach path.
49
Which is a feature of the tricolor VASI?
One light projector with three colors: red, green, and amber.
50
What wind condition prolongs the hazards of wake turbulence on a landing runway for the longest period of time?
Light quartering tailwind.
51
What effect would a light crosswind of approximately 7 knots have on vortex behavior?
The upwind vortex would tend to remain over the runway.
52
Which procedure is recommended while climbing to an assigned altitude on the airway?
Climb on the centerline of the airway except when maneuvering to avoid other air traffic in VFR conditions.
53
What is expected of you as pilot on an IFR flight plan if you are descending or climbing in VFR conditions?
Execute gentle banks, left and right, at a frequency which permits continuous visual scanning of the airspace about you.
54
When is a pilot on an IFR flight plan responsible for avoiding other aircraft?
When weather conditions permit, regardless of whether operating under IFR or VFR.
55
What responsibility does the pilot in command of an IFR flight assume upon entering VFR conditions?
To see and avoid other traffic.
56
The most current en route and destination flight information for planning an instrument flight should be obtained from
the FSS.
57
From what source can you obtain the latest FDC NOTAM's?
FAA AFSS/FSS.
58
When are ATIS broadcasts updated?
Upon receipt of any official weather, regardless of content change or reported values.
59
Absence of the sky condition and visibility on an ATIS broadcast specifically implies that
the ceiling is more than 5,000 feet and visibility is 5 miles or more.
60
The operation of an airport rotating beacon during daylight hours may indicate that
the ground visibility is less than 3 miles and/or the ceiling is less than 1,000 feet in Class B, C, or D airspace.