EXAM BASED

28問 • 4ヶ月前

問題一覧

1. During a barium swallow, which projection best demonstrates the cervical esophagus without spine superimposition? a RAO b AP supine c Left lateral 2. Which structure is best visualized in the RAO position during UGl series? A. Fundus B. Lesser curvature C. Pylorus and duodenal bulb D. Retrogastric space

1c 2c

3. Which contraindication prevents the use of barium sulfate in a patient with acute abdominal pain? A. Gastritis B. Suspected perforation C. Peptic ulcer D. Hiatal hernia 4. What is the typical first radiograph timing in a small bowel follow-through? A. Immediately B. 10 minutes C. 30 minutes D. 1 hour

3b 4c

5. Which duct is cannulated in sialography for the submandibular gland? A. Bartholin's B. Stensen's C Wharton's D. Rivinus 6. Which exam demonstrates the ileocecal valve and terminal ileum as its endpoint? A. UGIS B. Small bowel series C. Enteroclysis D. Barium enema

5c 6b

7. Which hepatobiliary exam involves direct puncture of the liver for contrast injection? A. ERCP B. T-tube cholangiography C. MRCP D. PTC 8. Which radiographic sign indicates an annular constricting carcinoma of the large intestine? A. Bird-beak sign B. Apple-core lesion C. Cobblestone mucosa D. Mushroom defect

7d 8b

9. Which imaging modality best demonstrates gallstones without radiation exposure? A. CT B. Ultrasound C. ERCP D. MRCP 10, Which appearance is typical of diverticulosis on a barium enema? A. Outpouchings of mucosa B. String sign C. Halo sign D. Beak sign

9b 10a

Which contrast agent is safest for a patient with high risk of aspiration? A. Barium sulfate B. lonic iodinated contrast C. Water-soluble non-ionic iodinated contrast D. Gadolinium 12. Which duct drains the parotid gland? A. Wharton's B. Bartholin's C. Rivinus D. Stensen's

11c 12d

Which hepatobiliary exam is both diagnostic and therapeutic, often allowing stone removal? A. MRCP B. ERCP C. T-tube cholangiography D. Oral cholecystography 14. Which contrast property is determined by its atomic number? A. Solubility B. Osmolality C. Attenuation D. Viscosity

13b 14c

15. Which appearance is seen in ulcerative colitis barium enema? A. String sign B. Cobblestone mucosa, loss of haustra C. Beaded ducts D. Napkin-ring narrowing 16. Which UGl position best shows the fundus filled with barium? A. RAO B. LPO C. Right lateral D. PA prone

15b 16b

17. What is the "string sign" associated with? A. Crohn's disease B. Diverticulitis C. Ulcerative colitis D. Achalasia 18. Which hepatobiliary contrast exam is contraindicated in patients with bleeding disorders due to puncture risk? A. MRCP B. ERCP C. PTC D. Oral cholecystography

17a 18c

19. Which condition is demonstrated as a "beak sign" on contrast enema? A. Intussusception B. Volvulus C. Carcinoma D. Ulcer 20. Which salivary gland is least examined in sialography due to multiple small ducts? A. Parotid B. Submandibular C. Sublingual D. Buccal

19b 20c

21. During a double-contrast UGl, which position most reliably demonstrates the gastric antrum and pylorus coated with barium while the fundus remains air-filled? A. RAO B. LPO C. AP supine D. PA prone 22. In a routine small-bowel follow-through, which region must be spot-imaged under fluoroscopy to confirm completion? A. Duodenal bulb B. Ligament of Treitz C. Terminal ileum and ileocecal valve D. Mid-jejunum

21a 22c

23. A patient with suspected toxic megacolon needs large bowel imaging. The safest immediate approach is: A. Double-contrast barium enema B. Single-contrast barium enema C. Water-soluble contrast enema under gentle technique D. No contrast study; proceed to routine CT without contrast 24. Which maneuver increases intrathoracic pressure and helps provoke reflux/varices visibility during esophagography? A. Mueller maneuver (forced inspiration) B. Valsalva maneuver (forced expiration against closed glottis) C. Deep expiration in prone D. Quiet breathing erect

23c 24b

25. To evacuate contrast from the ductal system after parotid sialography, what is commonly given immediately post-imaging? A. Warm water only B. Anticholinergic tablet C. Lemon slice or other sialogogue D. Npo for 4 hours 26. Primary access for ERCP pacification of the biliary tree is obtained by: A. Cannulation of Stensen's duct B. Cannulation of Wharton's duct C. Cannulation of the major duodenal papilla (ampulla) D. Direct puncture of the CBD

25c 26c

27. Compared with ERCP, MRCP is best described A. Noninvasive, no intraluminal contrast injection required B. Invasive, requires iodinated contrast C. Therapeutic and diagnostic via endoscopy D. Superseded by oral cholecystography 28 Which complication risk is intrinsic to PTC and higher than with MRCP? A. Nephrogenic systemic fibrosis B. Hepatic hemorrhage/bile leak C. Anaphylaxis to gadolinium D. Esophageal perforation

27a 28b

29. A necessary precondition for diagnostic oral cholecystography is: A. Nonfunctioning gallbladder B. Patent cystic duct and functioning gallbladder C. IV access D. Prior T-tube placement 30. Which negative contrast is preferred for double-contrast Gl work due to rapid absorption and patient comfort? A. Room air B. Oxygen C. Nitrous oxide D. Carbon dioxide

29b 30d

31. Which finding most strongly argues against elective iodinated IV contrast? A. eGFR 95 mL/min/1.73m2 B. eGFR 58 mL/min/1.73m2 C. eGFR 28 mL/min/1,73m? D. eGFR 48 mL/min/1.73m? 32. Immediately after IV contrast injection, which tot symptoms must be actively observed? A. Facial flushing, itching, dyspnea, anxiety B. Tinnitus and diplopia C. Polyuria and mydriasis D. Pedal edema and cough only

31c 32a

33. Which documentation is mandatory after administering contrast? A. Patient's favorite food B. Lot number, dose/volume, time, reaction, staff signature C. Student intern initials only D. Verbal note in hallway 34. Which statement is correct regarding "shellfish allergy = iodine allergy"? A. Always true-cancel all iodinated contrast B. Always false-never matters C. Not the same thing; shellfish allergy does not equal iodine allergy but may suggest higher risk-screen carefully D. Only relevant for barium

33b 34c

35. Which pairing correctly matches positive and negative contrast for Gl? A. Barium sulfate (positive) and air/CO2 (negative) B. Air (positive) and barium (negative) C. lodine (negative) and barium (positive) D. CO2 (positive) and iodine (negative) 36. Which route is correctly matched to its typical exam? A. Intrathecal → Myelography B. Intra-arterial → Barium enema C. Intra-articular → UGI

35a 36a

37. Which contrast pairing is appropriate for fluoro/CT arthrography vs MR arthrography? A, Gadolinium for fluoro; iodine for MRI B. lodinated contrast for fluoro/CT; gadolinium for MRI C. Barium for both D. Air for both 38. Which statement regarding modern myelography is correct? A. Oil-based contrast is standard B. Water-soluble non-ionic iodinated contrast Is used; post-procedure hydration and precautions reduce headache C. Barium is used intrathecally in low dose D. Contrast is injected into the epidural space

37b 38b

39. With suspected colonic perforation, the best contrast selection for enema is: A. High-density barium B. Room air only C. Water-soluble iodinated contrast D. Gadolinium 40. In a patient with possible gastric perforation, the oral contrast of choice is: A. Thick barium B. Thin barium C. Water-soluble iodinated contrast D. No contrast permitted in any case

39c 40c

41. Which position most cleanly projects the esophagus between the heart shadow and spine to avoid superimposition? A. AP B. PA C. RAO 35-40° D. LPO 35-40° 42. To better demonstrate air-contrast separation along the nondependent wall during a double-contrast BE, which view is often added? A. AP supine only B. Lateral decubitus (right or left) C. Prone oblique esophagus D. Upright PA chest

41b 42b

43. Compared with routine SBFT, enteroclysis provides superior detection of: A. Gallstones B. Subtle small-bowel mucosal lesions and strictures C. Esophageal varices D. Renal calculi 44. Correct duct-gland pairing is: A. Stensen's → Submandibular B. Wharton's → Parotid C. Stensen's → Parotid D. Rivinus → Parotid

43b 44c

45. Which procedure can both diagnose and remove CBD stones in one setting? A. MRCP B. ERCP C. PTC only D. Oral cholecystography 46, In a frail patient with high aspiration risk needing a swallow study, choose: A. Thick barium only B. Water-soluble non-ionic iodinated contrast (thin) C. CO2 only D. No contrast allowed

45b 46b

47. Which statement about positive vs negative contrast is accurate? A. Positive agents are radiolucent B. Negative agents have low attenuation and appear dark C. Negative agents are iodine-based D. Positive agents decrease attenuation 48. Which two questions best screen for contrast risk prior to iodinated IV use? A. Any metal implants?" and "Do you smoke?" B. Prior contrast reaction?" and "Recent creatinine/eGFR?" C. "Color blindness?" and "Night sweats?" D. "Seafood preference?" and "Daily caffeine?"

47b 48b

49. Match exam to route: Lower Gl enema most commonly uses: A. Oral route B. Intravenous route C. Rectal route D. Intrathecal route 50. The primary purpose of positive oral contrast in UGl is to: A. Reduce radiation dose B. Outline the hollow lumen and mucosa for diagnostic visibility C. Sedate the patient D. Replace endoscopy

49c 50b

best position for retro gastric space

Lateral

duct used for ercp

Vater

what gets stimulated for contraction of gallbladder

cck

physiology of circulation academic weaponizer

E · 24問 · 2年前

physiology of circulation academic weaponizer

24問 • 2年前

reproductive academic weaponizer