Airports, ATC and Airspace

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What is the distance (A) from the beginning of the runway to the fixed distance marker?

1,000 feet

What is the distance (B) from the beginning of the runway to the touchdown zone marker?

500 feet

What is the distance (C) from the beginning of the touchdown zone marker to the beginning of the fixed distance marker?

500 feet

The primary purpose of runway end identifier lights, installed at many airfields, is to provide

rapid identification of the approach end of the runway during reduced visibility

Which type of runway lighting consists of a pair of synchronized flashing lights, one on each side of the runway threshold?

REIL

Which runway marking indicates a displaced threshold on an instrument runway?

Arrows leading to the threshold mark

Under which conditions is hydroplaning most likely to occur?

During conditions of standing water, slush, high speed, and smooth runway texture

Mandatory airport instruction signs are designated by having

white lettering with a red background

What colors are runway holding position signs?

White with a red background

Hold line markings at the intersection of taxiways and runways consist of four lines that extend across the width of the taxiway. These lines are

yellow, and the dashed lines are nearest the runway

The "runway hold position" sign denotes

an entrance to runway from a taxiway

"Runway hold position" markings on the taxiway

identifies where aircraft hold short of the runway

The "No Entry" sign identifies

paved area where aircraft entry is prohibited

When turning onto a taxiway from another taxiway, the "taxiway directional sign" indicates

designation and direction of taxiway leading out of an intersection

Which approach and landing objective is assured when the pilot remains on the proper glidepath of the VASI?

Safe obstruction clearance in the approach area

Unless a higher angle is necessary for obstacle clearance, what is the normal glidepath angle for a 2-bar VASI?

3.00°

Which of the following indications would a pilot see while approaching to land on a runway served by a 2-bar VASI?

If departing to the high side of the glidepath, the far bars will change from red to white

When on the proper glidepath of a 2-bar VASI, the pilot will see the near bar as

white and the far bar as red

If an approach is being made to a runway that has an operating 3-bar VASI and all the VASI lights appear red as the airplane reaches the MDA, the pilot should

level off momentarily to intercept the proper approach path

The middle and far bars of a 3-bar VASI will

constitute a 2-bar VASI for using the upper glidepath

Tricolor Visual Approach Indicators normally consist of

a single unit, projecting a three-color visual approach path

Which is a feature of the tricolor VASI?

One light projector with three colors: red, green, and amber

Unless a higher angle is required for obstacle clearance, what is the normal glidepath for a 3-bar VASI?

3.0°

Which illustration would a pilot observe when on the lower glidepath?

Which illustration would a pilot observe if the aircraft is above both glidepaths?

Which illustration would a pilot observe if the aircraft is below both glidepaths?

Which illustration depicts an "on glidepath" indication?

Which illustration depicts a "slightly low" (2.8°) indication?

Which illustration would a pilot observe if the aircraft is on a glidepath higher than 3.5°?

Which illustration would a pilot observe if the aircraft is "slightly high" (3.2°) on the glidepath?

Which illustration would a pilot observe if the aircraft is less than 2.5°?

What wind condition prolongs the hazards of wake turbulence on a landing runway for the longest period of time?

Light quartering tailwind

Wake turbulence is near maximum behind a jet transport just after takeoff because

of the high angle of attack and high gross weight

What effect would a light crosswind of approximately 7 knots have on vortex behavior?

The upwind vortex would tend to remain over the runway

When landing behind a large jet aircraft, at which point on the runway should you plan to land?

Beyond the jet's touchdown point

Which procedure is recommended while climbing to an assigned altitude on the airway?

Climb on the centerline of the airway except when maneuvering to avoid other air traffic in VFR conditions

What is expected of you as pilot on an IFR flight plan if you are descending or climbing in VFR conditions?

Execute gentle banks, left and right, at a frequency which permits continuous visual scanning of the airspace about you

When is a pilot on an IFR flight plan responsible for avoiding other aircraft?

When weather conditions permit, regardless of whether operating under IFR or VFR

What responsibility does the pilot in command of an IFR flight assume upon entering VFR conditions?

To see and avoid other traffic

The most current en route and destination flight information for planning an instrument flight should be obtained from

the FSS

What is the purpose of FDC NOTAMs?

To advise of changes in flight data which affect instrument approach procedures (IAP), aeronautical charts, and flight restrictions prior to normal publication

From what source can you obtain the latest FDC NOTAM's?

FAA AFSS/FSS

Which sources of aeronautical information, when used collectively, provide the latest status of airport conditions (e.g., runway closures, runway lighting, snow conditions)?

Airport Facility Directory, Distant (D) NOTAM's, and Local (L) NOTAM's

When are ATIS broadcasts updated?

Upon receipt of any official weather, regardless of content change or reported values

Absence of the sky condition and visibility on an ATIS broadcast specifically implies that

the ceiling is more than 5,000 feet and visibility is 5 miles or more

The operation of an airport rotating beacon during daylight hours may indicate that

the ground visibility is less than 3 miles and/or the ceiling is less than 1,000 feet in Class B, C, or D airspace

What point at the destination should be used to compute estimated time en route on an IFR flight plan?

The point of first intended landing

When may a pilot file a composite flight plan?

Any time a portion of the flight will be VFR

When filing a composite flight plan where the first portion of the flight is IFR, which fix(es) should be indicated on the flight plan form?

All points of transition from one airway to another, fixes defining direct route segments, and the clearance limit fix

What is the recommended procedure for transitioning from VFR to IFR on a composite flight plan?

Prior to transitioning to IFR, contact the nearest FSS, close the VFR portion, and request ATC clearance

When may a pilot cancel the IFR flight plan prior to completing the flight?

Only in VFR conditions when not in Class A airspace

How is your flight plan closed when your destination airport has IFR conditions and there is no control tower or flight service station (FSS) on the field?

Upon landing, you must close your flight plan by radio or by telephone to any FSS or ATC facility

What is a way point when used for an IFR flight?

A predetermined geographical position used for an RNAV route or an RNAV instrument approach

What response is expected when ATC issues an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft?

Read back those parts containing altitude assignments or vectors and any part requiring verification

Which clearance items are always given in an abbreviated IFR departure clearance? (Assume radar environment)

Destination airport, altitude, DP Name, Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate

Which information is always given in an abbreviated departure clearance?

Name of destination airport or specific fix and altitude

An abbreviated departure clearance "...CLEARED AS FILED..." will always contain the name

of the destination airport filed in the flight plan

On the runup pad, you receive the following clearance from ground control: CLEARED TO THE DALLAS-LOVE AIRPORT AS FILED - MAINTAIN SIX THOUSAND - SQUAWK ZERO SEVEN ZERO FOUR JUST BEFORE DEPARTURE - DEPARTURE CONTROL WILL BE ONE TWO FOUR POINT NINER. An abbreviated clearance, such as this, will always contain the

destination airport and route

When departing from an airport not served by a control tower, the issuance of a clearance containing a void time indicates that

The pilot must advise ATC as soon as possible, but no later than 30 minutes, of their intentions if not off by the void time

What is the significance of an ATC clearance which reads "...CRUISE SIX THOUSAND..."?

It authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and including 6,000

What is the significance of an ATC clearance which reads "...CRUISE SIX THOUSAND..."?

Climbs may be made to, or descents made from, 6,000 feet at the pilot's discretion

A "CRUISE FOUR THOUSAND FEET" clearance would mean that the pilot is authorized to

vacate 4,000 feet without notifying ATC

When should pilots state their position on the airport when calling the tower for takeoff?

When departing from a runway intersection

During a takeoff into IFR conditions with low ceilings, when should the pilot contact departure control?

When advised by the tower

What is the recommended climb procedure when a nonradar departure control instructs a pilot to climb to the assigned altitude?

Maintain an optimum climb on the centerline of the airway without intermediate level-offs until 1,000 feet below assigned altitude, then 500 to 1,500 feet per minute

To comply with ATC instructions for altitude changes of more than 1,000 feet, what rate of climb or descent should be used?

As rapidly as practicable to 1,000 feet above/below the assigned altitude, and then between 500 and 1,500 feet per minute until reaching the assigned altitude

When ATC has not imposed any climb or descent restrictions and aircraft are within 1,000 feet of assigned altitude, pilots should attempt to both climb and descend at a rate of between

500 feet per minute and 1,500 feet per minute

Which report should be made to ATC without a specific request when not in radar contact?

When leaving final approach fix in bound on final approach

For IFR planning purposes, what are the compulsory reporting points when using VOR/DME or VORTAC fixes to define a direct route not on established airways?

Fixes selected to define the route

When should your transponder be on Mode C while on an IFR flight?

At all times if the equipment has been calibrated, unless requested otherwise by ATC

During a flight, the controller advises "traffic 2 o'clock 5 miles southbound." The pilot is holding 20° correction for a crosswind from the right. Where should the pilot look for the traffic?

40° to the right of the aircraft's nose

During the en route phase of an IFR flight, the pilot is advised "Radar service terminated." What action is appropriate?

Resume normal position reporting

What does the ATC term "Radar Contact" signify?

Your aircraft has been identified on the radar display and radar flight-following will be provided until radar identification is terminated

What is meant when departure control instructs you to "resume own navigation" after you have been vectored to a Victor airway?

You should maintain the airway by use of your navigation equipment

Upon intercepting the assigned radial, the controller advises you that you are on the airway and to "RESUME OWN NAVIGATION." This phrase means that

You are to assume responsibility for your own navigation

What service is provided by departure control to an IFR flight when operating from an airport within the outer area of Class C airspace?

Separation from all IFR aircraft and participating VFR aircraft

If during a VFR practice instrument approach, Radar Approach Control assigns an altitude or heading that will cause you to enter the clouds, what action should be taken?

Avoid the clouds and inform ATC that altitude/heading will not permit VFR

You are being vectored to the ILS approach course, but have not been cleared for the approach. It becomes evident that you will pass through the localizer course. What action should be taken?

Continue on the assigned heading and query ATC

What is the pilot in command's responsibility when flying a propeller aircraft within 20 miles of the airport of intended landing and ATC requests the pilot to reduce speed to 160? (Pilot complies with speed adjustment)

Reduce IAS to 160 knots and maintain that speed within 10 knots

For which speed variation should you notify ATC?

When the average true airspeed changes 5 percent or 10 knots, whichever is greater

When are you required to establish communications with the tower (Class D airspace), if you cancel your IFR flight plan 10 miles from the destination?

Before entering Class D airspace

If a control tower and an FSS are located on the same airport, which function is provided by the FSS during those periods when the tower is closed?

Airport Advisory Service

Which service is provided for IFR arrivals by a FSS located on an airport without a control tower?

Airport advisories

What does declaring "minimum fuel" to ATC imply?

Merely an advisory that indicates an emergency situation is possible should any undue delay occur

You enter a holding pattern (at a fix that is not the same as the approach fix) with an EFC time of 1530. At 1520 you experience complete two-way communications failure. Which procedure should you follow to execute the approach to a landing?

Depart the holding fix at the EFC time, and complete the approach

Which procedure should you follow if you experience two-way communications failure while holding at a holding fix with an EFC time? (The holding fix is not the same as the approach fix)

Depart the holding fix at the EFC time

You are in IMC and have two-way radio communications failure. If you do not exercise emergency authority, what procedure are you expected to follow?

Set transponder to code 7600, continue flight on assigned route and fly at the last assigned altitude or the MEA, whichever is higher

What altitude and route should be used if you are flying in IMC and have two-way radio communications failure?

Continue on the route specified in your clearance, fly at an altitude that is the highest of last assigned altitude, altitude ATC has informed you to expect, or the MEA

Which procedure should you follow if, during an IFR flight in VFR conditions, you have two-way radio communications failure?

Continue the flight under VFR and land as soon as practicable

While flying on an IFR flight plan, you experience two-way communications radio failure while in VFR conditions. In this situation, you should continue your flight under

VFR and land as soon as practicable

What action should you take if your DME fails at FL 240?

Notify ATC of the failure and continue to the next airport of intended landing where repairs can be made

What is the procedure when the DME malfunctions at or above 24,000 feet MSL?

After immediately notifying ATC, you may continue to the next airport of intended landing where repairs can be made

What action should you take if your No. 1 VOR receiver malfunctions while operating in controlled airspace under IFR? Your aircraft is equipped with two VOR receivers. The No. 1 receiver has Omni/Localizer/Glide Slope capability, and the No. 2 receiver has only VOR/Localizer capability

Report the malfunction immediately to ATC

Which types of airspace are depicted on the En Route Low Altitude Chart?

Class D, Class C, Class B, Class E, and special use airspace

Class G airspace is that airspace where

ATC does not control air traffic

Which airspace is defined as a transition area when designated in conjunction with an airport which has a prescribed IAP?

The Class E airspace extending upward from 700 feet or more above the surface and terminating at the base of the overlying controlled airspace

What are the vertical limits of a transition area that is designated in conjunction with an airport having a prescribed IAP?

700 feet AGL or more to the base of the overlying controlled airspace

The vertical extent of the Class A airspace throughout the conterminous U.S. extends from

18,000 feet to and including FL 600

MOAs are established to

separate certain military activities from IFR traffic

100

What is the floor of Class E airspace when designated in conjunction with an airway?

1,200 feet AGL

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