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Holding and Instrument Approaches
100問 • 2年前
  • Angelo Ortiz
  • 通報

    問題一覧

  • 1

    What conditions are necessary before ATC can authorize a visual approach?

    You must have the airport in sight or a preceding aircraft to be followed, and be able to proceed to the airport in VFR conditions

  • 2

    What are the main differences between a visual approach and a contact approach?

    The pilot must request a contact approach; the pilot may be assigned a visual approach and higher weather minimums must exist

  • 3

    A contact approach is an approach procedure that may be used

    in lieu of conducting a SIAP

  • 4

    You arrive at your destination airport on an IFR flight plan. Which is a prerequisite condition for the performance of a contact approach?

    Clear of clouds and at least 1 SM flight visibility

  • 5

    What are the requirements for a contact approach to an airport that has an approved IAP, if the pilot is on an instrument flight plan and clear of clouds?

    The pilot must request the approach, have at least 1-mile visibility, and be reasonably sure of remaining clear of clouds

  • 6

    When is radar service terminated during a visual approach?

    Automatically when ATC instructs the pilot to contact the tower

  • 7

    When may you obtain a contact approach?

    ATC will assign a contact approach only upon request if the reported visibility is at least 1 mile

  • 8

    What are the main differences between the SDF and the localizer of an ILS?

    The SDF course may not be aligned with the runway and the course may be wider

  • 9

    What is the difference between a Localizer-Type Directional Aid (LDA) and the ILS localizer?

    The LDA is not aligned with the runway

  • 10

    How wide is an SDF course?

    Either 6° or 12°

  • 11

    What is a difference between an SDF and an LDA facility?

    The SDF course width is either 6° or 12° while the LDA course width is approximately 5°

  • 12

    What does the Runway Visual Range (RVR) value, depicted on certain straight-in IAP Charts, represent?

    The horizontal distance a pilot should see when looking down the runway from a moving aircraftThe horizontal distance a pilot should see when looking down the runway from a moving aircraft

  • 13

    The RVR minimums for takeoff or landing are published in an IAP, but RVR is inoperative and cannot be reported for the runway at the time. Which of the following would apply?

    RVR minimums which are specified in the procedure should be converted and applied as ground visibility

  • 14

    RVR minimums for landing are prescribed in an IAP, but RVR is inoperative and cannot be reported for the intended runway at the time. Which of the following would be an operational consideration?

    RVR minimums which are specified in the procedures should be converted and applied as ground visibility

  • 15

    If the RVR equipment is inoperative for an IAP that requires a visibility of 2400 RVR, how should the pilot expect the visibility requirement to be reported in lieu of the published RVR?

    As a ground visibility of ½ SM

  • 16

    If the RVR is not reported, what meteorological value should you substitute for 2400 RVR?

    A ground visibility of ½ SM

  • 17

    If an early missed approach is initiated before reaching the MAP, the following procedure should be used unless otherwise cleared by ATC

    Proceed to the missed approach point at or above the MDA or DH before executing a turning maneuver

  • 18

    If the pilot loses visual reference while circling to land from an instrument approach and ATC radar service is not available, the missed approach action should be to

    make a climbing turn toward the landing runway and continue the turn until established on the missed approach course

  • 19

    If all ILS components are operating and the required visual references are not established, the missed approach should be initiated upon

    arrival at the DH on the glide slope

  • 20

    If during an ILS approach in IFR conditions, the approach lights are not visible upon arrival at the DH, the pilot is

    required to immediately execute the missed approach procedure

  • 21

    How does a pilot determine if DME is available on an ILS/LOC?

    IAP indicate DME\TACAN channel in LOC frequency box

  • 22

    Approximately what height is the glide slope centerline at the MM of a typical ILS?

    200 feet

  • 23

    Which range facility associated with the ILS is identified by the last two letters of the localizer identification group?

    Middle compass locator

  • 24

    Which indications will a pilot receive where an IM is installed on a front course ILS approach?

    Six dots per second and a flashing white light

  • 25

    Which range facility associated with the ILS can be identified by a two-letter coded signal?

    Compass locator

  • 26

    Which of the following statements is true regarding Parallel ILS approaches?

    Parallel ILS approaches provide aircraft a minimum of 1½ miles radar separation between successive aircraft on the adjacent localizer course

  • 27

    Which pilot action is appropriate if more than one component of an ILS is unusable?

    Use the highest minimum required by any single component that is unusable

  • 28

    Which substitution is permitted when an ILS component is inoperative?

    A compass locator or precision radar may be substituted for the ILS outer or middle marker

  • 29

    What facilities, if any, may be substituted for an inoperative middle marker during an ILS approach without affecting the straight-in minimums?

    Substitution not necessary, minimums do not change

  • 30

    Which of these facilities may be substituted for an MM during a complete ILS IAP?

    Compass locator and precision radar

  • 31

    When installed with the ILS and specified in the approach procedures, DME may be used

    in lieu of the OM

  • 32

    Which substitution is appropriate during an ILS approach?

    LOC minimums should be substituted for ILS minimums whenever the glide slope becomes inoperative

  • 33

    Immediately after passing the final approach fix in bound during an ILS approach in IFR conditions, the glide slope warning flag appears. The pilot is

    permitted to continue the approach and descend to the localizer MDA

  • 34

    A pilot is making an ILS approach and is past the OM to a runway which has a VASI. What action should the pilot take if an electronic glide slope malfunction occurs and the pilot has the VASI in sight?

    The pilot may continue the approach and use the VASI glide slope in place of the electronic glide slope

  • 35

    The rate of descent on the glide slope is dependent upon

    ground speed

  • 36

    The rate of descent required to stay on the ILS glide slope

    must be decreased if the ground speed is decreased

  • 37

    To remain on the ILS glidepath, the rate of descent must be

    increased if the ground speed is increased

  • 38

    When passing through an abrupt wind shear which involves a shift from a tailwind to a headwind, what power management would normally be required to maintain a constant indicated airspeed and ILS glide slope?

    Lower than normal power initially, followed by a further decrease as the wind shear is encountered, then an increase

  • 39

    What effect will a change in wind direction have upon maintaining a 3° glide slope at a constant true airspeed?

    When ground speed increases, rate of descent must increase

  • 40

    The glide slope and localizer are centered, but the airspeed is too fast. Which should be adjusted initially?

    Power only

  • 41

    While being vectored, if crossing the ILS final approach course becomes imminent and an approach clearance has not been issued, what action should be taken by the pilot?

    Maintain the last assigned heading and query ATC

  • 42

    Thrust is managed to maintain IAS, and glide slope is being flown. What characteristics should be observed when a headwind shears to be a constant tailwind?

    PITCH ATTITUDE: Decreases; REQUIRED THRUST: Increased, then reduced; VERTICAL SPEED: Increases; IAS: Decreases, then increases to approach speed

  • 43

    While flying a 3° glide slope, a constant tailwind shears to a calm wind. Which conditions should the pilot expect?

    Airspeed and pitch attitude increase and there is a tendency to go above glide slope

  • 44

    While flying a 3° glide slope, a headwind shears to a tailwind. Which conditions should the pilot expect on the glide slope?

    Airspeed and pitch attitude decrease and there is a tendency to go below glide slope

  • 45

    During a precision radar or ILS approach, the rate of descent required to remain on the glide slope will

    increase as the groundspeed increases

  • 46

    When tracking in bound on the localizer, which of the following is the proper procedure regarding drift corrections?

    Drift corrections should be accurately established before reaching the outer marker and completion of the approach should be accomplished with heading corrections no greater than 2°

  • 47

    Which information, in addition to headings, does the radar controller provide without request during an ASR approach?

    When to commence descent to MDA, the aircraft's position each mile on final from the runway, and arrival at the MAP

  • 48

    Where may you use a surveillance approach?

    At airports for which civil radar instrument approach minimums have been published

  • 49

    How is ATC radar used for instrument approaches when the facility is approved for approach control service?

    Course guidance to the final approach course, ASR and PAR approaches, and the monitoring of nonradar approaches

  • 50

    During a "no-gyro" approach and prior to being handed off to the final approach controller, the pilot should make all turns

    standard rate unless otherwise advised

  • 51

    After being handed off to the final approach controller during a "no-gyro" surveillance or precision approach, the pilot should make all turns

    one-half standard rate

  • 52

    When cleared to execute a published sidestep maneuver for a specific approach and landing on the parallel runway, at what point is the pilot expected to commence this maneuver?

    As soon as possible after the runway or runway environment is in sight

  • 53

    Assume this clearance is received: "CLEARED FOR ILS RUNWAY 07 LEFT APPROACH, SIDE-STEP TO RUNWAY 07 RIGHT." When would the pilot be expected to commence the side-step maneuver?

    As soon as possible after the runway environment is in sight

  • 54

    Which of the following conditions is required before "timed approaches from a holding fix" may be conducted?

    If more than one missed approach procedure is available, none may require a course reversal

  • 55

    If only one missed approach procedure is available, which of the following conditions is required when conducting "timed approaches from a holding fix"?

    The reported ceiling and visibility minimums must be equal to or greater than the highest prescribed circling minimums for the IAP

  • 56

    Prior to conducting "timed approaches from a holding fix," which one of the following is required?

    The airport where the approach is to be conducted must have a control tower in operation

  • 57

    When making a "timed approach" from a holding fix at the outer marker, the pilot should adjust the

    holding pattern to leave the final approach fix inbound at the assigned time

  • 58

    At what point should the timing begin for the first leg outbound in a nonstandard holding pattern?

    When over or abeam the holding fix, whichever occurs later

  • 59

    You receive this ATC clearance: "...HOLD WEST OF THE ONE FIVE DME FIX ON THE ZERO NINE ZERO RADIAL OF ABC VORTAC, FIVE MILE LEGS, LEFT TURNS..." You arrive at the 15 DME fix on a heading of 350°. Which holding pattern correctly complies with these instructions, and what is the recommended entry procedure?

    1; direct

  • 60

    You arrive at the 15 DME fix on a heading of 350°. Which holding pattern correctly complies with the ATC clearance below, and what is the recommended entry procedure? "...HOLD WEST OF THE ONE FIVE DME FIX ON THE ZERO NINE ZERO RADIAL OF THE ABC VORTAC, FIVE MILE LEGS, LEFT TURNS..."

    1; direct entry

  • 61

    To ensure proper airspace protection while in a holding pattern, what is the maximum airspeed above 14,000 feet for civil turbojet aircraft?

    265 knots

  • 62

    To ensure proper airspace protection while in a holding pattern above 14,000 feet in a propeller-driven airplane, what is the maximum indicated airspeed a pilot should use?

    265 knots

  • 63

    A pilot receives this ATC clearance: "...CLEARED TO THE ABC VORTAC. HOLD WEST ON THE TWO SEVEN ZERO RADIAL..." What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern?

    Direct only

  • 64

    A pilot receives this ATC clearance: "...CLEARED TO THE XYZ VORTAC. HOLD NORTH ON THE THREE SIX ZERO RADIAL, LEFT TURNS..." What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern?

    Direct only

  • 65

    A pilot receives this ATC clearance: "...CLEARED TO THE ABC VORTAC. HOLD SOUTH ON THE ONE EIGHT ZERO RADIAL..." What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern?

    Teardrop only

  • 66

    You arrive over the 15 DME fix on a heading of 350°. Which holding pattern correctly complies with the ATC clearance below, and what is the recommended entry procedure? "...HOLD WEST OF THE ONE FIVE DME FIX ON THE TWO SIX EIGHT RADIAL OF THE ABC VORTAC, FIVE MILE LEGS, LEFT TURNS..."

    2; direct entry

  • 67

    You receive this ATC clearance: "...HOLD EAST OF THE ABC VORTAC ON THE ZERO NINER ZERO RADIAL, LEFT TURNS..." What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern?

    Parallel only

  • 68

    You receive this ATC clearance: "...CLEARED TO THE ABC VORTAC. HOLD SOUTH ON THE ONE EIGHT ZERO RADIAL..." What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern?

    Direct only

  • 69

    You receive this ATC clearance: "...CLEARED TO THE XYZ VORTAC. HOLD NORTH ON THE THREE SIX ZERO RADIAL, LEFT TURNS..." What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern

    Teardrop only

  • 70

    You receive this ATC clearance: "...CLEARED TO THE ABC VORTAC. HOLD WEST ON THE TWO SEVEN ZERO RADIAL..." What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern?

    Direct only

  • 71

    What timing procedure should be used when performing a holding pattern at a VOR?

    Timing for the outbound leg begins over or abeam the VOR, whichever occurs later

  • 72

    You receive this ATC clearance: "...CLEARED TO THE ABC NDB. HOLD SOUTHEAST ON THE ONE FOUR ZERO DEGREE BEARING FROM THE NDB. LEFT TURNS..." At station passage you note the indications in figure 117. What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern?

    Parallel only

  • 73

    You receive this ATC clearance: "...CLEARED TO THE XYZ NDB. HOLD NORTHEAST ON THE ZERO FOUR ZERO DEGREE BEARING FROM THE NDB. LEFT TURNS..." At station passage you note the indications in figure 117. What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern?

    Teardrop only

  • 74

    You receive this ATC clearance: "...CLEARED TO THE ABC NDB. HOLD SOUTHWEST ON THE TWO THREE ZERO DEGREE BEARING FROM THE NDB..." At station passage you note the indications in figure 117. What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern?

    Direct only

  • 75

    When holding at an NDB, at what point should the timing begin for the second leg outbound?

    When abeam the holding fix

  • 76

    To ensure proper airspace protection while holding at 5,000 feet in a civil aircraft, what is the maximum indicated airspeed a pilot should use?

    200 knots

  • 77

    Where a holding pattern is specified in lieu of a procedure turn, the holding maneuver must be executed within

    the 1-minute time limitation or DME distance as specified in the profile view

  • 78

    When more than one circuit of the holding pattern is needed to lose altitude or become better established on course, the additional circuits can be made

    only if pilot advises ATC and ATC approves

  • 79

    How can an IAF be identified on a Standard Instrument Approach Procedure (SIAP) Chart?

    All fixes that are labeled IAF

  • 80

    Which fixes on the IAP Charts are initial approach fixes?

    Any fix that is identified by the letters IAF

  • 81

    Aircraft approach categories are based on

    1.3 times the stall speed in landing configuration at maximum gross landing weight

  • 82

    What does the symbol T within a black triangle in the minimums section of the IAP for a particular airport indicate?

    Takeoff minimums are not standard and/or departure procedures are published

  • 83

    What does the absence of the procedure turn barb on the plan view on an approach chart indicate?

    A procedure turn is not authorized

  • 84

    During an instrument approach, under what conditions, if any, is the holding pattern course reversal not required?

    When radar vectors are provided

  • 85

    When making an instrument approach at the selected alternate airport, what landing minimums apply?

    The landing minimums published for the type of procedure selected

  • 86

    When the approach procedure involves a procedure turn, the maximum speed should not be greater than

    200 knots IAS

  • 87

    What obstacle clearance and navigation signal coverage is a pilot assured with the Minimum Sector Altitudes depicted on the IAP charts?

    1,000 feet within a 25 NM radius of the navigation facility but not acceptable navigation signal coverage

  • 88

    During an instrument precision approach, terrain and obstacle clearance depends on adherence to

    minimum altitude shown on the IAP

  • 89

    When being radar vectored for an ILS approach, at what point may you start a descent from your last assigned altitude to a lower minimum altitude if cleared for the approach?

    When established on a segment of a published route or IAP

  • 90

    While being radar vectored, an approach clearance is received. The last assigned altitude should be maintained until

    established on a segment of a published route or IAP

  • 91

    When simultaneous approaches are in progress, how does each pilot receive radar advisories?

    On tower frequency

  • 92

    When may a pilot make a straight-in landing, if using an IAP having only circling minimums?

    A straight-in landing may be made if the pilot has the runway in sight in sufficient time to make a normal approach for landing, and has been cleared to land

  • 93

    Which procedure should be followed by a pilot who is circling to land in a Category B airplane, but is maintaining a speed 5 knots faster than the maximum specified for that category?

    Use the approach minimums appropriate for Category C

  • 94

    Which clearance procedures may be issued by ATC without prior pilot request?

    DP's, STAR's, and visual approaches

  • 95

    Under which condition does ATC issue a STAR?

    When ATC deems it appropriate, unless the pilot requests "No STAR"

  • 96

    Which is true regarding the use of an instrument departure procedure chart?

    To use an instrument departure procedure, the pilot must possess at least the textual description of the approved procedure

  • 97

    Which is true regarding STAR's?

    STAR's are established to simplify clearance delivery procedures

  • 98

    What action is recommended if a pilot does not wish to use an instrument departure procedure?

    Enter "No DP" in the REMARKS section of the IFR flight plan

  • 99

    A particular instrument departure procedure requires a minimum climb rate of 210 feet per NM to 8,000 feet. If you climb with a ground speed of 140 knots, what is the rate of climb required in feet per minute?

    490

  • 100

    Which procedure applies to instrument departure procedures?

    If an instrument departure procedure is accepted, the pilot must possess at least a textual description

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    問題一覧

  • 1

    What conditions are necessary before ATC can authorize a visual approach?

    You must have the airport in sight or a preceding aircraft to be followed, and be able to proceed to the airport in VFR conditions

  • 2

    What are the main differences between a visual approach and a contact approach?

    The pilot must request a contact approach; the pilot may be assigned a visual approach and higher weather minimums must exist

  • 3

    A contact approach is an approach procedure that may be used

    in lieu of conducting a SIAP

  • 4

    You arrive at your destination airport on an IFR flight plan. Which is a prerequisite condition for the performance of a contact approach?

    Clear of clouds and at least 1 SM flight visibility

  • 5

    What are the requirements for a contact approach to an airport that has an approved IAP, if the pilot is on an instrument flight plan and clear of clouds?

    The pilot must request the approach, have at least 1-mile visibility, and be reasonably sure of remaining clear of clouds

  • 6

    When is radar service terminated during a visual approach?

    Automatically when ATC instructs the pilot to contact the tower

  • 7

    When may you obtain a contact approach?

    ATC will assign a contact approach only upon request if the reported visibility is at least 1 mile

  • 8

    What are the main differences between the SDF and the localizer of an ILS?

    The SDF course may not be aligned with the runway and the course may be wider

  • 9

    What is the difference between a Localizer-Type Directional Aid (LDA) and the ILS localizer?

    The LDA is not aligned with the runway

  • 10

    How wide is an SDF course?

    Either 6° or 12°

  • 11

    What is a difference between an SDF and an LDA facility?

    The SDF course width is either 6° or 12° while the LDA course width is approximately 5°

  • 12

    What does the Runway Visual Range (RVR) value, depicted on certain straight-in IAP Charts, represent?

    The horizontal distance a pilot should see when looking down the runway from a moving aircraftThe horizontal distance a pilot should see when looking down the runway from a moving aircraft

  • 13

    The RVR minimums for takeoff or landing are published in an IAP, but RVR is inoperative and cannot be reported for the runway at the time. Which of the following would apply?

    RVR minimums which are specified in the procedure should be converted and applied as ground visibility

  • 14

    RVR minimums for landing are prescribed in an IAP, but RVR is inoperative and cannot be reported for the intended runway at the time. Which of the following would be an operational consideration?

    RVR minimums which are specified in the procedures should be converted and applied as ground visibility

  • 15

    If the RVR equipment is inoperative for an IAP that requires a visibility of 2400 RVR, how should the pilot expect the visibility requirement to be reported in lieu of the published RVR?

    As a ground visibility of ½ SM

  • 16

    If the RVR is not reported, what meteorological value should you substitute for 2400 RVR?

    A ground visibility of ½ SM

  • 17

    If an early missed approach is initiated before reaching the MAP, the following procedure should be used unless otherwise cleared by ATC

    Proceed to the missed approach point at or above the MDA or DH before executing a turning maneuver

  • 18

    If the pilot loses visual reference while circling to land from an instrument approach and ATC radar service is not available, the missed approach action should be to

    make a climbing turn toward the landing runway and continue the turn until established on the missed approach course

  • 19

    If all ILS components are operating and the required visual references are not established, the missed approach should be initiated upon

    arrival at the DH on the glide slope

  • 20

    If during an ILS approach in IFR conditions, the approach lights are not visible upon arrival at the DH, the pilot is

    required to immediately execute the missed approach procedure

  • 21

    How does a pilot determine if DME is available on an ILS/LOC?

    IAP indicate DME\TACAN channel in LOC frequency box

  • 22

    Approximately what height is the glide slope centerline at the MM of a typical ILS?

    200 feet

  • 23

    Which range facility associated with the ILS is identified by the last two letters of the localizer identification group?

    Middle compass locator

  • 24

    Which indications will a pilot receive where an IM is installed on a front course ILS approach?

    Six dots per second and a flashing white light

  • 25

    Which range facility associated with the ILS can be identified by a two-letter coded signal?

    Compass locator

  • 26

    Which of the following statements is true regarding Parallel ILS approaches?

    Parallel ILS approaches provide aircraft a minimum of 1½ miles radar separation between successive aircraft on the adjacent localizer course

  • 27

    Which pilot action is appropriate if more than one component of an ILS is unusable?

    Use the highest minimum required by any single component that is unusable

  • 28

    Which substitution is permitted when an ILS component is inoperative?

    A compass locator or precision radar may be substituted for the ILS outer or middle marker

  • 29

    What facilities, if any, may be substituted for an inoperative middle marker during an ILS approach without affecting the straight-in minimums?

    Substitution not necessary, minimums do not change

  • 30

    Which of these facilities may be substituted for an MM during a complete ILS IAP?

    Compass locator and precision radar

  • 31

    When installed with the ILS and specified in the approach procedures, DME may be used

    in lieu of the OM

  • 32

    Which substitution is appropriate during an ILS approach?

    LOC minimums should be substituted for ILS minimums whenever the glide slope becomes inoperative

  • 33

    Immediately after passing the final approach fix in bound during an ILS approach in IFR conditions, the glide slope warning flag appears. The pilot is

    permitted to continue the approach and descend to the localizer MDA

  • 34

    A pilot is making an ILS approach and is past the OM to a runway which has a VASI. What action should the pilot take if an electronic glide slope malfunction occurs and the pilot has the VASI in sight?

    The pilot may continue the approach and use the VASI glide slope in place of the electronic glide slope

  • 35

    The rate of descent on the glide slope is dependent upon

    ground speed

  • 36

    The rate of descent required to stay on the ILS glide slope

    must be decreased if the ground speed is decreased

  • 37

    To remain on the ILS glidepath, the rate of descent must be

    increased if the ground speed is increased

  • 38

    When passing through an abrupt wind shear which involves a shift from a tailwind to a headwind, what power management would normally be required to maintain a constant indicated airspeed and ILS glide slope?

    Lower than normal power initially, followed by a further decrease as the wind shear is encountered, then an increase

  • 39

    What effect will a change in wind direction have upon maintaining a 3° glide slope at a constant true airspeed?

    When ground speed increases, rate of descent must increase

  • 40

    The glide slope and localizer are centered, but the airspeed is too fast. Which should be adjusted initially?

    Power only

  • 41

    While being vectored, if crossing the ILS final approach course becomes imminent and an approach clearance has not been issued, what action should be taken by the pilot?

    Maintain the last assigned heading and query ATC

  • 42

    Thrust is managed to maintain IAS, and glide slope is being flown. What characteristics should be observed when a headwind shears to be a constant tailwind?

    PITCH ATTITUDE: Decreases; REQUIRED THRUST: Increased, then reduced; VERTICAL SPEED: Increases; IAS: Decreases, then increases to approach speed

  • 43

    While flying a 3° glide slope, a constant tailwind shears to a calm wind. Which conditions should the pilot expect?

    Airspeed and pitch attitude increase and there is a tendency to go above glide slope

  • 44

    While flying a 3° glide slope, a headwind shears to a tailwind. Which conditions should the pilot expect on the glide slope?

    Airspeed and pitch attitude decrease and there is a tendency to go below glide slope

  • 45

    During a precision radar or ILS approach, the rate of descent required to remain on the glide slope will

    increase as the groundspeed increases

  • 46

    When tracking in bound on the localizer, which of the following is the proper procedure regarding drift corrections?

    Drift corrections should be accurately established before reaching the outer marker and completion of the approach should be accomplished with heading corrections no greater than 2°

  • 47

    Which information, in addition to headings, does the radar controller provide without request during an ASR approach?

    When to commence descent to MDA, the aircraft's position each mile on final from the runway, and arrival at the MAP

  • 48

    Where may you use a surveillance approach?

    At airports for which civil radar instrument approach minimums have been published

  • 49

    How is ATC radar used for instrument approaches when the facility is approved for approach control service?

    Course guidance to the final approach course, ASR and PAR approaches, and the monitoring of nonradar approaches

  • 50

    During a "no-gyro" approach and prior to being handed off to the final approach controller, the pilot should make all turns

    standard rate unless otherwise advised

  • 51

    After being handed off to the final approach controller during a "no-gyro" surveillance or precision approach, the pilot should make all turns

    one-half standard rate

  • 52

    When cleared to execute a published sidestep maneuver for a specific approach and landing on the parallel runway, at what point is the pilot expected to commence this maneuver?

    As soon as possible after the runway or runway environment is in sight

  • 53

    Assume this clearance is received: "CLEARED FOR ILS RUNWAY 07 LEFT APPROACH, SIDE-STEP TO RUNWAY 07 RIGHT." When would the pilot be expected to commence the side-step maneuver?

    As soon as possible after the runway environment is in sight

  • 54

    Which of the following conditions is required before "timed approaches from a holding fix" may be conducted?

    If more than one missed approach procedure is available, none may require a course reversal

  • 55

    If only one missed approach procedure is available, which of the following conditions is required when conducting "timed approaches from a holding fix"?

    The reported ceiling and visibility minimums must be equal to or greater than the highest prescribed circling minimums for the IAP

  • 56

    Prior to conducting "timed approaches from a holding fix," which one of the following is required?

    The airport where the approach is to be conducted must have a control tower in operation

  • 57

    When making a "timed approach" from a holding fix at the outer marker, the pilot should adjust the

    holding pattern to leave the final approach fix inbound at the assigned time

  • 58

    At what point should the timing begin for the first leg outbound in a nonstandard holding pattern?

    When over or abeam the holding fix, whichever occurs later

  • 59

    You receive this ATC clearance: "...HOLD WEST OF THE ONE FIVE DME FIX ON THE ZERO NINE ZERO RADIAL OF ABC VORTAC, FIVE MILE LEGS, LEFT TURNS..." You arrive at the 15 DME fix on a heading of 350°. Which holding pattern correctly complies with these instructions, and what is the recommended entry procedure?

    1; direct

  • 60

    You arrive at the 15 DME fix on a heading of 350°. Which holding pattern correctly complies with the ATC clearance below, and what is the recommended entry procedure? "...HOLD WEST OF THE ONE FIVE DME FIX ON THE ZERO NINE ZERO RADIAL OF THE ABC VORTAC, FIVE MILE LEGS, LEFT TURNS..."

    1; direct entry

  • 61

    To ensure proper airspace protection while in a holding pattern, what is the maximum airspeed above 14,000 feet for civil turbojet aircraft?

    265 knots

  • 62

    To ensure proper airspace protection while in a holding pattern above 14,000 feet in a propeller-driven airplane, what is the maximum indicated airspeed a pilot should use?

    265 knots

  • 63

    A pilot receives this ATC clearance: "...CLEARED TO THE ABC VORTAC. HOLD WEST ON THE TWO SEVEN ZERO RADIAL..." What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern?

    Direct only

  • 64

    A pilot receives this ATC clearance: "...CLEARED TO THE XYZ VORTAC. HOLD NORTH ON THE THREE SIX ZERO RADIAL, LEFT TURNS..." What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern?

    Direct only

  • 65

    A pilot receives this ATC clearance: "...CLEARED TO THE ABC VORTAC. HOLD SOUTH ON THE ONE EIGHT ZERO RADIAL..." What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern?

    Teardrop only

  • 66

    You arrive over the 15 DME fix on a heading of 350°. Which holding pattern correctly complies with the ATC clearance below, and what is the recommended entry procedure? "...HOLD WEST OF THE ONE FIVE DME FIX ON THE TWO SIX EIGHT RADIAL OF THE ABC VORTAC, FIVE MILE LEGS, LEFT TURNS..."

    2; direct entry

  • 67

    You receive this ATC clearance: "...HOLD EAST OF THE ABC VORTAC ON THE ZERO NINER ZERO RADIAL, LEFT TURNS..." What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern?

    Parallel only

  • 68

    You receive this ATC clearance: "...CLEARED TO THE ABC VORTAC. HOLD SOUTH ON THE ONE EIGHT ZERO RADIAL..." What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern?

    Direct only

  • 69

    You receive this ATC clearance: "...CLEARED TO THE XYZ VORTAC. HOLD NORTH ON THE THREE SIX ZERO RADIAL, LEFT TURNS..." What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern

    Teardrop only

  • 70

    You receive this ATC clearance: "...CLEARED TO THE ABC VORTAC. HOLD WEST ON THE TWO SEVEN ZERO RADIAL..." What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern?

    Direct only

  • 71

    What timing procedure should be used when performing a holding pattern at a VOR?

    Timing for the outbound leg begins over or abeam the VOR, whichever occurs later

  • 72

    You receive this ATC clearance: "...CLEARED TO THE ABC NDB. HOLD SOUTHEAST ON THE ONE FOUR ZERO DEGREE BEARING FROM THE NDB. LEFT TURNS..." At station passage you note the indications in figure 117. What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern?

    Parallel only

  • 73

    You receive this ATC clearance: "...CLEARED TO THE XYZ NDB. HOLD NORTHEAST ON THE ZERO FOUR ZERO DEGREE BEARING FROM THE NDB. LEFT TURNS..." At station passage you note the indications in figure 117. What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern?

    Teardrop only

  • 74

    You receive this ATC clearance: "...CLEARED TO THE ABC NDB. HOLD SOUTHWEST ON THE TWO THREE ZERO DEGREE BEARING FROM THE NDB..." At station passage you note the indications in figure 117. What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern?

    Direct only

  • 75

    When holding at an NDB, at what point should the timing begin for the second leg outbound?

    When abeam the holding fix

  • 76

    To ensure proper airspace protection while holding at 5,000 feet in a civil aircraft, what is the maximum indicated airspeed a pilot should use?

    200 knots

  • 77

    Where a holding pattern is specified in lieu of a procedure turn, the holding maneuver must be executed within

    the 1-minute time limitation or DME distance as specified in the profile view

  • 78

    When more than one circuit of the holding pattern is needed to lose altitude or become better established on course, the additional circuits can be made

    only if pilot advises ATC and ATC approves

  • 79

    How can an IAF be identified on a Standard Instrument Approach Procedure (SIAP) Chart?

    All fixes that are labeled IAF

  • 80

    Which fixes on the IAP Charts are initial approach fixes?

    Any fix that is identified by the letters IAF

  • 81

    Aircraft approach categories are based on

    1.3 times the stall speed in landing configuration at maximum gross landing weight

  • 82

    What does the symbol T within a black triangle in the minimums section of the IAP for a particular airport indicate?

    Takeoff minimums are not standard and/or departure procedures are published

  • 83

    What does the absence of the procedure turn barb on the plan view on an approach chart indicate?

    A procedure turn is not authorized

  • 84

    During an instrument approach, under what conditions, if any, is the holding pattern course reversal not required?

    When radar vectors are provided

  • 85

    When making an instrument approach at the selected alternate airport, what landing minimums apply?

    The landing minimums published for the type of procedure selected

  • 86

    When the approach procedure involves a procedure turn, the maximum speed should not be greater than

    200 knots IAS

  • 87

    What obstacle clearance and navigation signal coverage is a pilot assured with the Minimum Sector Altitudes depicted on the IAP charts?

    1,000 feet within a 25 NM radius of the navigation facility but not acceptable navigation signal coverage

  • 88

    During an instrument precision approach, terrain and obstacle clearance depends on adherence to

    minimum altitude shown on the IAP

  • 89

    When being radar vectored for an ILS approach, at what point may you start a descent from your last assigned altitude to a lower minimum altitude if cleared for the approach?

    When established on a segment of a published route or IAP

  • 90

    While being radar vectored, an approach clearance is received. The last assigned altitude should be maintained until

    established on a segment of a published route or IAP

  • 91

    When simultaneous approaches are in progress, how does each pilot receive radar advisories?

    On tower frequency

  • 92

    When may a pilot make a straight-in landing, if using an IAP having only circling minimums?

    A straight-in landing may be made if the pilot has the runway in sight in sufficient time to make a normal approach for landing, and has been cleared to land

  • 93

    Which procedure should be followed by a pilot who is circling to land in a Category B airplane, but is maintaining a speed 5 knots faster than the maximum specified for that category?

    Use the approach minimums appropriate for Category C

  • 94

    Which clearance procedures may be issued by ATC without prior pilot request?

    DP's, STAR's, and visual approaches

  • 95

    Under which condition does ATC issue a STAR?

    When ATC deems it appropriate, unless the pilot requests "No STAR"

  • 96

    Which is true regarding the use of an instrument departure procedure chart?

    To use an instrument departure procedure, the pilot must possess at least the textual description of the approved procedure

  • 97

    Which is true regarding STAR's?

    STAR's are established to simplify clearance delivery procedures

  • 98

    What action is recommended if a pilot does not wish to use an instrument departure procedure?

    Enter "No DP" in the REMARKS section of the IFR flight plan

  • 99

    A particular instrument departure procedure requires a minimum climb rate of 210 feet per NM to 8,000 feet. If you climb with a ground speed of 140 knots, what is the rate of climb required in feet per minute?

    490

  • 100

    Which procedure applies to instrument departure procedures?

    If an instrument departure procedure is accepted, the pilot must possess at least a textual description