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1
Chain-of-custody procedures must be followed for: * 0/1 Blood specimens for alcohol level determination Routine urinalysis for glucose and ketones Therapeutic drug threshold determinations Throat swabs of group A beta streptococcus screening
Blood specimens for alcohol level determination
2
Calibration is defined as: * 1/1 How close results are to one another How close a test result is to the true value Specimen that is similar to patient’s blood; known concentration of constituent Comparison of an instrument measure or reading to a known physical constant
Comparison of an instrument measure or reading to a known physical constant
3
Standards are defined as: * 1/1 How close a test result is to the true value Specimens that are similar to patient’s blood; known concentration of constituent Comparison of an instrument measure or reading to a known physical constant Highly purified substances of known composition
Highly purified substances of known composition
4
A control is defined as: * 1/1 How close a test result is to the true value Specimen that is similar to patient’s blood; known concentration of constituent Comparison of an instrument measure or reading to a known physical constant Measurement of a highly purified substance of known composition
Specimen that is similar to patient’s blood; known concentration of constituent
5
The preparation of a patient for standard glucose tolerance testing should include: * 0/1 A high carbohydrate diet for 3 days A low carbohydrate diet for 3 days Fasting for 48 hours prior to testing Bed rest for 3 days
A high carbohydrate diet for 3 days
6
A 25-year-old man became nauseated and vomited 90 minutes after receiving a standard 75 carbohydrate dose for an oral glucose tolerance test. The best course of action is to: * 1/1 Give the patient a glass of orange juice and continue the test Start the test over immediately with a 50 g carbohydrate dose Draw blood for glucose and discontinue test Place the patient in a recumbent position, reassure him and continue the test
Draw blood for glucose and discontinue test
7
The conversion of glucose or other hexoses into lactate or pyruvate is called: * 1/1 Glycogenesis Glycogenolysis Gluconeogenesis Glycolysis
Glycolysis
8
Which of the following values obtained during a glucose tolerance test is diagnostic of diabetes mellitus? 1/1 2-hour specimen = 150 mg/dl (8.3 mmol/L) Fasting plasma glucose = 126 mg/dl (6.9 mmol/L) Fasting plasma glucose = 110 mg/dl (6.1 mmol/L) 2-hour specimen = 180 mg/dl (9.9 mmol/L)
Fasting plasma glucose = 126 mg/dl (6.9 mmol/L)
9
A patient with hemolytic anemia will: * 1/1 Show a decrease in glycated Hb value Show an increase in glycated Hb value Show little or no change in glycated Hb value d demonstrate an elevated HbA1 Demonstrate an elevated HbA1
Show a decrease in glycated Hb value
10
An increase in serum acetone is indicative of a defect in the metabolism of: * 1/1 Carbohydrates Fat Urea nitrogen Uric acid
Carbohydrates
11
One international unit of enzyme activity is the amount of enzyme that will, under specified reaction conditions of substrate concentration, pH and temperature, cause utilization of substrate at the rate of: * 1/1 1 mol/min 1mmol/min 1 μmol/min 1 nmol/min
1 μmol/min
12
In spectrophotometric determination, which of the following is the formula for calculating the absorbance of a solution? * 1/1 (absorptivity x light path)/concentration (absorptivity x concentration)/light path absorptivity x light path x concentration (light path x concentration)/absorptivity
absorptivity x light path x concentration
13
High levels of which lipoprotein class are associated with decreased risk of accelerated atherosclerosis? * 1/1 Chylomicrons VLDL LDL HDL
HDL
14
The chemical composition of HDL corresponds to: * 0/1 Trigyceride 60%, cholesterol 15%, protein 10% Trigyceride 10%, cholesterol 45%, protein 25% Triglyceride 5%, cholesterol 15%, protein 50% Trigyceride 85%, cholesterol 5%, protein 2%
Triglyceride 5%, cholesterol 15%, protein 50%
15
A 9-month-old boy from Israel has gradually lost the ability to sit up, and develops seizures. He has an increased amount of a phospholipid called ganglioside in his neurons, and he lacks the enzyme hexosaminidase A in his leukocytes. These findings suggest: * 1/1 Neimann-Pick disease Tay-Sachs disease Phenylketonuria Hurler syndrom
Tay-Sachs disease
16
On electrophoresis at alkaline pH, which of the following is the slowest migrating hemoglobin? * 1/1 Hb A Hb S Hb C Hb G
Hb C
17
In which of the following conditions does decreased activity of glucuronyl transferase result in increased unconjugated bilirubin and kernicterus in neonates? * 0/1 Gilbert disease Rotor syndrome Dubin-Johnson syndrome Crigler-Najjar syndrome
Crigler-Najjar syndrome
18
What substance gives feces its normal color? 1/1 Uroerythrin Urochrome Urobilin Urobilinogen
Urobilin
19
Which of the following enzymes of heme biosynthesis is inhibited by lead? * 0/1 Delta-aminolevulinate dehydratase Porphobilinogen synthase Uroporphyrinogen synthase Bilirubin synthetase
Delta-aminolevulinate dehydratase
20
Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) and alanine aminotransferase (ALT) are both elevated in which of the following diseases? * 1/1 Muscular dystrophy Viral hepatitis Pulmonary emboli Infectious mononucleosis
Viral hepatitis
21
Which of the following clinical disorders is associated with the greatest elevation of lactate dehydrogenase isoenzyme 1? * 0/1 Pneumonia Glomerulonephritis Pancreatitis Pernicious anemia
Pernicious anemia
22
In which of the following conditions would a normal level of creatine kinase be found? * 0/1 Acute myocardial infarct Hepatitis Progressive muscular dystrophy Intramuscular injection
Hepatitis
23
A 10-year-old child is admitted to pediatrics with an initial diagnosis of skeletal muscle disease. The best confirmatory tests would be: * 1/1 Creatine kinase and isocitrate dehydrogenase Gamma-glutamyl transferase and alkaline phosphatase Aldolase and creatine kinase Lactate dehydrogenase and malate dehydrogenase
Aldolase and creatine kinase
24
The most heat labile fraction of alkaline phosphatase is obtained from: * 1/1 Liver Bone Intestine Placenta
Bone
25
Cholinesterase levels are generally assayed to aid in diagnosis of: * 1/1 Pancreatitis Methamphetamine overdose Organophosphate poisoning Hepatobiliary disease
Organophosphate poisoning
26
lsoenzyme assays are performed to improve: 1/1 Precision Accuracy Sensitivity Specificity
Specificity
27
The main function of serum albumin in the peripheral blood is to: * 1/1 Maintain colloidal osmotic pressure Increase antibody production Increase fibrinogen formation Maintain blood viscosity
Maintain colloidal osmotic pressure
28
The first step in analyzing a 24-hour urine specimen for quantitative urine protein is: 1/1 Subculture the urine for bacteria Add the appropriate preservative Screen for albumin using a dipstick Measure the total volume
Measure the total volume
29
A characteristic of the Bence Jones protein that is used to distinguish it from other urinary proteins is its solubility: * 0/1 In ammonium sulfate In sulfuric acid At 40-60°C At 100°C
At 100°C
30
The identification of Bence Jones protein is best accomplished by: * 0/1 Sulfosalicylic acid test Urine reagent strips Immunofixation electrophoresis Immunoelectrophoresis
Immunofixation electrophoresis
31
A critically ill patient becomes comatose. The physician believes the coma is due to hepatic failure. The assay most helpful in this diagnosis is: * 1/1 Ammonia ALT AST GGT
Ammonia
32
Creatinine clearance is used to estimate the: 1/1 Tubular secretion of creatinine Glomerular secretion of creatinine Renal glomerular and tubular mass Glomerular filtration rate
Glomerular filtration rate
33
Which of the following represents the end product of purine metabolism in humans? * 1/1 AMP and GMP DNA and RNA Allantoin Uric acid
Uric acid
34
The presence of C-reactive protein in the blood is an indication of: * 1/1 A recent streptococcal infection Recovery from a pneumococcal infection An inflammatory process A state of hypersensitivity
An inflammatory process
35
Clinical assays for tumor markers are most important for: * 1/1 Screening for the presence of cancer Monitoring the course of a known cancer Confirming the absence of disease Identifying patients at risk for cancer
Monitoring the course of a known cancer
36
Detection of which of the following substances is most useful to monitor the course of a patient with testicular cancer? * 0/1 Alpha-fetoprotein Carcinoembryonic antigen Prolactin Testosterone
Alpha-fetoprotein
37
In monitoring glomerular function, which of the following tests has the highest sensitivity? * 1/1 Urine sodium BUN/creatinine ratio Creatinine clearance Urea clearance
Creatinine clearance
38
A double albumin band seen on serum protein electrophoresis indicates: * 1/1 Severe liver disease Bisalbuminemia Acute inflammation Hemolytic anemia
Bisalbuminemia
39
Which term describes a congenital disorder that is characterized by a split in the albumin band when serum is subjected to electrophoresis? * 1/1 Analbuminemia Anodic albuminemia Prealbuminemia Bisalbuminemia
Bisalbuminemia
40
Which of the following serum proteins migrate with the beta-globulins on cellulose acetate at pH 8.6? * 0/1 Ceruloplasmin Hemoglobin Haptoglobin C3 component of complement
C3 component of complement
41
The expected blood gas results for a patient in chronic renal failure would match the pattern of: * 1/1 Metabolic acidosis Respiratory acidosis Metabolic alkalosis Respiratory alkalosis
Metabolic acidosis
42
At blood pH 7.40, what is the ratio of bicarbonate to carbonic acid? * 1/1 15:1 20:1 25:1 30:1
20:1
43
The reference range for the pH of arterial blood measured at 37°C is: 1/1 7.28 to 7.34 7.33 to 7.37 7.35 to 7.45 7.45 to 7.50
7.35 to 7.45
44
The most important buffer pair in plasma is the: * 1/1 Phosphate/biphosphate pair Hemoglobin/imidazole pair Bicarbonate/carbonic acid pair Sulfate/bisulfate pair
Bicarbonate/carbonic acid pair
45
Select the test which evaluates renal tubular function. * 0/1 IVP Creatinine clearance Osmolality Microscopic urinalysis
Osmolality
46
Which of the following electrolytes is the chief plasma cation whose main function is maintaining osmotic pressure? * 1/1 Chloride Calcium Potassium Sodium
Sodium
47
The solute that contributes the most to the total serum osmolality is: 0/1 Glucose Sodium Chloride Urea
Sodium
48
The osmolality of a urine or serum specimen is measured by a change in the: * 0/1 Freezing point Sedimentation point Midpoint Osmotic pressure
Freezing point
49
The hormone that triggers ovulation is: * 0/1 Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) Luteinizing hormone (LH) Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) Human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG)
Luteinizing hormone (LH)
50
During a normal pregnancy, quantitative human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG) levels peak how many weeks after the last menstrual period? * 1/1 2 to 4 8 to 10 14 to 16 18 to 20
8 to 10
51
24-hour homovanillic acid (HVA) is usually ordered to help in diagnosis of: * 0/1 Cushing disease Malignant neuroblastoma Conn disease Graves disease
Malignant neuroblastoma
52
An antiepileptic (or anticonvulsant) used to control seizure disorders is: * 0/1 Digoxin Acetaminophen Lithium Phenytoin
Phenytoin
53
The typical specimen collected for forensic toxicity of drugs of abuse is: * 1/1 Random urine Whole blood Serum Hair follicle
Random urine
54
Preanalytical (preexamination) variables in laboratory testing include: 1/1 Result accuracy Report delivery to the ordering physician Test turnaround time Specimen acceptability
Specimen acceptability
55
Preanalytical (preexamination) variables in laboratory testing include: 1/1 Result accuracy Report delivery to the ordering physician Test turnaround time Specimen acceptability
Specimen acceptability
56
A preanalytical error can be introduced by: * 1/1 Drawing a coagulation tube before an EDTA tube Mixing an EDTA tube 8-10 times Transporting the specimen in a biohazard bag Vigorously shaking of blood tube to prevent clotting
Vigorously shaking of blood tube to prevent clotting
57
Which of the following is not a potential source of postanalytical (postexamination) errors? * 0/1 Excessive delay in reporting or retrieving a test result Interpretation of result Verbal notification of test result Labeling the specimen at the nurses' station
Labeling the specimen at the nurses' station
58
The most important diagnosis and therapeutic management decision tool used to interpret test results is: * 1/1 Statistical analysis Reference intervals Specimen acceptability The age of a patient
Reference intervals
59
A delta check is a method that: 1/1 Determines the mean and variance of an instrument Monitors the testing system for precision Monitors patient samples day to day Is determined by each laboratory facility
Monitors patient samples day to day
60
A laboratory procedure manual should be available to personnel at the workbench and must include the following elements: * 1/1 Clinical significance, frequency of test performance, quality control processes, calculations, and test interpretation Step-by-step performance instructions, reference intervals, reagent storage location, specimen collection requirements Limitation of test performance (interfering substances), corrective action if QC fails, critical values, and reagent preparation Test principle, criteria for specimen rejection, list of individuals authorized to perform, and calibration procedures
Step-by-step performance instructions, reference intervals, reagent storage location, specimen collection requirements
61
Which of these attributes is the advantage for adding point-of-care testing? * 0/1 Higher test accuracy Lower costs Faster TAT More skilled test personnel
Faster TAT
62
A technologist splashed a corrosive chemical in his/her eyes. To prevent permanent injury, the first action should be to * 1/1 Bandage the eyes and seek immediate emergency medical assistance Flush eyes with a chemical of opposite pH to neutralize the injury Use the eyewash station to flush eyes with water for 15 minutes Seek immediate emergency medical assistance
Use the eyewash station to flush eyes with water for 15 minutes
63
The acceptable limit of error in the chemistry laboratory is 2 standard deviations. If you run the normal control 100 times, how many of the values would be out of the control range due to random error? * 0/1 1 5 10 20
5
64
The target in the figure illustrates a set of results that show a high degree of: Accuracy Precision Sensitivity Specificity
Precision
65
Which of the following wavelengths is within the ultraviolet range? * 0/1 340 nm 450 nm 540 nm 690 nm
340 nm
66
In spectrophotometric analysis, what is the purpose of the reagent blank? * 1/1 Correct for interfering chromogens Correct for lipemia Correct for protein Correct for color contribution of the reagents
Correct for color contribution of the reagents
67
To calibrate the pH electrode in a pH/ blood gas analyzer, it is necessary that: * 0/1 The barometric pressure be known and used for adjustments Calibrating gases of known high andl ow concentrations be used The calibration be performed at room temperature Two buffer solutions of known pH be used
Two buffer solutions of known pH be used
68
Checking instrument calibration, temperature accuracy, and electronic parameters are part of * 0/1 Preventive maintenance Quality control Function verification Precision verification
Function verification
69
To what class of enzymes does lactate dehydrogenase belong? * 0/1 Isomerases Ligases Oxidoreductases Transferases
Oxidoreductases
70
Which of the following enzymes does not belong to the class of enzymes known as the hydrolases? * 1/1 Alkaline phosphatase Aldolase Amylase Lipase
Aldolase
71
If elevated, which laboratory test would support a diagnosis of congestive heart failure? 1/1 Homocysteine Troponin Albumin cobalt binding D. B-typenatriureticpeptide B-type natriuretic peptide
B-type natriuretic peptide
72
Which of the following enzyme activities can be determined by using a dilute olive oil emulsion substrate, whose hydrolyzed product is monitored as a decrease in turbidity or light scatter? * 0/1 Alkaline phosphatase Amylase Lipase Trypsin
Lipase
73
In order to maintain electrical neutrality in the red blood cell, bicarbonate leaves the red blood cell and enters the plasma through an exchange mechanism with what electrolyte? * 1/1 Sodium Potassium Chloride Phosphate
Chloride
74
Which of the following organs uses glucose from digested carbohydrates and stores it as glycogen for later use as a source of immediate energy by the muscles? * 0/1 Kidneys Liver Pancreas Thyroid
Liver
75
Convert: 20 °C = ___ °F 25 53 68 86
68
76
Convert: 75 °F = ___°C 5.5 21.0 23.8 32.6
23.8
77
An etched ring on a to-deliver (TD) pipette indicates: * 1/1 A small amount of fluid will remain in tip of pipette, and it is left to remain in the tip The drop remaining in the tip must be blown out Either No significance
The drop remaining in the tip must be blown out
78
The purest type of reagent water is: * 1/1 Type I Type II Type III All are equal
Type I
79
How would 6.32 be rounded off to one less decimal place? * 1/1 6.32 6.4 7.0 6.3
6.3
80
How would 15.57 be rounded off to one less decimal place? * 1/1 15.6 15.5 16.0 15.0
15.6
81
Dilution is: * 1/1 The amount of one substance relative to the amounts of other substances in the solution Relative concentrations of the components of a mixture The gram-molecular mass (or weight) of a com- pound per liter of solution Expression of one amount relative to another amount
Relative concentrations of the components of a mixture
82
Three grams (3 g) of solute in 100mL of solvent equals _____% (w/v). 0/1 0.3 3 30 300
3
83
Twenty grams (20 g) of solute dissolved in 1L of solvent equals _____% (w/v). * 0/1 0.2 2 20 200
2
84
How many grams of NaCl would be used to prepare 1000 mL of a 5% (w/v) solution of NaCl? * 0/1 0.5 g 5 g 50 g 500 g
50 g
85
What volume of 25% alcohol is needed to prepare 500 mL of 15% alcohol? * 1/1 30 mL 300 mL 350 mL 375 mL
300 mL
86
A ratio is: * 1/1 The amount of one substance relative to the amounts of other substances in the solution Relative concentrations of the components of a mixture The gram-molecular mass (or weight) of a compound per liter of solution Expression of one amount relative to another amount
Expression of one amount relative to another amount
87
Concentration is: * 0/1 The amount of one substance relative to the amounts of other substances in the solution Relative concentrations of the components of a mixture The gram-molecular mass (or weight) of a compound per liter of solution Expression of one amount relative to another amount
The amount of one substance relative to the amounts of other substances in the solution
88
Nephelometry measures the light scatter of: * 1/1 Ions Macromolecules complexes Antibodies Soluble antigens
Macromolecules complexes
89
Which of the following is the most common application of immunoelectrophoresis (IEP)? * 1/1 Identification of the absence of a normal serum protein Structural abnormalities of proteins Screening for circulating immune complexes Diagnosis of monoclonal gammopathies
Diagnosis of monoclonal gammopathies
90
The most important application of IEP of urine is: * 1/1 Diagnosis of monoclonal gammopathy Diagnosis of polyclonal gammopathy Diagnosis of autoimmune hemolysis Demonstration of Bence Jones (BJ) protein
Demonstration of Bence Jones (BJ) protein
91
Which monochromator specification is required in order to measure the true absorbance of a compound having a natural absorption bandwidth of 30 nm? * 0/1 50-nm bandpass 25-nm bandpass 15-nm bandpass 5-nm bandpass
5-nm bandpass
92
Which of the following conditions is associated with hypernatremia? * 0/1 Diabetes insipidus Hypoaldosteronism Burns Diarrhea
Diabetes insipidus
93
Which formula is most accurate in predicting plasma osmolality? * 0/1 Na + 2(Cl) + BUN + glucose 2(Na) + 2(Cl) + glucose + urea 2(Na) + (glucose ÷ 18) + (BUN ÷ 2.8) Na + Cl + K + HCO3
2(Na) + (glucose ÷ 18) + (BUN ÷ 2.8)
94
Identify the enzyme deficiency responsible for type 1 glycogen storage disease (von Gierke’s disease). * 0/1 Glucose-6-phosphatase Glycogen phosphorylase Glycogen synthetase β-Glucosidase
Glucose-6-phosphatase
95
Which of the following abnormal laboratory results is found in von Gierke’s disease? * 0/1 Hyperglycemia Increased glucose response to epinephrine administration Metabolic alkalosis Hyperlipidemia
Hyperlipidemia
96
Which test is the most sensitive in detecting early monoclonal gammopathies? * 1/1 High-resolution serum protein electrophoresis Urinary electrophoresis for monoclonal light chains Capillary electrophoresis of serum and urine Serum-free light chain immunoassay
Serum-free light chain immunoassay
97
Which test is the most useful way to evaluate the response to treatment for multiple myeloma? * 0/1 Measure of total immunoglobulin Measurement of 24-hour urinary light chain concentration (Bence–Jones protein) Capillary electrophoresis of M-protein recurrence Measurement of serum-free light chains
Measurement of serum-free light chains
98
Which of the following mechanisms accounts for the elevated plasma level of β lipoproteins seen in familial hypercholesterolemia (formerly type II hyperlipoproteinemia)? * 1/1 Hyperinsulinemia ApoB-100 receptor defect ApoC-II activated lipase deficiency ApoE3 deficiency
ApoB-100 receptor defect
99
Which enzyme deficiency is most commonly associated with familial hypertriglyceridemia associated with fasting plasma cholomicrons (formerly type I hyperlipoproteinemia)? 0/1 β Glucocerebrosidase deficiency Post–heparin-activated lipoprotein lipase deficiency Apo-B deficiency Apo-C-III deficiency
Post–heparin-activated lipoprotein lipase deficiency
100
Which of the following enzymes is considered most tissue specific? 0/1 Creatine kinase (CK) Amylase Alkaline phosphatase (ALP) Alcohol dehydrogenase (ADH)
Alcohol dehydrogenase (ADH)