IMMUNOLOGY AND SEROLOGY

60問 • 1年前

問題一覧

Which cells are capable of further differentiation in tissues? a. Lymphocyte b. Monocytes c. Neutrophils d. Dendritic cells

b. Monocytes

What is the most significant agent formed in the phagolysosome for the killing of microorganisms? a. Proteolytic enzymes b. Hydroxyl radicals c. Hydrogen peroxide d. Superoxide

c. Hydrogen peroxide

Which cell is the most potent phagocytic cell in the tissue? a. Neutrophil b. Dendritic cell c. Eosinophil d. Basophil

b. Dendritic cell

Which of the following is a primary lymphoid organ? a. Lymph node b. Spleen c. Thymus d. MALT

c. Thymus

Which of the following is found on the T cell subset known as helpers? a. CD19 b. CD4 c. CD8 d. CD56

b. CD4

HLA-A, HLA-B, HLA-C belong to which MHC class? a. Class I b. Class II c. Class III d. Class IV

a. Class I

HLA-DR, HLA-DQ, HLA-DP belong to which MHC class? a. Class I b. Class II c. Class III d. Class IV

b. Class II

. T lymphocyte are incapable of functioning as: a. Cytotoxic cells b. Helper cells c. Phagocytic cells d. Regulatory cells

c. Phagocytic cells

Antigen receptors on T lymphocyte bind HLA class II molecules with the help of which accessory molecule? a. CD2 b. CD3 c. CD4 d. CD8

c. CD4

From the following, identify a specific component of the adaptive immune system that is formed in response to antigenic stimulation: a. Lysozyme b. Complement c. Commensal organism d. Immunoglobulin or antibodies

d. Immunoglobulin or antibodies

Which immunoglobulin appears first in the primary immune response? a. IgG b. IgM c. IgA d. IgE

b. IgM

Not true about IgM a. Highest in anamnestic response b. Has five subunits c. Predominant in primary immune response d. Immediate response

a. Highest in anamnestic response

The key structural difference that distinguishes immunoglobulin subclasses: a. Stereometry of the hypervariable region b. Number of domains c. Sequence of the constant regions d. Covalent linkage of the light chains

c. Sequence of the constant regions

Which antibody best protects mucosal surfaces? a. IgA b. IgG

a. IgA

The subclasses of IgG differ mainly in: a. The type of L chain b. The arrangement of disulfide bonds c. The ability to act as opsonin d. Molecular weight

b. The arrangement of disulfide bonds

Immunoglobulin that is the most efficient at crossing the placenta: a. IgG b. IgA c. IgM d. IgD

a. IgG

Antibody idiotype is dictated by the: a. Constant region of heavy chain b. Constant region of light chain c. Constant region of heavy and light chains d. Variable regions of heavy and light chains

d. Variable regions of heavy and light chains

. Antibody allotype is dictated by the: a. Constant region of heavy chain b. Constant region of light chain c. Constant region of heavy and light chains d. Variable regions of heavy and light chains

c. Constant region of heavy and light chains

Unique amino acid sequence that is common to all immunoglobulin molecules of a given class in a given species: a. Isotype b. Allotype c. Idiotype d. None of the above

a. Isotype

All antigen-antibody binding are: a. Reversible b. Irreversible c. Reversible or irreversible d. None of the above

a. Reversible

All of the following are immunologic functions of complement, except: a. Induction of an antiviral state b. Opsonization c. Chemotaxis d. Anaphylatoxin formation

a. Induction of an antiviral state

After the attachment of organism into the phagocyte, the pseudopodia surrounds the pathogen, after which the pseudopodia fuse to completely enclose the pathogen, forming a structure known as? a. Lysosome b. Phagolysosome c. Phagosome d. None of the above

c. Phagosome

Which of the following cytokine is also known as the T-cell growth factor? a. IFN-gamma b. IL-12 c. IL-2 d. IL-10

c. IL-2

Which would be the best assay to measure a specific cytokine? a. Blast formation b. T-cell proliferation c. Measurement of leukocyte chemotaxis d. ELISA testing

d. ELISA testing

The classical complement pathway is activated by: a. Most viruses b. Antigen-antibody complexes c. Fungal cell walls d. Mannose in bacterial cell walls

b. Antigen-antibody complexes

Which would be most effective in measuring an individual complement component? a. CH50 assay b. Radial immunodiffusion c. AH50 assay d. Lytic assay with liposome

b. Radial immunodiffusion

Which best characterizes the secondary response? a. Equal amounts of IgM and IgG are produced b. There is an increase in IgM only c. There is a large increase in IgG but not IgM d. The lag phase is the same as in the primary response.

c. There is a large increase in IgG but not Ig

When soluble antigens diffuse in a gel that contains antibody, in which zone does OPTIMUM precipitation occur? a. Prozone b. Zone of equivalence c. Postzone d. Prezone

b. Zone of equivalence

Which technique represents a single-diffusion reaction? a. Radial immunodiffusion b. Ouchterlony diffusion c. Immunoelectrophoresis d. immunofixation electrophoresis

a. Radial immunodiffusion

How much diluent needs to be added to 0.2 mL of serum to make a 1:20 dilution? a. 19.8 mL b. 4.0 mL c. 3.8 mL d. 10.0 mL

c. 3.8 mL

Testing ANA have been helpful in: a. SLE detection b. RA detection c. Leukemia detection d. Hemolytic anemia detection

a. SLE detection

Which of the following would be considered an organ-specific autoimmune disease? a. SLE b. RA c. GPA d. Hashimoto’s thyroiditis

d. Hashimoto’s thyroiditis

Which of the following would support a diagnosis of drug-induced lupus? a. Antihistone antibodies b. Antibodies to Smith antigen c. Presence of RF d. Antibodies to SS-A and SS-B antigens

a. Antihistone antibodies

A peripheral pattern of staining of the nucleus on IIF is caused by which of the following antibodies? a. Anti-Sm antibody b. Anti-SSA/Ro antibody c. Centromere antibody d. Anti-dsDNA

d. Anti-dsDNA

Anti-CCP (cyclic citrullinated proteins) is specifically associated with which autoimmune disease? a. RA b. MG c. Autoimmune hepatitis d. Goodpasture’s syndrome

a. RA

Anti-glomerular basement antibody is most often associated with this condition: a. Goodpasture disease b. SLE c. Celiac disease d. Chronic active hepatitis

a. Goodpasture disease

To determine if a patient is allergic to rye grass, the best to perform is the: a. Total IgE b. Skin prick test c. DAT d. Complement fixation

b. Skin prick test

Suppose a 30-year-old man was found to be a suitable donor for a kidney transplant to his younger sister. This transplant would be an example of a (an): a. Autograft b. Allograft c. Isograft d. Xenograft

b. Allograft

Which of the following is being described? *One of the several types of cell surface molecules that regulate the activity of NK lymphocytes *These alloreactive NK cells have been shown to mediate GRAFT-VERSUS-LEUKEMIA (GVL) reaction. a. KO b. MICA c. KIRs d. HLA

c. KIRs

Tumor markers found in the circulation are most frequently measure by: a. Immunoassays b. TLC c. HPLC d. Colorimetry

a. Immunoassays

What clinical manifestation would be seen in a patient with myeloperoxidase deficiency? a. Defective T-cell function b. Inability to produce IgG c. Defective NK function d. Defective neutrophil function

d. Defective neutrophil function

What is the best specimen for detection of latent syphilis? a. Blood b. Serum c. CSF d. Bone marrow

c. CSF

Which test is recommended for testing CSF for detection of neurosyphilis? a. RPR b. VDRL c. FTA-ABS d. Enzyme immunoassay

b. VDRL

Which serum antibody response usually characterizes the primary (early) stage of syphilis? a. Antibodies against syphilis are undetectable b. Detected 1–3 weeks after appearance of the primary chancre c. Detected in 50% of cases before the primary chancre disappears d. Detected within 2 weeks after infection

b. Detected 1–3 weeks after appearance of the primary chancre

Which CD4:CD8 ratio is most likely in a patient with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)? a. 2:1 b. 3:1 c. 2:3 d. 1:2

d. 1:2

Which tests are considered screening tests for HIV? a. ELISA, 4th generation, and rapid antibody tests b. Immunofluorescence, Western blot, radioimmunoprecipitation assay c. Culture, antigen capture assay, DNA amplification d. Reverse transcriptase and messenger RNA (mRNA) assay

a. ELISA, 4th generation, and rapid antibody tests

Which tests are considered confirmatory tests for HIV? a. ELISA and rapid antibody tests b. Western blot test, HIC-1,2 differentiation assays, and polymerase chain reaction c. Culture, antigen capture assay, polymerase chain reaction d. Reverse transcriptase and mRNA assay

b. Western blot test, HIC-1,2 differentiation assays, and polymerase chain reaction

Which is most likely a positive Western blot result for infection with HIV? a. Band at p24 b. Band at gp60 c. Bands at p24 and p31 d. Bands at p24 and gp120

d. Bands at p24 and gp120 To be considered positive b

Interpret the following results for HIV infection: ELISA POSITIVE Repeat ELISA NEGATIVE Western blot NO BANDS a. Positive for HIV b. Negative for HIV c. Indeterminate d. Further testing needed

b. Negative for HIV

The method of choice for detecting VZV infection in immunocompromised hosts is: a. Serology to detect virus-specific IgM antibodies b. Serology to detect virus-specific IgG antibodies c. Viral culture d. Real-time PCR

d. Real-time PCR

The serum of an individual who received all doses of the hepatitis B vaccine should contain: a. anti-HBs b. anti-HBe c. anti-HBc d. All of the above

a. anti-HBs

An individual with hepatomegaly, jaundice, and elevated liver enzymes has the following laboratory results: IgM anti-HAV negative, HBsAg (positive), IgM anti-HBc (positive), and anti-HCV (negative). These findings support a diagnosis of: a. Hepatitis A b. Acute hepatitis B c. Chronic hepatitis B d. Hepatitis C

b. Acute hepatitis B

Interpretation of Hepatitis B panel: HBsAg negative Anti-HBc positive Anti-HBs positive a. Acutely infected b. Immune because of natural infection c. Immune because of hepatitis B vaccination d. Might be susceptible to a false-positive anti-HBc Immune status Anti-HBs Anti-HB

b. Immune because of natural infection

In the streptozyme test, the RBCs of what organism are coated with streptolysin, streptokinase, hyaluronidase, DNase, and NADase? a. Horse b. Human c. Sheep d. Rabbit

c. Sheep

In the RPR procedure, place the card on the rotator and rotate the card for: a. 100 RPM, 8 minutes b. 200 RPM, 8 minutes c. 100 RPM, 4 minutes d. 200 RPM, 4 minutes

a. 100 RPM, 8 minutes

Current recommendation include the combined detection of mannan and anti-mannan antibodies for the specific identification of? a. Aspergillus species b. Candida species c. Cryptococcus species d. None of the above

b. Candida species

The detection of galactomannan in serum by EIA has increased the ability to diagnose invasive: a. Aspergillus species b. Candida species c. Cryptococcus species d. None of the above

a. Aspergillus species

In congenital toxoplasmosis, which class of antibodies is the most sensitive in detecting infection? a. IgA b. IgG c. IgM d. IgE

a. IgA

Most the pathology associated with parasitic infections results form which of the following? a. Symbiotic relationships with the host b. Elaborate parasitic life cycles c. Immune response to the offending organism d. Innate defense mechanisms of the host

c. Immune response to the offending organism

The chronic nature of parasitic infections is due to the host’s: a. Inability to eliminate the infective agent b. Type I hypersensitivity response to the infection c. Ability to form granuloma around the parasite d. Tendency to form circulating immune complexes

a. Inability to eliminate the infective agen

other names parasitology

Yves Laure Pimentel · 70問 · 2年前

other names parasitology