CLINICAL MICROSCOPY

6回閲覧 • 50問 • 1年前

問題一覧

Each kidney has approximately how many nephrons? a. 0.5 to 1 million b. 1 to 1.5 million c. 700 to 800 thousand d. 0.5 to 1 million

b. 1 to 1.5 million

How do you instruct a patient for the collection of a 24-hour urine specimen? a. At the start time, patient empties bladder into the toilet, collect the rest of urine until the end time. b. At the start time, patient collects the urine, collects the rest of the urine, but empties bladder into the toilet at the end time. c. At the start time, patient empties bladder into the toilet, collects the rest of the urine, then empties bladder into the toilet at the end time. d. Patient collect all the urine from start time to end time.

a. At the start time, patient empties bladder into the toilet, collect the rest of urine until the end time.

Urine becomes _____ when there is high intake of proteins. a. Alkaline b. Diluted c. Concentrated d. Acidic

d. Acidic

Mousy odor: a. PKU b. Methionine malabsorption c. MSUD d. Renal tubular necrosis e. Starvation

a. PKU

Rotten Galunggong odor of urine: a. Isovaleric acidemia b. Trimethylaminuria c. Hawkinsinuria d. Urinary tract infection

b. Trimethylaminuria

The following factors are used in MDRD, EXCEPT: a. BUN b. Body weight c. Age d. Sex

b. Body weight

Which of the following is NOT measured in ketone testing of urine? a. Acetoacetic acid b. Acetone c. Beta-hydroxybutyrate d. None of the above

c. Beta-hydroxybutyrate

Ketones are seen in urine because of: a. High carbohydrate diet b. Low carbohydrate diet c. Protein consumption d. Fatty acid consumption

c. Protein consumption

What confirmatory test is used in determining bilirubin in urine? a. Clinitest b. Ictotest c. Acetest d. Bilitest

b. Ictotest

What principle lies behind the reagent strip for protein? a. Albumin accepts hydroxyl ions from the indicator b. Indicator accepts hydroxyl ions from the albumin c. Albumin accepts hydrogen ions from the indicator d. Indicator accepts hydrogen ions from the albumin

c. Albumin accepts hydrogen ions from the indicator

Which of the following is a component of Benedict’s test? a. Sodium sulfate b. Copper citrate c. Copper hydroxide d. Copper sulfate

d. Copper sulfate

What forms the initial image of the specimen in light microscopy? a. Objectives b. Revolving nosepiece c. Diopter rings d. Eyepiece

a. Objectives

Which of the following tests for urine is thorough mixing of urine a critical step? a. pH and specific gravity b. Bilirubin and urobilinogen c. Blood and leukocyte esterase d. None of the above

c. Blood and leukocyte esterase

What stain is used for hemosiderin granules? a. Hansel stain - b. Gram stain c. Sternheimer malbin stain d. Perl’s Prussian blue

d. Perl’s Prussian blue

Perl’s Prussian blue stain is made of? a. 1% aqueous potassium ferricyanide and 2% aqueous hydrochloric acid b. 2% aqueous potassium ferricyanide and 1% aqueous hydrochloric acid c. 3% aqueous potassium ferricyanide and 1% aqueous hydrochloric acid d. 4% aqueous potassium ferricyanide and 1% aqueous hydrochloric acid

a. 1% aqueous potassium ferricyanide and 2% aqueous hydrochloric acid

Differentiation among RBCs, yeast, and oil droplets may be accomplished by all of the following, EXCEPT: a. Observation of budding in yeast cells b. Increased refractility of oil droplets c. Lysis of yeast cells by acetic acid d. Lysis of RBCs by acetic acid

c. Lysis of yeast cells by acetic acid

When the sediment is examined unstained, many sediment constituents have a refractive index similar to urine. Therefore, it is essential that sediments be examined under _____ light when using bright-field microscopy. a. Bright b. Polarized c. Reduced d. Polychromatic

c. Reduced

Which of the following results need a rerun? a. Ketones from patient suspected of starvation b. Glucose from patient who is type 2 diabetic c. Urate crystals seen at pH 5 d. Hyaline and WBC casts at pH 8

d. Hyaline and WBC casts at pH 8

Which of the following is not a shape of a transitional epithelial cell? a. Caudate b. Convoluted c. Spherical d. Polyhedral

b. Convoluted

The most valuable initial aid for identifying crystals in a urine specimen is: a. pH b. Solubility c. Staining d. Polarized microscopy

a. pH

All are factors affecting the formation of urinary crystals, EXCEPT: a. pH b. Solute concentration c. Temperature d. Protein concentration

a. pH

All are factors affecting the formation of urinary crystals, EXCEPT: a. pH b. Solute concentration c. Temperature d. Protein concentration

d. Protein concentration

Hexagonal plate crystal: a. Triple phosphate b. Calcium oxalate c. Cystine d. Tyrosine

c. Cystine

The following may lead to increased uric acid in urine, EXCEPT: a. Gouty arthritis b. Chemotherapy c. Renal disease d. High intake of legumes

c. Renal disease

What is the defining characteristic of cholesterol crystals? a. Plates with notched ends b. Needle shape c. Rhomboid shape d. Hexagonal shape

a. Plates with notched ends

A structure is believed to be an oval fat body produced a maltase cross formation under polarized light but it does not stain with Sudan III. The structure: a. Contains cholesterol b. It is not an oval fat body c. Contains neutral fat d. It is contaminated with immersion oil

a. Contains cholesterol

Dysmorphic RBCs are indicative of: a. Schistosoma infection b. Glomerular bleeding c. Bladder cancer d. Interstitial nephritis

b. Glomerular bleeding

Antiglomerular basement membrane antibody is observed with: a. Henoch-Schoenlein Purpura b. Acute glomerulonephritis c. Goodpasture syndrome d. Wegener’s granulomatosis

c. Goodpasture syndrome

Pyelonephritis can be differentiated from cystitis by the presence of: a. Eosinophils b. Hyaline cast c. White blood cell cast d. Bacteriuria

c. White blood cell cast

Leaving excess urine on the reagent strip after removing it from the specimen will: a. Cause runover between reagent pads b. Alter the color of the specimen c. Cause reagents to leach from pads d. Not affect the chemical reactions

a. Cause runover between reagent pads

n performing a sulfosalicylic acid precipitation test, all of the following is done, EXCEPT: a. Using uncentrifuged urine b. Using centrifuged urine c. Use 3 mL of urine d. Use 3% SSA as the reagent

a. Using uncentrifuged urine

In UF-1000i analyzer, the following parameters are used in categorizing urine particles, EXCEPT: a. Forward scatter b. Diameter analysis c. Impedance d. Adaptive cluster

b. Diameter analysis

Which of the following are main particles enumerated by UF-1000i? (I) RBC (IV) Hyaline cast (II) WBC (V) Bacteria (III) Epithelial cells a. I, II, III, IV, and V b. I, II, III, and IV c. I, II, and III d. I and II

a. I, II, III, IV, and V

Which differentiates CSF protein from serum protein: a. Presence of ceruloplasmin b. Presence of fibrinogen c. Absence of fibrinogen d. Presence of IgG

c. Absence of fibrinogen

Which CSF tube goes to the CC section? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4

a. 1

Which of the following is correct in performing CSF differential count? a. CSF is diluted and counted using a hemacytometer b. Performed on a stained smear c. CSF is counted undiluted using a hemacytometer d. Performed directly in a clean glass slide

b. Performed on a stained smear

Which of the following would be value of CSF glucose if blood glucose level is 120 mg/dL? a. 120 mg/dL b. 110 mg/dL c. 45 mg/dL d. 72 mg/dL

d. 72 mg/dL

The following results of CSF analysis indicate: CSF protein Increased CSF lactate Normal CSF glucose Normal

c. Viral meningitis

The mucin clot test determines the presence of synovial fluid: a. Protein b. Glucose c. Fibrinogen d. Hyaluronic acid

d. Hyaluronic acid

What is the other term used for mucin clot test? a. Barbiero test b. Rivalta test b. String test d. Rope’s test

d. Rope’s test

Sperms are produced in what region: a. Prostate gland b. Testes c. Seminal vesicles d. Epididymis

b. Testes

Which of the following produces pepsinogen? a. Parietal cells b. Chief cells c. G cells d. Foveolar cells

b. Chief cells

The following are causes of oligohydramnios, EXCEPT: a. Membrane leakage b. Increase fetal swallowing c. Urinary tract deformation d. Neural tube defects

d. Neural tube defects

Amniotic fluid is a specimen of choice for the following, EXCEPT: a. Test for neural tube defect b. Test for fetal lung maturity c. Test for fetal distress d. Test for fetal liver

d. Test for fetal liver

Pleural fluid is collected by: a. Pleurocentesis b. Thoracentesis c. Lungocentesis d. Paracentesis

b. Thoracentesis

The pathologic accumulation of fluid in a body cavity is called: a. An effusion b. An abscess c. A hemorrhage d. None of the above

a. An effusion

Which of the following is NOT acceptable for specimen collection: a. Abstain for 4 days for sperm collection b. Avoid refrigerating samples for synovial fluid analysis c. Put CSF in tube 2 for microbial analysis d. Wrap the stool in a newspaper after collection

d. Wrap the stool in a newspaper after collection

Orange droplets seen on direct microscopic examination of stools mixed with Sudan III represents: a. Cholesterol b. Fatty acids c. Soaps d. Neutral fats

d. Neutral fats

Secretory diarrhea is caused by: a. Antibiotic administration b. Lactose intolerance c. Celiac sprue d. V. cholerae

d. V. cholerae

What is the significance of an APT test that remains pink after the addition of NaOH? a. Maternal hemoglobin is present b. Fetal hemoglobin is present c. Fecal trypsin is present d. Vitamin C is present

b. Fetal hemoglobin is present

other names parasitology

Yves Laure Pimentel · 70問 · 2年前

other names parasitology