POPCORN

100問 • 1年前

問題一覧

Which in vitro test measures IgE levels against a specific allergen? A. Histamine release assay B. Radioimmunosorbent test (RIST) C. Fluorescent allergosorbent test (FAST) D. Precipitin radioimmunosorbent test (PRIST)

C. Fluorescent allergosorbent test (FAST)

What immune elements are involved in a positive skin test for tuberculosis? A. IgE antibodies B. T cells and macrophages C. NK cells and IgG antibody D. B cells and IgM antibody

B. T cells and macrophages

An 18-month-old boy has recurrent sinopulmonary infections and septicemia. Bruton’s X-linked immunodeficiency syndrome is suspected. Which test result would be markedly decreased? A. Serum IgG, IgA, and IgM B. Total T-cell count C. Both B- and T-cell counts D. Lymphocyte proliferation with phytohemagglutinin stimulation

A. Serum IgG, IgA, and IgM

A patient with joint swelling and pain tested negative for serum RF by both latex agglutination and ELISA methods. What other test would help establish a diagnosis of RA in this patient? A. Anti CCP B. ANA testing C. Flow cytometry D. Complement levels

A. Anti CCP

Which of the following conditions will most likely result in a false-negative DAT test? A. Insufficient washing of RBCs B. Use of heavy chain–specific polyclonalanti-human Ig C. Use of excessive centrifugal force D. Use of a sample obtained by finger puncture

A. Insufficient washing of RBCs

How many antigen-binding sites does a typical IgM molecule have? A. 2 B. 4 C. 6 D. 10

D. 10

Which antibody is best at agglutination and complement fixation? A. IgA B. IgG C. IgD D. IgM

D. IgM

The subclasses of IgG differ mainly in: A. The type of L chain. B. The arrangement of disulfide bonds. C. The ability to act as opsonins. D. Molecular weight.

B. The arrangement of disulfide bonds.

All of the following are true of IgE except that it: A. Fails to fix complement. B. Is heat stable. C. Attaches to tissue mast cells. D. Is found in the serum of allergic persons.

B. Is heat stable.

Which represents the main function of IgD? A. Protection of the mucous membranes B. Removal of antigens by complement fixation C. Enhancing proliferation of B cells D. Destruction of parasitic worms

C. Enhancing proliferation of B cells

The ability of a single cytokine to alter the expression of several genes is called: A. Redundancy. B. Pleiotropy. C. Autocrine stimulation. D. Endocrine effect

B. Pleiotropy.

Mannose-binding protein in the lectin pathway is most similar to which classical pathway component? A. C3 B. C1rs C. C1q D. C4

C. C1q

Individuals with a _________ are prone to developing severe, recurrent life-threatening infections with encapsulated bacteria such as Streptococcus pneumoniae and may also be subject to immune complex diseases; such complexes can lodge in the kidney and result in glomerulonephritis: A. C1 deficiency B. C2 deficiency C. C3 deficiency D. C5 deficiency

C. C3 deficiency

What is the immune phenomenon associated with the Arthus reaction? A. Tissue destruction by cytotoxic T cells B. Removal of antibody-coated RBCs C. Deposition of immune complexes in blood vessels D. Release of histamine from mast cells

C. Deposition of immune complexes in blood vessels

Which autoantibodies are strongly associated with granulomatosis with polyangiitis (Wegener’s granulomatosis)? A. ANA B. ANCA C. AMA D. SMA

B. ANCA

Anti-CCP (cyclic citrullinated proteins) is specifically associated with which autoimmune disease? A. RA B. MG C. Autoimmune hepatitis D. Goodpasture’s syndrome

A. RA

A 24-year-old man who had just recovered from infectious mononucleosis had evidence of a genital lesion. His RPR test was positive. What should the technologist do next? A. Report out as false positive. B. Do a confirmatory treponemal test. C. Do a VDRL. D. Have the patient return in 2 weeks for a repeat test

B. Do a confirmatory treponemal test.

1. What could be the possible interpretation? • HBsAg: negative • Anti-HBc: positive • Anti-HBs: positive A. Recovering from acute HBV infection B. Immune because of natural infection C. Immune because of hepatitis B vaccination D. Chronically infected

B. Immune because of natural infection

What could be the possible interpretation? • HBsAg: negative • Anti-HBc: negative • Anti-HBs: positive A. Recovering from acute HBV infection B. Immune because of natural infection C. Immune because of hepatitis B vaccination D. Chronically infected

C. Immune because of hepatitis B vaccination

Which of the following combinations of bands would represent a positive Western blot for HIV antibody? A. p24 and p55 B. p24 and p31 C. gp41 and gp120 D. p31 and p55

C. gp41 and gp120

The fourth-generation ELISA tests for HIV detect: A. HIV-1 and HIV-2 antigens. B. HIV-1 and HIV-2 antibodies. C. p24 antigen. D. HIV-1 antibodies, HIV-2 antibodies, and p24 antigen

D. HIV-1 antibodies, HIV-2 antibodies, and p24 antigen

Suppose an individual develops antibodies in response to a streptococcal pharyngitis infection. This is an example of A. Active immunity. B. Passive immunity. C. Adoptive immunity. D. Immunoprophylaxis.

A. Active immunity.

The antigenic component of the hepatitis B vaccine differs from those of many of the conventional vaccines in that it consists of a: A. Live, attenuated virus. B. Inactivated virus. C. Cryptic antigen. D. Recombinant antigen.

D. Recombinant antigen.

A DPT vaccination is an example of: A. Active humoral-mediated immunity B. Passive humoral-mediated immunity C. Cell-mediated immunity D. Immediate hypersensitivity

A. Active humoral-mediated immunity

Which component is needed for a thermal cycler to amplify DNA? A. Programmable heating and cooling unit B. Vacuum chamber with zero head space C. Sealed airtight constant-temperature chamber D. Temperature-controlled ionization chamber

A. Programmable heating and cooling unit

What is the normal ratio of bicarbonate to dissolved carbon dioxide (HCO3–:dCO2) in arterial blood? A. 1:10 B. 10:1 C. 20:1 D. 30:1

C. 20:1

Select the anticoagulant of choice for blood gas studies. A. Sodium citrate 3.2% B. Lithium heparin 100 U/mL blood C. Sodium citrate 3.8% D. Ammonium oxalate 5.0%

B. Lithium heparin 100 U/mL blood

Which electrolyte level best correlates with plasma osmolality? A. Sodium B. Chloride C. Bicarbonate D. Calcium

A. Sodium

Which of the following biochemical processes is promoted by insulin? A. Glycogenolysis B. Gluconeogenesis C. Lipolysis D. Uptake of glucose by cells

D. Uptake of glucose by cells

Which of the following is the reference method for measuring serum glucose? A. Somogyi–Nelson B. Hexokinase C. Glucose oxidase D. Glucose dehydrogenase

B. Hexokinase

Select the coupling enzyme used in the hexokinase method for glucose. A. Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase B. Peroxidase C. Glucose dehydrogenase D. Glucose-6-phosphatase

A. Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase

Bilirubin is transported from reticuloendothelial cells to the liver by: A. Albumin B. Bilirubin-binding globulin C. Haptoglobin D. Transferrin

A. Albumin

Which of the following would cause an increase in only the unconjugated bilirubin? A. Hemolytic anemia B. Obstructive jaundice C. Hepatitis D. Hepatic cirrhosis

A. Hemolytic anemia

Which form of hyperbilirubinemia is caused by an inherited absence of UDP-glucuronyl transferase? A. Gilbert’s syndrome B. Rotor syndrome C. Crigler–Najjar syndrome D. Dubin–Johnson syndrome

C. Crigler–Najjar syndrome

What substance may be measured as an alternative to creatinine for evaluating GFR? A. Plasma urea B. Cystatin C C. Uric acid D. Potassium

B. Cystatin C

Urea is produced from: A. The catabolism of proteins and amino acids B. Oxidation of purines C. Oxidation of pyrimidines D. The breakdown of complex carbohydrates

A. The catabolism of proteins and amino acids

Blood ammonia levels are usually measured in order to evaluate: A. Renal failure B. Acid–base status C. Hepatic coma D. Gastrointestinal malabsorption

C. Hepatic coma

Hyperalbuminemia is caused by: A. Dehydration syndromes B. Liver disease C. Burns D. Gastroenteropathy

A. Dehydration syndromes

Which of the following conditions is associated with “β-γ bridging”? A. Multiple myeloma B. Malignancy C. Hepatic cirrhosis D. Rheumatoid arthritis

C. Hepatic cirrhosis

Which serum protein should be measured in a patient suspected of having Wilson’s disease? A. Hemopexin B. Alpha-1 antitrypsin C. Haptoglobin D. Ceruloplasmin

D. Ceruloplasmin

The protein composition of HDL is what percentage by weight? A. Less than 2% B. 25% C. 50% D. 90%

C. 50%

In familial β dyslipoproteinemia (formerly type III hyperlipoproteinemia), which lipoprotein accumulates? A. Chylomicrons B. VLDL C. IDL D. VLDL

C. IDL

An international unit (IU) of enzyme activity is the quantity of enzyme that: A. Converts 1 μmol of substrate to product per liter B. Forms 1 mg of product per deciliter C. Converts 1 μmol of substrate to product per minute D. Forms 1 μmol of product per liter

C. Converts 1 μmol of substrate to product per minute

Which of the following enzymes is considered most tissue specific? A. Creatine kinase (CK) B. Amylase C. Alkaline phosphatase (ALP) D. Alcohol dehydrogenase (ADH)

D. Alcohol dehydrogenase (ADH)

Which of the following enzymes is a transferase? A. ALP B. CK C. Amylase D. LD

B. CK

Which of the following enzymes is activated by calcium ions A. CK B. Amylase C. ALP D. LD

B. Amylase

Beer’s law is expressed as A = abc 1. A (capital A) in Beer's law is: A. Absorbance B. Absorptivity constant C. Concentration D. Length of light path

A. Absorbance

. a (small a) in Beer's law is: A. Absorbance B. Absorptivity constant C. Concentration D. Length of light path

B. Absorptivity constant

b (small b) in Beer's law is: A. Absorbance B. Absorptivity constant C. Concentration D. Length of light path

D. Length of light path

c (small c) in Beer's law is: A. Absorbance B. Absorptivity constant C. Concentration D. Length of light path

C. Concentration

Nephelometry is based on the measurement of light that is: A. Absorbed by particles in suspension B. Scattered by particles in suspension C. Produced by fluorescence D. Produced by excitation of ground-state atoms

B. Scattered by particles in suspension

When measuring K+ with an ion-selective electrode by means of a liquid ion-exchange membrane, what antibiotic will be incorporated into the membrane? A. Monactin B. Nonactin C. Streptomycin D. Valinomycin

D. Valinomycin

When quantifying serum total proteins, upon what is the intensity of the color produced in the biuret reaction dependent? A. Molecular weight of the protein B. Acidity of the medium C. Number of peptide bonds D. Nitrogen content of the protein

C. Number of peptide bonds

Which term describes a congenital disorder that is characterized by a split in the albumin band when serum is subjected to electrophoresis? A. Analbuminemia B. Anodic albuminemia C. Prealbuminemia D. Bisalbuminemia

D. Bisalbuminemia

In serum protein electrophoresis, when a barbital buffer of pH 8.6 is employed, what protein fraction will migrate the fastest toward the anode? A. Albumin B. Alpha1-globulin C. Beta-globulin D. Gamma-globulin

A. Albumin

Which of the following disorders is NOT associated with an elevated blood ammonia level? A. Reye syndrome B. Renal failure C. Chronic liver failure D. Diabetes mellitus

D. Diabetes mellitus

Which of the following hormones does not promote an increase in blood glucose levels? A. Growth hormone B. Cortisol C. Glucagon D. Insulin

D. Insulin

As part of a routine physical, a fasting plasma glucose is performed on a 45-year-old male and the test result is 105 mg/dL. How should this individual be classified? A. Normal for his age B. Impaired fasting glucose C. Type 1 diabetes mellitus D. Type 2 diabetes mellitus

B. Impaired fasting glucose

Laboratory tests are performed on a postmenopausal, 57-year-old female as part of an annual physical examination. The patient's casual plasma glucose is 220 mg/dL, and the glycated hemoglobin (Hb A1C) is 11%. Based on this information, how should the patient be classified? A. Normal glucose tolerance B. Impaired glucose tolerance C. Gestational diabetes mellitus D. Type 2 diabetes mellitus

D. Type 2 diabetes mellitus

What substance is the precursor to all steroid hormones? A. Fatty acid B. Cholesterol C. Triglyceride D. Phospholipid

B. Cholesterol

A patient's total cholesterol is 300 mg/dL, his HDL cholesterol is 50 mg/dL, and his triglyceride is 200 mg/dL. What is this patient's calculated LDL cholesterol? A. 200 B. 210 C. 290 D. 350

B. 210

To what class of enzymes does lactate dehydrogenase belong? A. Isomerases B. Ligases C. Oxidoreductases D. Transferases

C. Oxidoreductases

Cholinesterase levels are generally assayed to aid in diagnosis of: A. Pancreatitis B. Methamphetamine overdose C. Organophosphate poisoning D. Hepatobiliary disease

C. Organophosphate poisoning

In pesticide poisoning, cholinesterase activity is: A. Normal B. Decreased C. Increased D. Variable

B. Decreased

Which of the following decreases in liver disease? A. ALP B. ALT C. LD D. Cholinesterase

D. Cholinesterase

If elevated, which laboratory test would support a diagnosis of congestive heart failure? A. Homocysteine B. Troponin C. Albumin cobalt binding D. B-type natriuretic peptide

D. B-type natriuretic peptide

In ketoacidosis, the anion gap would most likely to be affected in what way? A. Unchanged from normal B. Increased C. Decreased D. Balanced

B. Increased

An elevated anion gap may be caused by all of the following except: A. Uremia/renal failure B. Ketoacidosis in case of starvation or diabetes C. Alcohol or salicylate poisoning D. Hypoalbuminemia

D. Hypoalbuminemia

Which of the following conditions will cause an increased anion gap? A. Diarrhea B. Hypoaldosteronism C. Hyperkalemia D. Renal failure

D. Renal failure

Calculation of the anion gap is useful for quality control for: A. Calcium B. Tests in the electrolyte profile (sodium, potassium, chloride, and bicarbonate) C. Phosphorus D. Magnesium

B. Tests in the electrolyte profile (sodium, potassium, chloride, and bicarbonate)

Which of the following blood gas disorders is most commonly associated with an abnormal anion gap? A. Metabolic acidosis B. Metabolic alkalosis C. Respiratory acidosis D. Respiratory alkalosis

A. Metabolic acidosis

Laboratory examination of a 46-year-old male who presents with decreasing vision and photophobia finds a high anion–gap metabolic acidosis. These findings are most consistent with this individual having ingested: A. Cadmium B. Nickel C. Mercury D. Cobalt E. Methanol

E. Methanol

Identify the result that is NOT electrolyte balanced. (compute the anion gap, results are in mmol/L) A. Na+ 125, K+ 4.5, Cl- 100, CO2 content 10 B. Na+ 135, K+ 3.5, Cl- 95, CO2 content 28 C. Na+ 145, K+ 4.0, Cl- 90, CO2 content 15 D. Na+ 150, K+ 5.0, Cl- 110, CO2 content 30

C. Na+ 145, K+ 4.0, Cl- 90, CO2 content 15

In the Henderson-Hasselbalch equation, the numerator denotes _____ functions. A. Brain B. Pituitary C. Lung D. Kidney

D. Kidney

In the Henderson-Hasselbalch equation, the denominator denotes _____ functions. A. Brain B. Pituitary C. Lung D. Kidney

C. Lung

Which of the following is a marker for bone resorption? A. β-trace protein B. Adiponectin C. Fibronectin D. Crosslinked C-telopeptide

D. Crosslinked C-telopeptide

Which of the following is a marker for bone formation? A. Osteocalcin B. Tartrate resistant acid phosphatase (TRAP) C. Urinary pyridinoline and deoxypyridinoline D. Urinary C-telopeptide and N-telopeptide crosslinks (CTx and NTx)

A. Osteocalcin

As a cardiac biomarker, ________ has been used in conjunction with troponin to help diagnose or rule out a heart attack. A. BNP B. Myoglobin C. Troponin D. Adiponectin

B. Myoglobin

The “gold standard” in the diagnosis of acute coronary syndrome (ACS): A. Fibronectin B. Cystatin C C. Troponin D. β-Trace Protein

C. Troponin

The variants demonstrate a wide variety of cellular interactions including roles in cell adhesion, tissue differentiation, growth, and wound healing: A. Adiponectin B. Cystatin C. Fibronectin D. Troponin

C. Fibronectin

The protein present in vaginal secretions that can identify patients who are at risk for preterm delivery is: A. Human chorionic gonadotropin B. Estrogen C. PAMG-1 D. Fetal fibronectin

D. Fetal fibronectin

All of the following are immunologic functions of complement except: A. Induction of an antiviral state B. Opsonization C. Chemotaxis D. Anaphylatoxin formation

A. Induction of an antiviral state

IgA in serum: A. Monomer B. Dimer C. Pentamer D. Any of these

A. Monomer

IgA in secretion: A. Monomer B. Dimer C. Pentamer D. Any of these

B. Dimer

AUTOFLUORESCENCE requires no stain and is recommended for the identification of: A. Entamoeba histolytica cysts B. Toxoplasma gondii tachyzoites C. Dientamoeba fragilis trophozoites D. Cyclospora cayetanensis oocysts

D. Cyclospora cayetanensis oocysts

It is used to determine whether there is a statistically significant difference between the standard deviations of two groups of data. A. f test B. t test C. Variance D. Standard deviation index

A. f test

It is used to determine whether there is statistically significant difference between the means of two groups of data. A. f test B. t test C. Variance D. Standard deviation index

B. t test

Which of the following tumor markers is used to monitor persons with breast cancer for recurrence of disease? A. Cathepsin-D B. CA-15-3 C. Retinoblastoma gene D. Estrogen receptor (ER)

B. CA-15-3

Which tumor marker is used to determine the usefulness of TRASTUZUMAB (HERCEPTIN) therapy for breast cancer? A. PR B. CEA C. HER-2/neu D. Myc

C. HER-2/neu

What is the confirmatory method for measuring drugs of abuse? A. HPLC B. Enzyme-multiplied immunoassay technique(EMIT) C. Gas chromatography with mass spectroscopy(GC-MS) D. TLC

C. Gas chromatography with mass spectroscopy(GC-MS)

Hepatocellular damage may be best assessed by which of the following parameters? A. Serum AST and ALT levels B. GGT and ALP C. Bilirubin, GGT, and ALP D. Ammonia and urea

A. Serum AST and ALT levels

Which of the following analytes is the best indicator of hepatobiliary damage? A. AST B. ALT C. ALP D. Bilirubin

C. ALP

Methylenedioxymethamphetamine (MDMA) or commonly known as: A. Cannabis B. Shabu C. Meth D. Ecstasy

D. Ecstasy

Which of the following is the reference method for measuring serum glucose? A. Somogyi–Nelson B. Hexokinase C. Glucose oxidase D. Glucose dehydrogenase

B. Hexokinase

Which substance has the longest detection time? A. Amphetamines B. Cocaine C. Benzodiazepines D. Marijuana

D. Marijuana

Which region of the immunoglobulin molecule can bind antigen? A. Fab B. Fc C. CL D. CH

A. Fab

Which region determines whether an immunoglobulin molecule can fix complement? A. VH B. CH C. VL D. CL

B. CH

Class I includes HLA-________ antigens. A. A,B and C B. B, C and D C. DR, DC(DQ), and A D. DR, DC(DQ), and SB

A. A,B and C

Which of the following are products of HLA class III genes? A. T-cell immune receptors B. HLA-D antigens on immune cells C. Complement proteins C2, C4, and Factor B D. Immunoglobulin VL regions

C. Complement proteins C2, C4, and Factor B

100

There is a strong association between ankylosing spondylitis and: A. HLA-B27 B. HLA-DR3 C. HLA-DR4 D. HLA-A3 E. HLA-BW47

A. HLA-B27

other names parasitology

Yves Laure Pimentel · 70問 · 2年前

other names parasitology