CHECK 4 BOXES: Variables in the Cockroft and Gault formula.

CHECK 6 BOXES: Variables in the MODIFICATION OF DIET IN RENAL DISEASE (MDRD) formula.

In the urinalysis laboratory the primary source in the chain of infection would be: * 1/1 Patients Needlesticks Specimens Biohardous wastes

All of the following should be discarded in biohazardous waste containers except: * 1/1 Urine specimen containers Towels used for decontamination Disposable lab coats Blood collection tubes

An acceptable disinfectant for blood and body fluid decontamination is: * 1/1 Sodium hydroxide Antimicrobial soap Hydrogen peroxide Sodium hypochlorite

Centrifuging an uncapped specimen may produce a biologic hazard in the form of: * 1/1 Vectors Sharps contamination Aerosols Specimen contamination

The first thing to do when a fire is discovered is to: * 1/1 Rescue person in danger Activate the alarm system Close doors to other areas Extinguish the fire if possible

If a red rash is observed after removing gloves, the employee: * 1/1 May be washing her hands too often May have developed a latex allergy Should apply cortisone cream Should not rub the hands so vigorously

The classification of a fire that can be extinguished with water is: * 1/1 Class A Class B Class C Class D

Employers are required to provide free immunization for: * 1/1 HIV HTLV-1 HBV HCV

The current routine infection control policy developed by CDC and followed in all health-care settings is: * 1/1 Universal precautions Isolation precautions Blood and body fluid precautions Standard precations

Which of the following would be least affected in a specimen that has remained unpreserved at room temperature for more than 2 hours? * 1/1 Urobilinogen Ketones Protein Nitrite

Which of the tubules is impermeable to water? * 1/1 Proximal convoluted tubule Descending loop of Henle Ascending loop of Henle Distal convoluted tubule

Decreased production of ADH: (two possible answers) * 0/1 Produces a large volume of urine Produces high urine volume Increases ammonia excretion Affects active transport of sodium

The largest source of error in creatinine clearance tests is: * 1/1 Secretion of creatinine Improperly timed urine specimens Refrigeration of the urine Time of collecting blood sampl

Variables that are included in the MDRD-IDSM estimated creatinine clearance calculations include all of the following except: * 1/1 Serum creatinine Weight Age Gender

A patient with a viscous orange specimen may have been: * 0/1 Treated for urinary tract infection Taking vitamin B Eating fresh carrots Taking antidepressants

Orange in alkaline urine, colorless in acid urine. 0/1 Phenazopyridine (Pyridium) Phenindione Methyldopa Metronidazole (Flagyl)

The principle of refractive index is to compare: * 0/1 Light velocity in solutions with light velocity in solids Light velocity in air with light velocity in solutions Light scattering by air with light scattering by solutions Light scattering by particles in solution

A specimen with a specific gravity of 1.001 would be considered: * 1/1 Hyposthenuric Not urine Hypersthenuric Isosthenuric

Leaving excess urine on the reagent strip after removing it from the specimen will: * 1/1 Cause run-over between reagent pads Alter the color of the specimen Cause reagents to leach from the pads Not affect the chemical reactions

Testing a refrigerated specimen that has not warmed to room temperature will adversely affect: * 0/1 Enzymatic reactions Dye-binding reactions Sodium nitroprusside reaction Diazo reactions

Quality control of reagent strips is performed: * 1/1 Using positive and negative controls When results are questionable At least once every 24 hours All of the above

All of the following are important to protect the integrity of reagent strips except: * 1/1 Removing the desiccant from the bottle Storing in an opaque bottle Storing at room temperature Resealing the bottle after removing a strip

A urine specimen with a pH of 9.0: * 1/1 Indicates metabolic acidosis Should be recollected May contain calcium oxalate crystals Is seen after drinking cranberry juice

The principle of the protein error of indicators reaction is that: * 0/1 Protein keeps the pH of the urine constant Albumin accepts hydrogen ions from the indicator Indicator accepts hydrogen ions from albumin Albumin changes the pH of the urine

Testing for microalbuminuria is valuable for early detection of kidney disease and monitoring patients with: * 1/1 Hypertension Diabetes mellitus Cardiovascular disease risk All of the above

The primary reason for performing a Clinitest is to: * 0/1 Check for high ascorbic acid levels Confirm a positive reagent strip glucose Check for newborn galactosuria Confirm a negative glucose reading

A speckled pattern on the blood pad of the reagent strip indicates: * 0/1 Hematuria Hemoglobinuria Myoglobinuria All of the above

An elevated urine bilirubin with a normal urobilinogen is indicative of: * 1/1 Cirrhosis Hemolytic disease Hepatitis Biliary obstruction

A positive nitrite test and a negative leukocyte esterase test is an indication of a: * 1/1 Dilute random specimen Specimen with lysed leukocytes Vaginal yeast infection Specimen older than 2 hours

Initial screening of the urine sediment is performed using an objective power of: * 0/1 4x 10x 40x 100x

Crenated RBCs are seen in urine that is: * 1/1 Hyposthenuric Hypersthenuric Highly acidic Highly alkaline

Differentiation among RBCs, yeast, and oil droplets maybe accomplished by all of the following except: * 1/1 Observation of budding in yeast cells Increased refractility of oil droplets Lysis of yeast cells by acetic acid Lysis of RBCs by acetic acid

When pyuria is detected in a urine sediment, the slide should be carefully checked for the presence of: * 1/1 RBCs Bacteria Hyaline casts Mucus

The largest cells in the urine sediment are: * 1/1 Squamous epithelial cells Urothelial epithelial cells Cuboidal epithelial cells Columnar epithelial cells

Following an episode of hemoglobinuria, RTE cells may contain: * 1/1 Bilirubin Hemosiderin granules Porphobilinogen Myoglobin

A structure believed to be an oval fat body produced a Maltese cross formation under polarized light but does not stain with Sudan III. The structure: * 1/1 Contains cholesterol Is not an oval fat body Contains neutral fats Is contaminated with immersion oil

The finding of yeast cells in the urine is commonly associated with: * 0/1 Cystitis Diabetes mellitus Pyelonephritis Liver disorders

All of the following contribute to urinary crystals formation except: * 0/1 Protein concentration pH Solute concentration Temperature

Casts and fibers can usually be differentiated using: * 1/1 Solubility characteristics Patient history Polarized light Fluorescent light

Three-dimensional images: * 1/1 Bright-field microscope Phase contrast microcope Interference contrast microscope Fluorescent microscope

Anti-neutrophilic cytoplasmic antibody is diagnostic for: * 1/1 IgA nephropathy Wegener granulomatosis Henoch-Schönlein purpura Goodpasture syndrome

The only protein produced by the kidney is: * 1/1 Albumin Uromodulin Uroprotein Globulin

The presence of renal tubular epithelial cells and casts is an indication of: * 1/1 Acute interstitial nephritis Chronic glomerulonephritis Minimal change disease Acute tubular necrosis

Urinalysis on a patient with severe back pain being evaluated for renal calculi would be most beneficial if it showed: * 0/1 Heavy proteinuria Low specific gravity Uric acid crystals Microscopic hematuria

False-positive levels of 5-HIAA can be caused by a diet high in: * 1/1 Meat Carbohydrates Starch Bananas

Which type of urine sample is needed for a D-xylose absorption test on an adult patient? * 1/1 24-hour urine sample collected with 20 mL of 6N HCl 2-hour timed postprandial urine preserved with boric acid 5-hour timed urine kept under refrigeration Random urine preserved with formalin

In automated microscopy, Sysmex UF series, the DNA within the cells is stained by the orange dye: * 1/1 Carbocyanine Phenathridine Eosin Bromcresol green

In automated microscopy, Sysmex UF series, the nuclear membranes, mitochondria, and negatively charged cell membranes are stained with a green dye: * 0/1 Carbocyanine Phenathridine Eosin Bromcresol green

The UF-100 and UF-50 use laser-based flow cytometry along with: * 0/1 Impedance detection Imedance detection and forward light scatter Impedance detection and fluorescence Impedance detection and forward light scatter Impedance detection, forward light scatter and fluorescence

Graphic display of size distribution of any small sediment particles (ranging from 1 to 6 um2) found during the microscopic examination; helps to decide whether bacteria are present in these small ranges or if the detected particles are small crystals or amorphous. * 0/1 Near-infrared reflectance spectroscopy Reflectance photomtery Small-particle histogram Mass gravity meter

The functions of the CSF include all of the following except: * 1/1 Removing metabolic wastes Producing an ultrafiltrate of plasma Supplying nutrients to the CNS Protecting the brain and spinal cord

What department is the CSF tube labeled 3 routinely sent to? * 1/1 Hematology Chemistry Microbiology Serology

The presence of xanthochromia can be caused by all of the following except: * 1/1 Immature liver function RBC degradation A recent hemorrhage Elevated CSF protein

A web-like pellicle in a refrigerated CSF specimen indicates: * 1/1 Tubercular meningitis Multiple sclerosis Primary CNS malignancy Viral meningitis

CSF total cell count is diluted with: * 1/1 Distilled water Normal saline Acetic acid Hypotonic saline

A CSF WBC count is diluted with: * 1/1 Distilled water Normal saline Acetic acid Hypotonic saline

A total CSF cell count on a clear fluid should be: * 1/1 Reported as normal Not reported Diluted with normal saline Counted undiluted

The purpose of adding 30% albumin to CSF before cytocentrifugation is to: * 1/1 Increase the cell yield Decrease the cellular distortion Improve cellular staining Increase cell yield and decrease cellular distortion

Neutrophils with pyknotic nuclei may be mistaken for: * 1/1 Lymphocytes Nucleated RBCs Malignant cells Spindle-shaped cells

Macrophages appear in the CSF after: * 1/1 Hemorrhage Repeated spinal taps Diagnostic procedures All of the above

Nucleated RBCs are seen in the CSF as a result of: * 0/1 Elevated blood RBCs Treatment of anemia Severe hemorrhage Bone marrow contamination

Myeloblasts are seen in the CSF: * 0/1 In bacterial infections In conjunction with CNS malignancy After cerebral hemorrhage As a complication of acute leukemia

The reference range for CSF protein is: * 1/1 6 to 8 g/dL 15 to 45 g/dL 6 to 8 mg/dL 15 to 45 mg/dL

Elevated CSF protein values can be caused by all of the following except: * 1/1 Meningitis Multiple sclerosis Fluid leakage CNS malignancy

The integrity of the blood–brain barrier is measured using the: * 0/1 CSF/serum albumin index CSF/serum globulin ratio CSF albumin index CSF IgG index

Measurement of which of the following can be replaced by CSF glutamine analysis in children with Reye syndrome? * 1/1 Ammonia Lactate Glucose Alpha-ketoglutarate

Determining CSF ________ provides an indirect test for the presence of excess ammonia in the CSF. * 1/1 Alpha-ketoglutarate Glucose Glutamine Lactate

Before performing a Gram stain on CSF, the specimen must be: * 1/1 Filtered Warmed to 37C Centrifuged Mixed

Particular attention should be paid to the Gram stain for the CLASSIC STARBURST PATTERN produced by: * 0/1 Hemophilus influenzae Neisseria meninigitidis Cryptococcus neoformans Coccidioides immitis

Maturation of spermatozoa takes place in the: * 1/1 Sertoli cells Seminiferous tubules Epidiymis Seminal vesicles

Enzymes for the coagulation and liquefaction of semen are produced by the: * 1/1 Seminal vesicles Bulbourethral glands Ductus deferens Prostate gland

If the first portion of a semen specimen is not collected, the semen analysis will have which of the following? * 1/1 Decreased pH Increased viscosity Decreased sperm count Decreased sperm motility

A semen specimen delivered to the laboratory in a condom has a normal sperm count and markedly decreased sperm motility. This indicates: * 1/1 Decreased fructose Antispermicide in the condom Increased semen viscosity Increased semen alkalinity

Liquefaction of a semen specimen should take place within: * 1/1 1 hour 2 hours 3 hours 4 hours

Proteolytic enzymes may be added to semen specimens to: * 0/1 Increase the viscosity Dilute the specimen Decrease the viscosity Neutralize the specimen

The primary reason to dilute a semen specimen before performing a sperm concentration is to: * 1/1 Immobilize the sperm Facilitate chamber count Decrease the viscosity Stain the sperm

For determination of sperm concentration, both sides of the Neubauer hemocytometer are loaded and allowed to settle for 3 to 5 minutes; then they are counted, and the counts should agree within ___%. * 0/1 Agree within 5% Agree within 10% Agree within 20% Agree within 30%

The purpose of the acrosomal cap is to: * 1/1 Penetrate the ovum Protect the the nucleus Create energy for tail movement Protect the neckpiece

The sperm part containing a mitochondrial sheath is the: * 0/1 Head Neckpiece Midpiece Tail

All of the following are associated with sperm motility except the: * 0/1 Head Neckpiece Midpiece Tail

Additional parameters measured by Kruger’s strict morphology include all of the following except: * 0/1 Vitality Presence of vacuoles Acrosome size Tail length

Round cells that are of concern and may be included in sperm counts and morphology analysis are: * 1/1 Leukocytes Spermatids RBCs Leukocytes and spermatids

Following an abnormal sperm motility test with a normal sperm count, what additional test might be ordered? * 0/1 Fructose level Zinc level Mixed agglutination reaction Eosin-nigrosin stain

Follow-up testing for a low sperm concentration would include testing for: * 1/1 Antisperm antibodies Seminal fluid fructose Sperm vitality Prostatic acid phosphatase

Measurement of alpha-glucosidase is performed to detect a disorder of the: * 1/1 Seminiferous tubules Epididymis Prostate gland Bulbourethral glands

A specimen delivered to the laboratory with a request for prostatic acid phosphatase and glycoprotein p30 was collected to determine: * 1/1 Prostatic infection Presence of antisperm antibodies A possible rape Successful vasectomy

Following a negative postvasectomy wet preparation, the specimen should be: * 0/1 Centrifuged and reexamined Stained and reexamined Reported as no sperm seen Detect presence of male antibodies

Normal synovial fluid resembles: * 1/1 Egg white Normal serum Dilute urine Lipemic serum

When diluting a synovial fluid WBC count, all of the following are acceptable except: * 1/1 Acetic acid Isotonic saline Hypotonic saline Saline with saponin

Synovial fluid crystals associated with inflammation in dialysis patients are: * 0/1 Calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate Calcium oxalate Corticosteroid Monosodium urate

Synovial fluid for crystal examination should be examined as a/an: * 0/1 Wet preparation Wright's stain Gram stain Acid-fast stain

The most frequently performed chemical test on synovial fluid is: * 1/1 Total protein Uric acid Calcium Glucose

An increase in the amount of serous fluid is called a/an: * 1/1 Exudate Transudate Effusion Malignancy

Fluid:serum protein and lactic dehydrogenase ratios are performed on serous fluids: * 1/1 When malignancy is suspected To classify transudates and exudates To determine the type of serous fluid When a traumatic tap has occurred

A differential observation of pleural fluid associated with tuberculosis is: * 0/1 Increased neutrophils Decreased lymphocytes Decreased mesothelial cells Increased mesothelial cells

A pleural fluid pH of 6.0 indicates: * 0/1 Esophageal rupture Mesothelioma Malignancy Rheumatoid effusion

Plasma cells seen in pleural fluid indicate: * 0/1 Bacterial endocarditis Primary malignancy Metastatic lung malignancy Tuberculosis infection

The recommended test for determining whether peritoneal fluid is a transudate or an exudate is the: * 0/1 Fluid:serum albumin ratio Serum ascites albumin gradient Fluid:serum lactic dehydrogenase ratio Absolute neutrophil count