RODAKS HEMATOLOGY

100問 • 1年前

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Hb Bart is composed of: a. Two alpha and two beta chains b. Two epsilon and two gamma chains c. Four beta chains d. Four gamma chains

d. Four gamma chains

The stage in neutrophilic development in which the nucleus is indented in a kidney bean shape and the cytoplasm has secondary granules that are lavender in color a. Band c. Promyelocyte b. Myelocyte d. Metamyelocyte

d. Metamyelocyte

Which of the following cells are important in immune regulation, allergic inflammation, and destruction of tissue invading helminths? a. Neutrophils and monocytes b. Eosinophils and basophils c. T and B lymphocytes

b. Eosinophils and basophils

Macrophages aid in adaptive immunity by: a. Degrading antigen and presenting it to lymphocytes b. Ingesting and digesting organisms that neutrophils cannot c. Synthesizing complement components d. Storing iron from senescent red cells

a. Degrading antigen and presenting it to lymphocytes

. Using Wright-Giemsa stain, the morphologic description of an eccentric dark nuclei with deeply basophilic (blue) cytoplasm and a prominent pale central Golgi apparatus best describes a(n): a. Eosinophil c. Lymphocyte b. Basophil d. Plasma cell

d. Plasma cell

Which of the following inherited leukocyte disorders is caused by a mutation in the lamin B receptor? a. Pelger-Huët anomaly c. Alder-Reilly anomaly b. Chédiak-Higashi disease d. May-Hegglin anomaly

a. Pelger-Huët anomaly

Which of the following inherited leukocyte disorders involves mutations in nonmuscle myosin heavy-chain IIA? a. Pelger-Huët anomaly c. Alder-Reilly anomaly b. Chédiak-Higashi disease d.. May-Hegglin anomaly

d.. May-Hegglin anomaly

Which of the following inherited leukocyte disorders might be seen in Hurler syndrome? a. Pelger-Huët anomaly c. Alder-Reilly anomaly b. Chédiak-Higashi disease d. May-Hegglin anomaly

c. Alder-Reilly anomaly

Which of the following lysosomal storage diseases is charac- terized by macrophages with striated cytoplasm and storage of glucocerebroside? a. Sanfilippo syndrome c. Fabry disease b. Gaucher disease d. Niemann-Pick disease

b. Gaucher disease

The neutrophils in chronic granulomatous disease are incapable of producing: a. Hydrogen peroxide c. Superoxide b. Hypochlorite d. All of the above

d. All of the above

Individuals with X-linked SCID have a mutation that affects their ability to synthesize: a. Deaminase c. IL-2 receptor b. Oxidase d. IL-8 receptor

c. IL-2 receptor

What leukocyte cytoplasmic inclusion is composed of ribosomal RNA? a. Primary granules c. Döhle bodies b. Toxic granules d. Howell-Jolly bodies

c. Döhle bodies

Lymphomas differ from leukemias in that they are: a. Solid tumors b. Not considered systemic diseases c. Never found in peripheral blood d. Do not originate from hematopoietic cells

a. Solid tumors

Which one of the following viruses is known to cause lymphoid neoplasms in humans? a. HIV-1 c. Hepatitis B b. HTLV-1 d. Parvovirus B

b. HTLV-1

Loss-of-function of tumor suppressor genes increase the risk of hematologic neoplasms by: a. Suppressing cell division b. Activating tyrosine kinases which promote proliferation c. Promoting excessive apoptosis of hematopoietic cells d. Allowing cells with damaged DNA to progress through the cell cycle

d. Allowing cells with damaged DNA to progress through the cell cycle

Which one of the following is an example of a tumor sup- pressor gene? a. ABL1 b. RARA c. TP53 d. JAK2

Imatinib is an example of what type of treatment? a. Supportive care c. Bone marrow conditioning agent b. Chemotherapy d. Targeted therapy

d. Targeted therapy

According to the WHO classification, except in leukemias with specific genetic anomalies, the minimal percentage of blasts for a diagnosis of acute leukemia is: a. 10% b. 20% c. 30% d. 50%

b. 20%

SBB stains which of the following component of cells? a. Glycogen c. Structural proteins b. Lipids d. Enzymes

b. Lipids

The cytochemical stain a-naphthyl butyrate is a nonspecific esterase stain that shows diffuse positivity in cells of which lineage? a. Erythroid c. Granulocytic b. Monocytic d. Lymphoid

b. Monocytic

Disseminated intravascular coagulation is more often seen in association with leukemia characterized by which of the following mutations? a. t(12;21)(p13;q22) c. inv(16)(p13;q22) b. t(9;22)(q34;q11.2) d. t(15;17)(q22;q12)

d. t(15;17)(q22;q12)

A 20-year-old patient has an elevated WBC count with 70% blasts, 4% neutrophils, 5% lymphocytes, and 21% monocytes in the peripheral blood. Eosinophils with dysplastic changes are seen in the bone marrow. AML with which of the following karyotypes would be most likely to be a. AML with t(8;21)(q22;q22) b. AML with t(16;16)(p13;q22) c. APL with PML-RARA d. AML with t(9;11)(p22;q23)

b. AML with t(16;16)(p13;q22)

Which of the following leukemias affects primarily children, is characterized by an increase in monoblasts and monocytes, and often is associated with gingival and skin involvement? a. Pre-B-lymphoblastic leukemia b. Pure erythroid leukemia c. AML with t(9;11)(p22;q23) d. APL with PML-RARA

c. AML with t(9;11)(p22;q23)

A 20-year-old patient presents with fatigue, pallor, easy bruising, and swollen gums. Bone marrow examination reveals 82% cells with delicate chromatin and prominent nucleoli that are CD14 , CD4 , CD11b , and CD36 . Which of the following acute leukemias is likely? a. Minimally differentiated leukemia b. Leukemia of ambiguous lineage c. Acute monoblastic/monocytic leukemia d. Acute megakaryoblastic leukemia

c. Acute monoblastic/monocytic leukemia

Pure erythroid leukemia is a disorder involving: a. Pronormoblasts only b. Pronormoblasts and basophilic normoblasts c. All forms of developing RBC precursors d. Equal numbers of pronormoblasts and myeloblasts

b. Pronormoblasts and basophilic normoblasts

A patient with normal chromosomes has a WBC count of 3.0 x 10^9/L and dysplasia in all cell lines. There are 60% blasts of varying sizes. The blasts stain positive for CD61. The most likely type of leukemia is: a. Acute lymphoblastic c. Acute monoblastic b. Acute megakaryoblastic d. APL with PML-RARA

b. Acute megakaryoblastic

Which of the following chromosome abnormalities is associated with CML? a. t(15;17) c. t(9;22) b. t(8;14) d. Monosomy 7

c. t(9;22)

A patient has a WBC count of 30 x 10^9 /L and the following WBC differential: Segmented neutrophils—38%. Bands—17% Metamyelocytes—7% Myelocytes—20% Promyelocytes—10% Eosinophils—3% Basophils—5% Which of the following test results would be helpful in determining whether the patient has CML? a. Nitroblue tetrazolium reduction product increased b. Myeloperoxidase increased c. Periodic acid–Schiff staining decreased d. FISH positive for BCR-ABL1 fusion

d. FISH positive for BCR-ABL1 fusion

The most common mutation found in patients with primary PV is: a. BCR-ABL1 c. JAK2 V617F b. Philadelphia chromosome d. t(15;17)

c. JAK2 V617F

The peripheral blood in PV typically manifests: a. Erythrocytosis only b. Erythrocytosis and thrombocytopenia c. Erythrocytosis, thrombocytosis, and granulocytosis d. Anemia and thrombocytopenia

c. Erythrocytosis, thrombocytosis, and granulocytosis

Which of the following patterns is characteristic of the peripheral blood in patients with PMF? a. Teardrop-shaped erythrocytes, nucleated RBCs, immature granulocytes b. Abnormal platelets only c. Hypochromic erythrocytes, immature granulocytes, and normal platelets d. Spherocytes, immature granulocytes, and increased numbers of platelets

a. Teardrop-shaped erythrocytes, nucleated RBCs, immature granulocytes

A patient has a platelet count of 700 x 10^9 /L with abnormalities in the size, shape, and granularity of platelets; a WBC count of 12 x 10^9 /L; and hemoglobin of 11 g/dL. The Philadelphia chromosome is not present. The most likely diagnosis is: a. PV c. CML b. ET d. Leukemoid reaction

b. ET

What is a major indication of MDS in the peripheral blood and bone marrow? a. Dyspoiesis b. Leukocytosis with left shift c. Normal bone marrow with abnormal peripheral blood d. Thrombocytosis

a. Dyspoiesis

In Hodgkin lymphoma the Reed-Sternberg cell and _________ are malignant. a. Popcorn cells c. B cells b. T cells d. Histiocytes

a. Popcorn cells

What platelet membrane receptor binds fibrinogen and supports platelet aggregation? a. GP Ib/IX/V c. GP Ia/IIa b. GP IIb/IIIa d. P2Y1

b. GP IIb/IIIa

What plasma protein is essential for platelet adhesion? a. VWF c. Fibrinogen b. Factor VIII d. P-selectin

a. VWF

What platelet membrane phospholipid flips from the inner surface to the plasma surface on activation and serves as the assembly point for coagulation factors? a. Phosphatidylethanolamine c. Phosphatidylcholine b. Phosphatidylinositol d. Phosphatidylserine

d. Phosphatidylserine

What platelet organelle sequesters ionic calcium and binds a series of enzymes of the eicosanoid pathway? a. Glycocalyx c. Dense tubular system b. Dense granules d. Surface connected canalicular system

c. Dense tubular system

Which of the following molecules is stored in platelet dense granules? a. Serotonin c. Platelet factor 4 b. Fibrinogen d. Platelet-derived growth factor

a. Serotonin

Which of the following molecules is stored in platelet dense granules? a. Serotonin c. Platelet factor 4 b. Fibrinogen d. Platelet-derived growth factor

a. Serotonin

What is the name of the eicosanoid metabolite produced from endothelial cells that suppresses platelet activity? a. Thromboxane A2 c. Cyclooxygenase b. Arachidonic acid d. Prostacyclin

d. Prostacyclin

White clots: a. Occur primarily in the deep veins of the leg b. Are characteristic of the secondary hemostatic process c. Are largely composed of platelets and VWF d. Form normally in response to vascular injury and are completely harmless

c. Are largely composed of platelets and VWF

What intimal cell synthesizes and stores von Willebrand factor (VWF)? a. Smooth muscle cell c. Fibroblast b. Endothelial cell d. Platelet

b. Endothelial cell

The events involved in secondary hemostasis: a. Lead to the formation of a stable fibrin clot b. Usually occur independently of primary hemostasis c. Occur in a random fashion d. Are the first line of defense against blood loss

a. Lead to the formation of a stable fibrin clot

What subendothelial structural protein triggers coagulation through activation of factor VII? a. Thrombomodulin c. Tissue factor b. Nitric oxide d. Thrombin

c. Tissue factor

What coagulation plasma protein should be assayed when platelets fail to aggregate properly? a. Factor VIII c. Thrombin b. Fibrinogen d. Factor X

b. Fibrinogen

What is the primary role of vitamin K for the prothrombin group factors? a. Provides a surface on which the proteolytic reactions of the factors occur b. Protects them from inappropriate activation by compounds such as thrombin c. Accelerates the binding of the serine proteases and their cofactors d. Carboxylates the factors to allow calcium binding

d. Carboxylates the factors to allow calcium binding

What two regulatory proteins form a complex that digests activated factors V and VIII? a. TFPI and Xa b. Antithrombin and protein C c. APC and protein S d. Thrombomodulin and plasmin

c. APC and protein S

Which of the following coagulation factors is activated by thrombin and mediates the stabilization of the fibrin clot? a. Tissue factor c. Factor IX b. FactorVII d. Factor XIII

d. Factor XIII

A defect in primary hemostasis (platelet response to an injury) often results in: a. Musculoskeletal bleeding c. Hemarthroses b. Mucosal bleeding d. None of the above

b. Mucosal bleeding

The clinical presentation of platelet-related bleeding may include all of the following except: a. Bruising c. Gastrointestinal bleeding b. Nosebleeds. d. Bleeding into the joints (hemarthroses)

d. Bleeding into the joints (hemarthroses)

A defect in GP IIb/IIIa causes: a. Glanzmann thrombasthenia c. Gray platelet syndrome b. Bernard-Soulier syndrome d. Storage pool disease

a. Glanzmann thrombasthenia

Patients with Bernard-Soulier syndrome have which of the following laboratory test findings? a. Abnormal platelet response to arachidonic acid b. Abnormal platelet response to ristocetin c. Abnormal platelet response to collagen d. Thrombocytosis

b. Abnormal platelet response to ristocetin

Aspirin ingestion blocks the synthesis of: a. Thromboxane A2 c. Collagen b. Ionized calcium d. ADP

a. Thromboxane A2

What factor becomes deficient early in liver disease, and what assay does its deficiency prolong? a. Prothrombin deficiency, the PT b. Factor VII deficiency, the PT c. FVIII deficiency, the PTT d. Factor IX deficiency, the PTT

b. Factor VII deficiency, the PT

Which of the following conditions causes a prolonged thrombin time? a. Antithrombin deficiency c. Hypofibrinogenemia b. Prothrombin deficiency d. Warfarin therapy

c. Hypofibrinogenemia

What is the most prevalent form of VWD? a. Type1 c. Type 2B b. Type 2A d.Type3

a. Type1

In what type or subtype of VWD is the RIPA test result positive when ristocetin is used at a concentration of less than 0.5 mg/mL? a. Subtype 2A c. Subtype 2N b. Subtype 2B d. Type 3

b. Subtype 2B

What is the typical treatment for vitamin K deficiency when the patient is bleeding? a. Vitamin K and plasma b. Vitamin K and four-factor PCC c. Vitamin K and platelet concentrate d. Vitamin K and FVIII concentrate

b. Vitamin K and four-factor PCC

If a patient has anatomic soft tissue bleeding and poor wound healing, but the PT, PTT, TT, platelet count, and platelet functional assay results are normal, what factor deficiency is possible? a. Fibrinogen c. Factor XII b. Prothrombin d. Factor XIII

d. Factor XIII

What therapy may be used for a hemophilic boy who is bleeding and who has a high FVIII inhibitor titer? a. rFVIIa c. Cryoprecipitate b. Plasma d. FVIII concentrate

a. rFVIIa

Which of the following assays is used to distinguish vitamin K deficiency from liver disease? a. PT c. Factor V assay b. Protein C assay d. Factor VII assay

c. Factor V assay

What is the most common heritable thrombosis risk factor? a. APC resistance (factor V Leiden mutation) b. Prothrombin G20210A mutation c. Antithrombin deficiency d. Protein S deficiency

a. APC resistance (factor V Leiden mutation)

In most LAC profiles, what test is primary (performed first) because it detects LAC with the least interference? a. Low-phospholipid PTT c. KCT b. DRVVT d. PT

b. DRVVT

A 1:20 dilution of blood is made with 3% glacial acetic acid as the diluent. The four large corner squares on both sides of the hemacytometer are counted, for a total of 100 cells. What is the total WBC count (x 10^9 /L)? a. 0.25 b. 2.5 c. 5 d. 10

b. 2.5

The total WBC count is 20 x 10^9/L. Twenty-five NRBCs per 100 WBCs are observed on the peripheral blood film. What is the corrected WBC count (x 10^9/L)? a. 0.8 b. 8 c. 16 d. 19

c. 16

Which of the following would NOT interfere with the result when hemoglobin determination is performed by the cyanmethemoglobin method? a. Increased lipids c. Lyse-resistant RBCs b. Elevated WBC count d. Fetal hemoglobin

d. Fetal hemoglobin

A patient has a hemoglobin level of 8.0 g/dL. According to the rule of three, what is the expected range for the HCT? a. 21% to 24% c. 24% to 27% b. 23.7% to 24.3% d. 21% to 27%

d. 21% to 27%

Given the following values, calculate the RPI: Observed reticulocyte count = 6% HCT = 30% a. 2 c. 4 b.3 d.5

a. 2

Which of the following would be associated with an elevated ESR value? a. Microcytosis c. Decreased globulins b. Polycythemia d. Inflammation

d. Inflammation

A laboratory science student consistently makes wedgetechnique blood films that are too long and thin. What change in technique would improve the films? a. Increasing the downward pressure on the pusher slide b. Decreasing the acute angle of the pusher slide c. Placing the drop of blood closer to the center of the slide d. Increasing the acute angle of the pusher slide

d. Increasing the acute angle of the pusher slide

When a blood film is viewed through the microscope, the RBCs appear redder than normal, the neutrophils are barely visible, and the eosinophils are bright orange. What is the most likely cause? a. The slide was overstained. b. The stain was too alkaline. c. The buffer was too acidic. d. The slide was not rinsed adequately.

c. The buffer was too acidic

A stained blood film is held up to the light and observed to be bluer than normal. What microscopic abnormality might be expected on this film? a. Rouleaux c. Reactive lymphocytosis b. Spherocytosis d. Toxic granulation

a. Rouleaux

A laboratorian using the 40x objective lens sees the following numbers of WBCs in 10 fields: 8,4,7,5,4,7,8,6,4,6. Which of the following WBC counts most closely correlates with the estimate? a. 1.5 x 10^9/L c. 11.8 x 10^9/L b. 5.9 x 10^9/L d. 24 x 10^9/L

c. 11.8 x 10^9/L

A blood film for a patient with a normal RBC count has an average of 10 platelets per oil immersion field. Which of the following values best correlates with the estimate per microliter? a. 20,000 c. 200,000 b. 100,000 d. 400,000

c. 200,000

A blood film for a very anemic patient with an RBC count of 1.25 x 10^12/L shows an average of seven platelets per oil immersion field. Which of the following values most closely correlates with the estimate per microliter? a. 14,000 c. 140,000 b. 44,000 d. 280,000

b. 44,000

Which of the following blood film findings indicates EDTAinduced pseudothrombocytopenia? a. The platelets are pushed to the feathered end. b. The platelets are adhering to WBCs. c. No platelets at all are seen on the film. d. The slide has a bluish discoloration when examined macroscopically

b. The platelets are adhering to WBCs.

Orthogonal light scatter is used to measure: a. Cell volume b. Internal complexity of the cell c. Cellular granularity d. Nuclear density

b. Internal complexity of the cell

A patient peripheral blood film demonstrates agglutinated RBCs, and the CBC shows an elevated MCHC. What other parameters will be affected by the agglutination of the RBCs? a. MCV will be decreased and RBC count will be increased. b. MCV will be decreased and RBC count will be decreased. c. MCV will be increased and RBC count will be decreased. d. MCV will be increased and RBC count will be increased.

c. MCV will be increased and RBC count will be decreased.

On the Beckman Coulter instruments, hematocrit is a calculated value. Which of the following directly measured parameters is used in the calculation of this value? a. RDW c. MCV b. Hemoglobin d. MCHC

c. MCV

What is the most common clinical application of flow cytometry? a. Diagnosis of platelet disorders b. Detection of fetomaternal hemorrhage c. Diagnosis of leukemias and lymphomas d. Differentiation of anemias

c. Diagnosis of leukemias and lymphomas

Which of the following is true of CD45 antigen? a. It is present on every cell subpopulation in the bone marrow. b. It is expressed on all hematopoietic cells, with the exception of megakaryocytes and late erythroid precursors. c. It is not measured routinely in flow cytometry. d. It may be present on nonhematopoietic cells.

b. It is expressed on all hematopoietic cells, with the exception of megakaryocytes and late erythroid precursors

Erythroid precursors are characterized by the expression of: a. CD71 b. CD20 c. CD61 d. CD3

a. CD71

Antigens expressed by B-LL include: a. CD3, CD4, and CD8 b. CD19, CD34, and CD10 c. There are no antigens specific for B-LL. d. Myeloperoxidase

b. CD19, CD34, and CD10

Which of the following is true of flow cytometric gating? a. It is best defined as selection of a target population for flow cytometric analysis. b. It can be done only at the time of data acquisition. c. It can be done only at the time of final analysis and interpretation of flow cytometric data. d. It is accomplished by adjusting flow rate

a. It is best defined as selection of a target population for flow cytometric analysis

Mycosis fungoides is characterized by: a. Loss of certain antigens compared with the normal T cell population b. Polyclonal T cell receptor c. Immunophenotype indistinguishable from that of normal T cells d. Expression of CD3 and CD8 antigens

a. Loss of certain antigens compared with the normal T cell population

Mature granulocytes show the expression of: a. CD15, CD33, and CD34 b. CD15, CD33, and CD41 c. CD15, CD33, and CD13 d. CD15, CD33, and CD7

c. CD15, CD33, and CD13

What happens if a coagulation specimen collection tube is underfilled? a. The specimen clots and is useless b. The specimen is hemolyzed and is useless c. Clot-based test results are falsely prolonged d. Chromogenic test results are falsely decreased

c. Clot-based test results are falsely prolonged

What is the reference method for detecting aspirin or clopidogrel resistance? a. Platelet aggregometry c. VerifyNow b. AspirinWorks d. PFA-100

a. Platelet aggregometry

Except for platelet aggregometry, most coagulation testing must be performed on PPP, which is plasma with a platelet count less than: a. 1000/uL c. 100,000/uL b. 10,000/uL d. 1,000,000/uL

b. 10,000/uL

You wish to obtain a 5-mL specimen of whole-blood/ anticoagulant mixture. The patient’s hematocrit is 65%. What volume of anticoagulant should you use? a. 0.32 mL c. 0.64 mL b. 0.5 mL d. 0.68 mL

a. 0.32 mL

You perform whole-blood lumiaggregometry on a specimen from a patient who complains of easy bruising. Aggregation and secretion are diminished when the agonists thrombin, ADP, arachidonic acid, and collagen are used. What is the most likely platelet abnormality? a. Storage pool disorder c. ADP receptor anomaly b. Aspirin-like syndrome d. Glanzmann thrombasthenia

d. Glanzmann thrombasthenia

What is the reference assay for HIT? a. Enzyme immunoassay c. Platelet lumiaggregometry b. Serotonin release assay d. Washed platelet aggregation

b. Serotonin release assay

What agonist is used in platelet aggregometry to detect VWD? a. Arachidonic acid c. Collagen b. Ristocetin d. ADP

b. Ristocetin

Deficiency of which congenital single factor is likely when the PT result is prolonged and the PTT result is normal? a. FactorV c. FactorVIII b. Factor VII d. Prothrombin

b. Factor VII

A prolonged PT, a low factor VII level, but a normal factor V level are characteristic of an acquired coagulopathy associated with which of the following? a. Vitamin K deficiency c. Liver disease b. Thrombocytopenia d. Hemophilia

a. Vitamin K deficiency

The patient has deep vein thrombosis. The PTT is prolonged and is not corrected in an immediate mix of patient PPP with an equal part of PNP. What is the presumed condition? a. Factor VIII inhibitor c. Factor VIII deficiency b. Lupus anticoagulant d. Factor V Leiden mutation

b. Lupus anticoagulant

What condition causes the most pronounced elevation in the result of the quantitative D-dimer assay? a. Deep vein thrombosis c. Paraproteinemia b. Fibrinogen deficiency d. DIC

d. DIC

When a specimen has been flagged as being icteric by an automated coagulation analyzer, which method would be most susceptible to erroneous results because of the interfering substance? a. Mechanical clot detection b. Immunologic antigen-antibody reaction detection c. Photo-optical clot detection d. Chromogenic end-point detection

c. Photo-optical clot detection

100

Which of the following is considered to be an advantage of the mechanical end-point detection methodology? a. It is not affected by lipemia in the test specimen b. It has the ability to provide a graph of clot formation c. It can incorporate multiple wavelengths into a single testing sequence d. It can measure proteins that do not have fibrin formation as the end-point

a. It is not affected by lipemia in the test specimen

other names parasitology

Yves Laure Pimentel · 70問 · 2年前

other names parasitology