POPCORN

100問 • 1年前

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Precursor for serotonin and melatonin: A. Glutamine B. Threonine C. Tryptophan D. Tyrosine

C. Tryptophan

The most abundant amino acid in the body, being involved in more metabolic processes than any other amino acid: A. Alanine B. Asparagine C. Cysteine D. Glutamine

D. Glutamine

Single best hormone to determine whether ovulation has occurred; THERMOGENIC EFFECT, in which basal body temperature rises after ovulation. This effect is of clinical use in marking the occurrence of ovulation. A. Estrogen B. Progesterone C. Testosterone D. Thyroxine

B. Progesterone

Seventy (70) percent recirculated to the cabinet work area through HEPA; 30% balance can be exhausted through HEPA back into the room or to outside through a canopy unit: A. BSC Class I B. BSC Class II, A1 C. BSC Class II, B1 D. BSC Class II, B2

B. BSC Class II, A1

Thirty (30) percent recirculated, 70% exhausted. Exhaust cabinet air must pass through a dedicated duct to the outside through a HEPA filter. A. BSC Class I B. BSC Class II, A1 C. BSC Class II, B1 D. BSC Class II, B2

C. BSC Class II, B1

No recirculation; total exhaust to the outside through a HEPA filter. A. BSC Class I B. BSC Class II, A1 C. BSC Class II, B1 D. BSC Class II, B2

D. BSC Class II, B2

A 1-month-old infant underwent a spinal tap to rule out bacterial meningitis. The CSF was cloudy, and the smear showed many pus cells and short gram-positive rods. After 18 hours, many colonies appeared on blood agar that resembledStreptococcus spp. or L. monocytogenes. Which of the following preliminary tests should be performed on the colonies to best differentiate L. monocytogenes from Streptococcus spp.? A. Hanging-drop motility (25°C) and catalase B. PYR and bacitracin C. Oxidase and glucose D. Coagulase and catalase

A. Hanging-drop motility (25°C) and catalase

Metabolism of glucose molecule to pyruvate or lactate for production of energy A. Gluconeogenesis B. Glycogenolysis C. Glycogenesis D. Glycolysis

D. Glycolysis

Formation of glucose-6-phosphate from noncarbohydrate sources A. Gluconeogenesis B. Glycogenolysis C. Glycogenesis D. Glycolysis

A. Gluconeogenesis

Breakdown of glycogen to glucose for use as energy A. Gluconeogenesis B. Glycogenolysis C. Glycogenesis D. Glycolysis

B. Glycogenolysis

Conversion of glucose to glycogen for storage A. Gluconeogenesis B. Glycogenolysis C. Glycogenesis D. Glycolysis

C. Glycogenesis

Four children are admitted with malaise, anorexia, and abdominal pain. Further evaluations reveal mild anemia, erythrocyte basophilic stippling, and profound pica habits. Poisoning by which heavy metal is most likely responsible? A. Arsenic B. Iron C. Mercury D. Lead

D. Lead

Which is the best tube for collecting an ETOH (ethanol) specimen? A. Gray top B. Green top C. Lavender top D. Light-blue top

A. Gray top

Large, nonpigmented or gray, opaque, smooth; friable “HOCKEY PUCK” consistency; colony may be moved intact over surface of CAP: A. Neisseria gonorrhoeae B. Neisseria meningitidis C. Neisseria elongata D. Moraxella catarrhalis

D. Moraxella catarrhalis

The two species of flies responsible for the transmission are Glossina palpalis and Glossina tachinoides: A. Leishmania donovani B. Leishmania tropica C. Trypanosoma brucei gambiense D. Trypanosoma brucei rhodesiense

C. Trypanosoma brucei gambiense

The two primary species of fly vectors responsible for transmitting are Glossina morsitans and Glossina pallidipes: A. Leishmania donovani B. Leishmania tropica C. Trypanosoma brucei gambiense D. Trypanosoma brucei rhodesiense

D. Trypanosoma brucei rhodesiense

Which of the following tests is most helpful in differentiating C.jejuni from the other Campylobacter spp.? A. Nitrate reduction B. Urease activity C. Hippurate hydrolysis D. Susceptibility to nalidixic acid

C. Hippurate hydrolysis

A positive hippurate hydrolysis is a characteristic of: A. Campylobacter coli B. Campylobacter jejuni C. Campylobacter lari D. Campylobacter fetus

B. Campylobacter jejuni

Which of the following has been recognized in postinfectious complications of a Campylobacter jejuni infection? A. Guillain-Barré syndrome B. Chronic pulmonary disease C. Encephalitis D. Endocarditis

A. Guillain-Barré syndrome

A 60-year-old man suffered from fever, watery diarrhea, abdominal pain, and nausea. Three weeks later, he was admitted to the hospital unable to speak but coherent and oriented. Neurological examination revealed bilateral muscle weakness in his legs. Within hours, the muscle weakness extended to his arms and chest. He was diagnosed with Guillain–Barré syndrome. With which organism was he most likely infected? A. Campylobacter jejuni B. Clostridium tetani C. Cytolmegalovirus D. Salmonella enterica E. Shigella sonnei

A. Campylobacter jejuni

Colonies that are said to resemble "droplets of mercury" are characteristic of: A. Bordetella pertussis B. Burkholderia cepacia C. Campylobacter jejuni D. Yersinia pestis

A. Bordetella pertussis

Black color of Argyrol, an antiseptic, disappears with addition of: A. Copper sulfate B. Ferric chloride C. Sodium nitroprusside D. Trichloroacetic acid

B. Ferric chloride

Specimens from patients receiving treatment for urinary tract infections frequently appear: A. Clear and red B. Viscous and orange C. Dilute and pale yellow D. Cloudy and red

B. Viscous and orange

Specimens containing _________ produce a yellow foam when shaken, which could be mistaken for bilirubin. A. Phenazopyridine (Pyridium) B. Phenindione C. Methyldopa D. Metronidazole (Flagyl)

A. Phenazopyridine (Pyridium)

Anticoagulant, orange in alkaline urine, colorless in acid urine. A. Phenazopyridine (Pyridium) B. Phenindione C. Methyldopa D. Metronidazole (Flagyl)

B. Phenindione

Crenated RBCs are seen in urine that is: A. Hyposthenuric B. Hypersthenuric C. Highly acidic D. Highly alkaline

B. Hypersthenuric

The most common composition of renal calculi is: A. Calcium oxalate B. Magnesium ammonium phosphate C. Cystine D. Uric acid

A. Calcium oxalate

The primary inorganic substance found in urine is: A. Sodium B. Phosphate C. Chloride D. Calcium

C. Chloride

In the urinalysis laboratory the primary source in the chain of infection would be: A. Patients B. Needlesticks C. Specimens D. Biohazardous waste

C. Specimens

The primary chemical affected by the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system is: A. Chloride B. Sodium C. Potassium D. Hydrogen

B. Sodium

The only protein produced by the kidney is: A. Albumin B. Uromodulin C. Uroprotein D. Globulin

B. Uromodulin

Variables that are included in the MDRD-IDSM estimated creatinine clearance calculations include all of the following except: A. Serum creatinine B. Weight C. Age D. Gender

B. Weight

The most significant reagent strip test that is associated with a positive ketone result is: A. Glucose B. Protein C. pH D. Specific gravity

A. Glucose

The reagent strip reaction that requires the longest reaction time is the: A. Bilirubin B. pH C. Leukocyte esterase D. Glucose

C. Leukocyte esterase

All of the following can be detected by the leukocyte esterase reaction except: A. Neutrophils B. Eosinophils C. Lymphocytes D. Basophils

C. Lymphocytes

An elevated urine bilirubin with a normal urobilinogen is indicative of: A. Cirrhosis of the liver B. Hemolytic disease C. Hepatitis D. Biliary obstruction

D. Biliary obstruction

Centrifuging an uncapped specimen may produce a biologic hazard in the form of: A. Vectors B. Sharps contamination C. Aerosols D. Specimen contamination

C. Aerosols

Hurler, Hunter, and Sanfilippo syndromes are hereditary disorders affecting metabolism of: A. Porphyrins B. Purines C. Mucopolysaccharides D. Tryptophan

C. Mucopolysaccharides

The principle of refractive index is to compare: A. Light velocity in solutions with light velocity insolids B. Light velocity in air with light velocity in solutions C. Light scattering by air with light scattering by solutions D. Light scattering by particles in solution

B. Light velocity in air with light velocity in solutions

The classification of a fire that can be extinguished with water is: A. Class A B. Class B C. Class C D. Class D

A. Class A

The largest source of error in creatinine clearance tests is: A. Secretion of creatinine B. Improperly timed urine specimens C. Refrigeration of the urine D. Time of collecting blood sample

B. Improperly timed urine specimens

The best way to break the chain of infection is: A. Hand sanitizing B. Personal protective equipment C. Aerosol prevention D. Decontamination

A. Hand sanitizing

The first thing to do when a fire is discovered is to: A. Rescue persons in danger B. Activate the alarm system C. Close doors to other areas D. Extinguish the fire if possible

A. Rescue persons in danger

Which of the following collection methods would yield the most sterile urine sample? A. Random B. Catheterization C. Suprapubic aspiration D. Clean-catch midstream

C. Suprapubic aspiration

Oval fat bodies are: A. Hyaline casts that contain lipids B. Squamous epithelial cells that contain lipids C. Transitional epithelial cells that contain lipids D. Renal tubular epithelial cells that contain lipids

D. Renal tubular epithelial cells that contain lipids

Which of the following contaminants has a dimpled center and can appear as a Maltese cross under polarized light? A. Oil droplets B. Air bubbles C. Glass shards D. Starch crystals

D. Starch crystals

Bacteria are considered significant in the urine sediment when the: A. Nitrite is negative B. Protein is positive C. Specimen is dark yellow D. Sample contains WBCs

D. Sample contains WBCs

A patient with renal tubular acidosis would most likely excrete a urine with a: A. Low pH B, High pH C. Neutral pH D. Variable pH

B, High pH

Which of the following stains is commonly used to evaluate sperm viability? A. Wright B. Eosin-nigrosin C. Toluidine blue D. Papanicolaou

B. Eosin-nigrosin

A green-colored amniotic fluid is received in the laboratory for testing. The color of this specimen indicates the presence of: A. Blood B. Bilirubin C. Meconium D. Hemoglobin

C. Meconium

Normal CSF contains all of the following proteins except: A. Transferrin B. Transthyretin C. Albumin D. Fibrinogen

D. Fibrinogen

Motility must be observed in at least what percentage of sperm to be considered normal? A. 10% B. 25% C. 50% D. 75%

C. 50%

The tau isoform of transferrin is a carbohydrate-deficient protein found only in: A. CSF B. Sweat C. Seminal fluid D. Amniotic fluid

A. CSF

Which of the following substances will cause urine to produce red fluorescence when examined with an ultraviolet lamp (360 nm)? A. Myoglobin B. Porphobilinogen (PBG) C. Urobilin D. Coproporphyrin

D. Coproporphyrin

Which of the following conditions is associated with normal urine color but produces red fluorescence when urine is examined with an ultraviolet (Wood’s) lamp? A. Acute intermittent porphyria B. Lead poisoning C. Erythropoietic porphyria D. Porphyria cutanea tarda

B. Lead poisoning

Which of the following tests is affected least by standing or improperly stored urine? A. Glucose B. Protein C. pH D. Bilirubin

B. Protein

Which type of casts signals the presence of chronic renal failure? A. Blood casts B. Fine granular casts C. Waxy casts D. Fatty casts

C. Waxy casts

The presence of tyrosine and leucine crystals together in a urine sediment usually indicates: A. Renal failure B. Chronic liver disease C. Hemolytic anemia D. Hartnup disease

B. Chronic liver disease

Which of the following conditions is associated with the greatest proteinuria? A. Acute glomerulonephritis B. Chronic glomerulonephritis C. Nephrotic syndrome D. Acute pyelonephritis

C. Nephrotic syndrome

Following a head injury, which protein will identify the presence of CSF leakage through the nose? A. Transthyretin B. Myelin basic protein C. Tau protein D. C-reactive protein

C. Tau protein

Which of the following crystals is the cause of gout? A. Uric acid or monosodium urate B. Calcium pyrophosphate or apatite C. Calcium oxalate D. Cholesterol

A. Uric acid or monosodium urate

Which crystal causes “pseudogout”? A. Oxalic acid B. Calcium pyrophosphate C. Calcium oxalate D. Cholesterol

B. Calcium pyrophosphate

What is the most common cause of male infertility? A. Mumps B. Klinefelter’s syndrome C. Varicocele D. Malignancy

C. Varicocele

In which condition is the highest level of serum gastrin usually seen? A. Atrophic gastritis B. Pernicious anemia C. Z–E syndrome D. Cancer of the stomach

C. Z–E syndrome

Which of the following is commonly associated with occult blood? A. Colon cancer B. Atrophic gastritis C. Pernicious anemia D. Pancreatitis

A. Colon cancer

A pleural fluid submitted to the laboratory is milky in appearance. Which test would be most useful in differentiating between a chylous and pseudochylous effusion? A. Fluid to serum triglyceride ratio B. Fluid WBC count C. Fluid total protein D. Fluid to serum LD ratio

A. Fluid to serum triglyceride ratio

Pleural fluid triglycerides <50 mg/dL: A. Hemothorax B. Hemorrhagic effusion C. Chylous effusion D. Pseudochylous effusion

D. Pseudochylous effusion

Pleural fluid triglycerides >110 mg/dL: A. Hemothorax B. Hemorrhagic effusion C. Chylous effusion D. Pseudochylous effusion

C. Chylous effusion

Loeffler's serum medium is recommended for the cultivation of A. Abiotrophia sp. B. Corynebacterium diphtheriae C. Leuconostoc sp. D. Streptococcus agalactiae

B. Corynebacterium diphtheriae

On Tinsdale agar, colonies of Corynebacterium diphtheriae are characterized by the observance of: A. Liquefaction of the agar surrounding the colonies on the medium B. Opalescent colonies with a white precipitate in the surrounding agar C. Black colonies on the culture medium surrounded by brown halo D. Pitting of the agar medium surrounding the colonies

C. Black colonies on the culture medium surrounded by brown halo

Staphylococcus aureus, when present, could most likely be recovered from a stool sample if the primary plating medium included: A. Bismuth sulfite B. Phenylethyl alcohol C. Thiosulfate citrate bile salts sucrose D. Xylose-lysine-desoxycholate

B. Phenylethyl alcohol

The production of H2S is one characteristic used to differentiate which of the aerobic gram-positive bacilli? A. Corynebacterium B. Erysipelothrix C. Lactobacillus D. Nocardia

B. Erysipelothrix

Cultures of the posterior pharynx are most commonly submitted to the clinical laboratory for the detection of: A. Corynebacterium diphtheriae B. Staphylococcus aureus C. Streptococcus pneumoniae D. Streptococcus pyogenes

D. Streptococcus pyogenes

Cystine-tellurite blood agar plates are recommended for the isolation of: A. Corynebacterium diphtheriae B. Streptococcus agalaciae C. Streptococcus pyogenes D. Group D streptococci

A. Corynebacterium diphtheriae

The characteristics of being lactose negative, citrate negative, urease negative, lysine decarboxylase negative, and nonmotile best describe which organism? A. Proteus vulgaris B. Yersinia pestis C. Salmonella enterica D. Shigella dysenteriae

D. Shigella dysenteriae

A fastidious gram-negative bacillus was isolated from a case of periodontal disease, which upon darkfield examination was noted to have gliding motility. The most likely identification of this etiologic agent would be: A. Capnocytophaga B. Chromobacterium C. Kingella D. Plesiomonas

A. Capnocytophaga

The classic toxigenic strains of which serogroup are implicated in epidemic infections of Vibrio cholerae? A. O1 B. O2 C. O3 D. O4

A. O1

The optimal specimen for the recovery of Bordetella pertussis is: A. Anterior nares swab B. Blood C. Expectorated sputum D. Nasopharyngeal swab

D. Nasopharyngeal swab

Preserves protein and formed elements well: A. Boric acid B. Formalin C. Thymol D. Toluene

A. Boric acid

What chemical can be used to preserve a specimen for a culture and a routine urinalysis? A. Boric acid B. Formalin C. Sodium fluoride D. Thymol

A. Boric acid

A cloudy urine specimen received in the laboratory may have been preserved using: A. Boric acid B. Chloroform C. Refrigeration D. Formalin

C. Refrigeration

Solutes in urine that exhibit diurnal variation: A. Nitrite B. Nitrite and ketone C. Catecholamines and 17-hydroxysteroids D. Catecholamines, 17-hydroxysteroids and electrolytes

D. Catecholamines, 17-hydroxysteroids and electrolytes

Only elements found in the urinary sediment that are unique to the kidney: A. Red blood cells B. White blood cells C. Casts D. Crystals

C. Casts

GRANULAR, DIRTY, BROWN CASTS representing hemoglobin degradation products are associated with: A. Cystitis B. Acute pyelonephritis C. Acute interstitial nephritis D. Acute tubular necrosis

D. Acute tubular necrosis

Precursor cell of oval fat bodies: A. Neutrophils B. Eosinophils C. Transitional epithelial cells D. Renal tubular epithelial cells

D. Renal tubular epithelial cells

Precursor cell of bubble cells: Bubble cells appear to represent injured cells in which the endoplasmic reticulum has dilated prior to cell death. A. Neutrophils B. Eosinophils C. Transitional epithelial cells D. Renal tubular epithelial cells

D. Renal tubular epithelial cells

Oval fat bodies are associated with: A. Liver cirrhosis B. Nephrotic syndrome C. Acute pyelonephritis D. Acute tubular necrosis

B. Nephrotic syndrome

Bubble cells are associated with: A. Liver cirrhosis B. Nephrotic syndrome C. Acute pyelonephritis D. Acute tubular necrosis

D. Acute tubular necrosis

Physiologic failure of pH to fall below 3.5 or 1.0 pH unit with gastric stimulation: A. Achlorhydria B. Hypochlorhydria C. Anacidity

A. Achlorhydria

Physiologic failure of pH to fall below 3.5, although it decreases 1.0 pH unit or more upon gastric stimulation: A. Achlorhydria B. Hypochlorhydria C. Anacidity

B. Hypochlorhydria

Failure of the stomach acidity to fall lower than 6.0 in a stimulation test: A. Achlorhydria B. Hypochlorhydria C. Anacidity

C. Anacidity

PHASE OF GASTRIC SECRETION that involves VAGUS NERVE STIMULATION caused by stimuli such as taste, smell, or sight: A. Cephalic phase B. Gastric phase C. Intestinal phase D. None of these

A. Cephalic phase

Bacterial, viral, and protozoan infections produce increased secretion of water and electrolytes, which override the reabsorptive ability of the large intestine, leading to: A. Osmotic diarrhea B. Secretory diarrhea C. Either of these D. None of these

B. Secretory diarrhea

Secretory diarrhea is caused by: A. Antibiotic administration B. Lactose intolerance C. Celiac sprue D. Vibrio cholerae

D. Vibrio cholerae

Maldigestion (impaired food digestion) and malabsorption (impaired nutrient absorption by the intestine) contribute to: A. Osmotic diarrhea B. Secretory diarrhea C. Either of these D. None of these

A. Osmotic diarrhea

Normal neutral fats with increased amount of fatty acids: A. Malabsorption B. Maldigestion C. Both of these D. None of these

A. Malabsorption

Useful early predictor of ACUTE KIDNEY INJURY (AKI) and has prognostic value for clinical endpoints, such as initiation of dialysis and mortality: A. Cystatin C B. Neutrophil gelatinase-associated lipocalin (NGAL) C. Urea D. Creatinine

B. Neutrophil gelatinase-associated lipocalin (NGAL)

CSF must be _____ if a delay in CELL COUNTING is anticipated: A. Frozen B. Incubated at 37C C. Maintained at room temperature D. Refrigerated

D. Refrigerated

Excess CSF should be: A. Discarded B. Refrigerated C. Frozen D. Maintained at room temperature

C. Frozen

100

Measurement of which of the following can be replaced by CSF glutamine analysis in children with Reye syndrome? A. Ammonia B. Lactate C. Glucose D. Alpha-ketoglutarate

A. Ammonia

other names parasitology

Yves Laure Pimentel · 70問 · 2年前

other names parasitology