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1
Which of the following clinical disorders is associated with the greatest elevation of lactate dehydrogenase? a. Pneumonia b. Glomerulonephritis c. Pancreatitis d. Pernicious anemia
d. Pernicious anemia
2
The most specific indicator of myocardial infarction: a. Troponin I b. Myoglobin c. AST d. CK-MB
a. Troponin I
3
Ca concentration in the serum is regulated by: a. Insulin b. Parathyroid hormone c. Thyroxine d. Vitamin C
b. Parathyroid hormone
4
Which are considered in pre-analytical quality assurance in relation to specimen management? 1. Correctly separated or centrifuged 2. Tests done within specified timeframes 3. Intact and seal 4. Stored properly a. 1, 2, and 4 b. 1 and 4 c. 2, 3, and 4 d. 1, 2, 3, and 4
a. 1, 2, and 4
5
The enzyme, which exist chiefly in skeletal muscle, heart, and brain, is grossly elevated in active muscular dystrophy, and rises early in myocardial infarction is: a. Lipase b. Aspartate transaminase c. Lactate dehydrogenase d. Creatine kinase
d. Creatine kinase
6
What protein fraction migrates the farthest towards the anode? a. Albumin b. Alpha globulins c. Beta globulins d. Gamma globulins
a. Albumin
7
Osmolality can be defined as a measure of the concentration of a solution based on: a. The number of particles present b. The number and size of particles present c. The density of particles present d. The isoelectric point of a particle
a. The number of particles present
8
In which of the following disease states would you see an elevation in total bilirubin and conjugated bilirubin only? a. Biliary obstruction b. Hemolytic anemia c. Neonatal jaundice d. Hepatitis
a. Biliary obstruction
9
What common substrate is used in the biosynthesis of adrenal steroids, including androgens and estrogens? a. Cortisol b. Catecholamines c. Progesterone d. Cholesterol
d. Cholesterol
10
Hepatocellular damage may be best assessed by which of the following parameters? a. Serum AST and ALT b. Serum GGT and ALP c. Bilirubin, GGT, and ALP d. Ammonia and urea
a. Serum AST and ALT
11
Where does TCA happens? a. Mitochondria b. Deoxyribonucleic acid c. Ribonucleic acid d. Golgi apparatus
a. Mitochondria
12
Unconjugated bilirubin: (1) Cannot appear in urine (2) Can appear in urine (3) Direct bilirubin (4) Indirect bilirubin a. 1 and 3 b. 1 and 4 c. 2 and 3 d. 2 and 4
b. 1 and 4
13
If a screening TSH is high, which test is likely to be ordered next? a. Cholesterol b. Free T4 c. Ferritin d. Glucose
b. Free T4
14
Which of the following blood samples would serve best to assay lipoproteins because this anticoagulant preserve lipoproteins? a. EDTA plasma sample b. Heparin plasma sample c. Citrate plasma sample d. Fluoride plasma sample
a. EDTA plasma sample
15
What is the critical value for hypoglycemia? a. >20 mg/dL b. >30 mg/dL c. >40 mg/dL d. >50 mg/dL
c. >40 mg/dL
16
Sample of choice for potassium measurement: a. Whole blood b. Plasma c. Urine d. Serum
b. Plasma
17
The Dubowski method for glucose utilizes: a. Arsenomolybdic acid b. Orthotoluidine c. G6PD d. Mutarotase
b. Orthotoluidine
18
Which of the following formula refers to globulin? a. Total protein + albumin b. Total protein – albumin c. Total protein x albumin d. Total protein / albumin
b. Total protein – albumin
19
Which test might be used to assess a person who is disoriented or confused? a. Cholesterol b. Ammonia c. CRPs d. Iron
b. Ammonia
20
Which of the following sets of values for repeat analyses of a sample (target value of 100) shows the least bias? a. 100, 105, 110 b. 95, 100, 105 c. 90, 95, 100 d. 90, 100, 105
b. 95, 100, 105
21
Measurements of bilirubin in chemistry analyzers are based on: a. Nephelometry b. Turbidimetry c. Photometry d. None of the above
c. Photometry
22
Which of the following refers to chylomicrons? a. I b. II c. III d. IV
a. I
23
The recommended initial thyroid function test for either a healthy, asymptomatic patient for a patient with symptoms which may be related to a thyroid disorder is: a. Free thyroxine (free T4) b. Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) c. Total thyroxine (T4) d. Triiodothyronine (T3)
b. Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)
24
The biologically most active, naturally occurring androgen is: a. Androstenedione b. Cortisol c. Epiandrosterone d. Testosterone
d. Testosterone
25
Kinetic enzyme assays are best performed during which phase of an enzymatic reaction? a. Linear phase b. Lag phase c. Plateau phase d. Any phase as long as temp. and pH are constant
a. Linear phase
26
Unconjugated bilirubin: (1) Cannot appear in urine (2) Can appear in urine (3) Direct bilirubin (4) Indirect bilirubin a. 1 and 3 b. 1 and 4 c. 2 and 3 d. 2 and 4
b. 1 and 4
27
What is the most common cause of pseudohyperkalemia? a. In vitro phenomenon b. Diarrhea c. Starvation d. Blood transfusion
a. In vitro phenomenon
28
A fasting blood sugar result of equal or greater than ____ is diagnostic for diabetes mellitus. a. 90 mg/dL b. 126 mg/dL c. 110 mg/dL d. None of the above
b. 126 mg/dL
29
Which is a sign of primary adrenal insufficiency? a. Acidosis b. Hypertension c. Hypokalemia d. Hypercortisolism
a. Acidosis
30
During pregnancy, the form of estrogen measured in urine is mostly: a. Estradiol b. Estriol c. Estrone d. Pregnanediol
b. Estriol
31
What is the sample of choice for measuring blood osmolality? a. Serum b. Plasma c. Whole blood d. Urine
a. Serum
32
Which of the following does not contain alcohol? a. Soju b. Wine c. Brandy d. Root beer
d. Root beer
33
Which test might be ordered on a patient with abdominal pain to test for possible pancreatitis? a. Amylase and lipase b. Sodium and potassium c. Cholesterol and triglyceride d. C3 and C4
a. Amylase and lipase
34
Type 1 Diabetes mellitus: (I) Detectable C-peptide level (II) Undetectable C-peptide level (III) Most common in childhood/teens (IV) Most common in advancing age a. I and III b. I and IV c. II and III d. II and IV
c. II and III
35
Most common method for electrolyte testing involves: a. Turbidimetry b. Nephelometry c. Potentiometry d. Fluorometry
c. Potentiometry
36
How is tolbutamide administered in tolbutamide tolerance test? a. Intramuscularly b. Intravenously c. Subcutaneously d. Percutaneously
b. Intravenously
37
Which of the following would be most adversely affected by a nonfasting sample? a. HDL b. LDL c. Cholesterol d. Triglycerides
d. Triglycerides
38
Neurotoxic product of amino acid deamination: a. Ammonia b. Urea c. Uric acid d. Creatinine
a. Ammonia
39
Which type of lipids are steroids derived from? a. Glyceride b. Nonglyceride c. Fatty acid d. Complex
b. Nonglyceride
40
Plasma cortisol determinations were collected at 7 AM, after waking the patient, and at 10 PM that evening. The cortisol level of the morning sample was higher than the evening sample. This is consistent with: A. A normal finding b. Cushing syndrome c. Addison disease d. Hypopituitarism
A. A normal finding
41
Which of the following buffers is used in the IFCC recommended method for ALP? a. Acetic acid b. Tris-EDTA c. 2-Amino-2-methyl-1-propanol d. Bicarbonate
c. 2-Amino-2-methyl-1-propanol
42
At what serum glucose concentration would glucose begin to appear in the urine (renal threshold)? a. 50 mg/dL b. 75 mg/dL c. 100 mg/dL d. 170 mg/dL
d. 170 mg/dL
43
Which of the following methods is used as the primary reference method in the determination of HBA1c? a. HPLC b. Affinity chromatography c. Ion-exchange chromatography d. Immunoassay
a. HPLC
44
Which of the following refers to a warning rule?
A
45
Albumin level in ascites: a. No effect b. Variable c. Increased d. Decreased
d. Decreased
46
Creatinine is formed in the: a. Liver b. Muscles c. Brain d. Kidney
b. Muscles
47
Which of the following is secreted by the placenta and used for the early detection of pregnancy? a. Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) b. Human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG) c. Luteinizing hormone d. Progesterone
b. Human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG)
48
The center of thyroid hormone production: a. Follicle b. Parafollicle c. Anterior pituitary gland d. Posterior pituitary gland
a. Follicle
49
Which set of results is consistent with uncompensated metabolic acidosis? a. pH 7.25, HCO3 15 mmol/L, PCO2 37 mmHg b. pH 7.30, HCO3 16 mmol/L, PCO2 30 mmHg c. pH 7.45, HCO3 22 mmol/L, pCO2 40 mmHg d. pH 7.40, HCO3 25 mmol/L, pCO2 40 mmHg
a. pH 7.25, HCO3 15 mmol/L, PCO2 37 mmHg
50
The chart demonstrated trend, starting at: a. Day 7 b. Day 8 c. Day 10 d. Day 11
c. Day 10
51
A farmer that is working in the field accidentally had a pesticide poisoning. Cholinesterase activity is tested, which of the following is the expected result? a. Increased b. Decreased c. Variable result d. Normal
b. Decreased
52
Chief plasma cation whose main function is maintaining osmotic pressure a. Chloride b. Calcium c. Sodium d. Potassium
c. Sodium
53
The following target shows a set of result that show a high degree of: a. Accuracy b. Precision c. Sensitivity d. Specificity
b. Precision
54
How should a laboratory verify the reference range it uses for a particular test? a. Call another laboratory b. Use the numbers form a textbook c. Test samples from healthy people d. Look on a medical internet site
c. Test samples from healthy people
55
The pituitary gland is located in a small cavity in the ________ of the skull called Sella turcica or Turkish saddle. a. Lacrimal bone b. Ethmoid bone c. Sphenoid bone d. External acoustic meatus
c. Sphenoid bone
56
Creatinine is expressed in: a. umol/L b. mL/s c. mmol/L d. mL/min
a. umol/L
57
The majority of thyroxine (T4) is converted into the more biologically active hormone: a. Thyroglobulin b. Thyroid-stimulating hormone c. Triiodothyronine (T3) d. Thyrotropin-releasing hormone
c. Triiodothyronine (T3)
58
Cocaine is metabolized to: a. Carbamazepine b. Codeine c. Hydrocodone d. Benzoylecgonine
d. Benzoylecgonine
59
What form of sugar in the liver is converted to glucose? a. Starch b. Cellulose c. Glycogen d. Amylopectin
c. Glycogen
60
Which of the following is a rare autosomal recessive disorder characterized by the absence of VLDL, LDL, and chylomicrons? a. Bassen-Kornzweig syndrome b. Tangier disease c. Anderson’s disease d. Sitosterolemia
a. Bassen-Kornzweig syndrome
61
An electrophoretic separation of lactate dehydrogenase isoenzymes that demonstrates an elevation in LD-1 and LD-2 in a flipped pattern is consistent with: a. Myocardial infarction b. Viral hepatitis c. Pancreatitis d. Renal failure
a. Myocardial infarction
62
Which of the following statements best describes the predominant feedback system associated with endocrinology? a. Decreased levels of circulating hormones directly result in the production of hormone from the target organ b. Increased circulating levels of hormones directly result in the production of releasing factor from the hypothalamus c. Increased circulating levels of hormones directly result in the production of inhibiting factor from the hypothalamus d. Normal levels of circulating hormones directly result in the production of hormone from the target organ
c. Increased circulating levels of hormones directly result in the production of inhibiting factor from the hypothalamus
63
A patient sample is assayed for fasting triglycerides and a triglyceride value of 1036 mg/dL. This value is of immediate concern because of its association with which of the following conditions? a. Coronary heart disease b. Diabetes c. Pancreatitis d. Gout
c. Pancreatitis
64
What is the main reason that causes the following blood gas values: pH= 7.25 pCO2= 36 mmHg HCO3= 19 mEq/L a. Hypoventilation b. Bicarbonate retention c. Hyperventilation d. Bicarbonate loss
d. Bicarbonate loss
65
Which of the following apoproteins is inversely related to risk for coronary heart disease and is a surrogate marker for HDL? a. Apo A-I b. Apo B48 c. Apo B100 d. Apo E
a. Apo A-I
66
How is ethanol formed? a. Fermentation of sugars b. Oxidation of fats c. Breakdown of purines d. None of the above
a. Fermentation of sugars
67
Which of the following enzymes is the best indicator of pancreatic function? a. AST b. ALT c. Amylase d. Lipase
d. Lipase
68
Conjugated bilirubin: (1) Cannot appear in urine (2) Can appear in urine (3) Direct bilirubin (4) Indirect bilirubin a. 1 and 3 b. 1 and 4 c. 2 and 3 d. 2 and 4
c. 2 and 3
69
Type II Diabetes mellitus: (I) Detectable C-peptide level (II) Undetectable C-peptide level (III) Most common in childhood/teens (IV) Most common in advancing age a. I and III b. I and IV c. II and III d. II and IV
b. I and IV
70
Starting at day number 7, the control values demonstrated: a. Trend b. Shift c. Outliers d. None of the above
b. Shift
71
A Gaussian distribution is usually: a. Bell-shaped b. Rectangular c. Bimodal d. Skewe
a. Bell-shaped
72
Which of the following apoproteins is responsible for receptor binding for IDL and the chylomicron remnant produced in fat transport? a. Apo A1 b. Apo C c. Apo E d. Apo B
c. Apo E
73
Trophic hormones are produced by the ______, and releasing factors are produced by the ______. a. Hypothalamus; pituitary b. Pituitary; hypothalamus c. Specific endocrine glands; hypothalamus d. Pituitary; target gland
b. Pituitary; hypothalamus
74
In the direct Jaffe method for creatinine, a _____ tautomer of creatinine picrate is formed when creatinine is mixed with alkaline picrate reagent. a. Yellow-green b. Blue-green c. Mauve lavender d. Red-orange
d. Red-orange
75
Which of the following enzymes catalyzes the conversion of p-nitrophenyl phosphate to a colored pnitrophenol product? a. AST b. ALT c. ALP d. GGT
c. ALP
76
Which of the following is the most specific enzymatic method for glucose determination (employing G6PD as a second coupling step)? a. Glucose oxidase b. Glucose dehydrogenase c. Hexokinase d. Pyruvate kinase
c. Hexokinase
77
To maintain electrical neutrality in the red blood cell, bicarbonate leaves the red blood cell and enters the plasma through an exchange mechanism with which of the following? a. TCO2 b. Sodium c. Chloride d. Phosphate
c. Chloride
78
Of the following, which will most likely interfere with quantification of thyroglobulin? a. Antithyrogolobulin autoantibodies b. Thyroid-stimulating antibodies c. TSH receptor antibodies d. Thyroid peroxidase antibodies
a. Antithyrogolobulin autoantibodies
79
End color of phosphotungstic acid (Caraway method) for uric acid? a. Red b. Orange c. Blue d. Yellow
c. Blue
80
It is the main storage lipid in humans (found in adipose tissue); constitutes 95% of stored fat: a. Cholesterol b. Phospholipid c. Fatty acids d. Triglycerides
d. Triglycerides
81
Which of the following is the correct collection and handling for the analysis of blood gases? a. Plastic syringe, dry heparin, store on ice, assay within 1 hour b. Glass syringe, liquid heparin, store on ice, assay within 15 minutes c. Glass syringe, no additive, store on ice, assay within 15 minutes d. Plastic syringe, dry heparin, store at room temperature, assay within 15 minutes
d. Plastic syringe, dry heparin, store at room temperature, assay within 15 minutes
82
Which specimen is the sample of choice for lead screening? a. Whole blood b. Hair c. Serum d. Urine
a. Whole blood
83
Which of the following sets of values for repeat analyses of a QC sample (target value of 50) reflects the best precision? a. 50, 51, 52 b. 50, 52, 56 c. 48, 50, 52 d. 44, 50, 53
a. 50, 51, 52
84
What is the least sensitive marker for the diagnosis of pheochromocytoma? a. Plasma metanephrine b. Plasma catecholamines c. Urine metanephrine d. Vanillylmandelic acid
d. Vanillylmandelic acid
85
Lead toxicity is acquired via: (1) Skin contact (2) Animal bites (3) Inhalation (4) Ingestion a. 1, 2, 3, and 4 b. 1, 2, and 3 c. 2, 3, and 4 d. 1, 3, and 4
d. 1, 3, and 4
86
Which are considered in post-analytical quality assurance in relation to timeliness? a. Turnaround times recorded and analyzed b. Including laboratory care in patient surveys c. Specimen collection explained to the patient d. Results are accurately transcribed into the system
a. Turnaround times recorded and analyzed
87
Which of these drug levels would be considered toxic? a. Alcohol at 80 mg/dL b. Valproic acid at 50 ug/dL c. Digoxin at 2 ng/mL d. Acetaminophen at 250 ug/mL e. Salicylate at 27 mg/dL
d. Acetaminophen at 250 ug/mL
88
First step in preanalytical phase? a. Test order b. Patient preparation c. Specimen collection d. Specimen handling
a. Test order
89
The last step in the enzymatic measurement for cholesterol involves which reaction? a. Trinder reaction b. Caraway reaction c. Diazo reaction d. Fearow’s reaction
a. Trinder reaction
90
Abnormality of the hypoxanthine guanine phosphoribosyl transferase indicate problems with ____ metabolism: a. Purine b. Pyrimidine c. Muscle d. Amino acid
a. Purine
91
Used to calibrate pH electrode: a. Distilled water b. Tap water c. Buffers d. None of the above
c. Buffers
92
Which of the following tests is a good marker of nutritional status? a. Immunoglobulin M b. Prealbumin c. Ceruloplasmin d. Lp(a)
b. Prealbumin
93
Of the following, which will most likely interfere with quantification of thyroglobulin? a. Antithyrogolobulin autoantibodies b. Thyroid-stimulating antibodies c. TSH receptor antibodies d. Thyroid peroxidase antibodies
a. Antithyrogolobulin autoantibodies
94
Which of the following anticoagulants is generally suitable for most drug analyses (TDM)? a. Heparin b. EDTA c. Citrate d. Oxalate
a. Heparin
95
True about CRP: (I) Elevated in bacterial infection (II) It may be used as a cardiac marker (III) It is an acute inflammatory marker (III) It is a chronic inflammatory marker a. I and III b. I, II, and III c. I, II, and IV d. I, II, III, and IV
b. I, II, and III
96
Which of the following lipoproteins is considered as the smallest of all lipoproteins and is composed of 50% proteins? a. HDL b. Chylomicrons c. Triglycerides d. LDL
a. HDL
97
Thyroid hormones are derived from which of the following? a. Histidine b. Cholesterol c. Tyrosine d. Phenylalanine
c. Tyrosine
98
What is both an enzyme and a hormone? a. Acetylcholinesterase b. Renin c. Cortisol d. None of the above
b. Renin
99
What is the critical value for hyperglycemia? a. >200 mg/dL b. >300 mg/dL c. >400 mg/dL d. >500 mg/dL
d. >500 mg/dL