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100問 • 1年前

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A bacterial protein used to bind human immunoglobulins is: a HAV antibody, IgA type b Escherichia coli protein C c staphylococcal protein A d HAV antibody, IgG type

c staphylococcal protein A

Which of the following is the best indicator of an acute infection with the hepatitis A virus? a the presence of IgG antibodies to hepatitis A virus b the presence of IgM antibodies to hepatitis A virus ec asharp decline in the level of IgG antibodies to hepatitis A virus d arise in both IgM and IgG levels of antibody to hepatitis A virus

b the presence of IgM antibodies to hepatitis A virus

Biological false-positive VDRL reactions are frequently encountered in patients with: a lupus erythematosus b acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS) c gonorrhea d tertiary syphilis

a lupus erythematosus

Which serological marker of HBV (hepatitis B virus) infection indicates recovery and immunity? viral DNA polymerase HBe antigen anti-HBs HBsAg

anti-HBs

The profile that matches the typical test profile for chronic active hepatitis due to hepatitis B virus is: a profile A b profile B c profile C d profile D

a profile A

For diagnosis of late latent or tertiary syphilis, the most appropriate assay is: a RPR b VDRi. c FTA-ABS d ETA-ABS IgM

c FTA-ABS

A 26-year-old nurse developed fatigue, a low-grade fever, polyarthritis and urticaria. Two months earlier she had cared for a patient with hepatitis. Which of the following findings are likely to be observed in this nurse? a negative hepatitis B surface antigen test elevated AST and ALT levels a positive rheumatoid factor a positive Monospot™ test

elevated AST and ALT levels

The classic antibody response pattern following infection with hepatitis A is: a increase in IgM antibody; decrease in IgM antibody; increase in IgG antibody b detectable presence of IgG antibody only c detectable presence of IgM antibody only d decrease in IgM antibody; increase in IgG antibody of the IgG3 subtype

a increase in IgM antibody; decrease in IgM antibody; increase in IgG antibody

Refer to the following illustration of the hepatitis B virus: Select the corresponding lettered component indicated on the diagram for surface antigen. a A b B c C d D

a A

Refer to the following illustration of the hepatitis B virus: Select the corresponding lettered component indicated on the diagram for e antigen. a A b B c C d D

d D

Refer to the following illustration of the hepatitis B virus: Select the corresponding lettered component indicated on the diagram for core antigen. a A b B c C d D

c C

Refer to the following illustration of the hepatitis B virus: Select the corresponding lettered component indicated on the diagram for viral DNA. a A b B c C d D

b B

The 20-nm spheres and filamentous structures of HBV are: a infectious b circulating aggregates of HBcAg c circulating aggregates of HBsAg d highly infectious when present in great abundance

c circulating aggregates of HBsAg

The enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) technique for the detection of HBsAg: requires radiolabeled Clq is quantitated by degree of fluorescence uses anti-HBs linked to horseradish peroxidase uses beads coated with HBsAg

uses anti-HBs linked to horseradish peroxidase

The antigen marker most closely associated with transmissibility of HBV infection is: a HBsAg b HBeAg c HBcAg d HBV

b HBeAg

Chronic carriers of HBV: a have chronic symptoms of hepatitis b continue to carry HBV ¢ do not transmit infection d carry HBV but are not infectious

b continue to carry HBV

Hepatitis C differs from hepatitis A because it: has a highly stable incubation period is associated with a high incidence of icteric hepatitis is associated with a high incidence of the chronic carrier state is seldom implicated in cases of posttransfusion hepatitis

is associated with a high incidence of the chronic carrier state

The initial immune response following fetal infection with rubella is the production of which class(es) of antibodies? a igG b IgA c IgM d both IgG and IgA

c IgM

A maternal serum rubella titer that is equal to or greater than 1:8 indicates: a probable immunity to rubella b evidence of acute rubella infection c susceptibility to rubella infection d absence of acute rubella

a probable immunity to rubella

A false-negative cold agglutinin test may result if: the specimen is centrifuged at room temperature the cold agglutinin demonstrates anti-I specificity the specimen is refrigerated prior to serum separation adult human O red cells are used in the assay

the specimen is refrigerated prior to serum separation

Which of the following is a treponemal test? RST RPR FTA-ABS VDRL

FTA-ABS

The air temperature throughout the serology laboratory is 20°C. How will this affect VDRL and RPR test results? a no effect—the acceptable test range is 20°-24°C b weaken reactions so that false negatives occur c strengthen reactions so that positive titers appear elevated d increase the number of false positives from spontaneous clumping

b weaken reactions so that false negatives occur

Which laboratory technique is most frequently used to diagnose and follow the course of therapy of a patient with secondary syphilis? a flocculation b precipitation c complement fixation d indirect immunofluorescence

a flocculation

A patient suspected of having toxoplasmosis has a specific IgG antibody titer of 1:64 upon initial testing, The titer of a second serum sample from the patient, taken 3 weeks later, was 1:256. These results are indicative of: a past infection b present infection c allergic response d recent vaccination

b present infection

The most commonly used serological indicator of recent streptococcal infection is the antibody to: a streptolysin O b hyaluronidase c NADase d DNA

a streptolysin O

Antibodies composed of IgG immunoglobulin: occur during the primary response to antigen are larger molecules than IgM antibodies can cross the placenta from mother to fetus can be detected in saline crossmatches

can cross the placenta from mother to fetus

Measurement of serum levels of which of the following immunoglobulins can serve as a screening test for multiple allergies? IgA IgE IgG IgM

IgE

Cells that are precursors of plasma cells and also produce immunoglobulins are: macrophages B lymphocytes T lymphocytes monocytes

B lymphocytes

IgM antibodies are frequently hemolytic because of: a their dimeric structure b the molecule’s 5 antigen binding sites ¢ their sedimentation coefficient of 7-15 S$ d their efficient ability to fix complement

d their efficient ability to fix complement

To which of the following classes do the antibodies that cause hemolytic disease of the newborn belong? a IgA b IgE c IgG d igD

c IgG

It is important to note that when an infant is born, levels of specific antibody of the following class are used to indicate neonatal infection: a IgA b IgG c IgM d IgD

b IgG

The immunoglobulin classes mest commonly found on the surface of circulating B lymphocytes in the peripheral blood of normal persons are: IgM, IgA IgM, IgG IgM, IgD IgM, IgE

IgM, IgD

Antibodies are produced by: a killer cells b marrow stem cells c mast cells d B cells

d B cells

Antibody class and antibody subclass are determined by major physiochemical differences and antigenic variation found primarily in the: constant region of heavy chain constant region of light chain variable regions of heavy and light chains constant regions of heavy and light chains

constant region of heavy chain

The ratio of kappa to lambda light chain producing cells in normal individuals is: 1:1 2:1 3:1 4:1

2:1

Which of the following immunoglobulin classes is associated with a secretory component (transport piece)? a IgA b IgD c IgE d IgG

a IgA

The immunoglobulin class typically found to be present in saliva, tears and other secretions is: a IgG b IgA c IgM d IgD

b IgA

Treatment of IgG with papain results in how many fragments from each immunoglobulin molecule? A 2 B 3 C 4 D 5

B 3

The immunoglobulin class associated with immediate hypersensitivity or atopic reactions is: IgA IgM IgD IgE

IgE

Which of the following immunoglobulins is the most efficient at agglutination? a IgG b IgA c IgM d IgE

c IgM

Polyclonal B cell activation: inhibits antibody production requires the participation of T helper cells results from the activation of suppressor T cells can induce autoantibody production

can induce autoantibody production

Antibodies to which of the following immunoglobulins is known to have produced anaphylactic reactions following blood transfusion? a IgA b IgD c IgE d IgG

a IgA

The key structural difference that distinguishes immunoglobulin subclasses is the: a number of domains b stereometry of the hypervariable region c the sequence of the constant regions d covalent linkage of the light chains

c the sequence of the constant regions

Immunoglobulin idiotypic diversity is best explained by the theory of: a somatic mutation b germ line recombination ¢ antigen induction d_ clonal selection

b germ line recombination

Which of the following are true statements about selective IgA deficiency? a associated with a decreased incidence of allergic manifestations b high concentration of secretory component in the saliva c associated with an increased incidence of autoimmune diseases d found in approximately 1 out of every 50 persons

c associated with an increased incidence of autoimmune diseases

Which class of immunoglobulin is thought to function as an antigenic receptor site on the surface of immature B lymphocytes? a IgD b IgM c IgA d IgG

b IgM

The IgM molecule is a: dimer trimer tetramer pentamer

pentamer

Which of the following immunoglobulins is present in the highest concentration in normal human serum? a IgM b IgG c IgA d IgE

b IgG

Which of the following statements about immunoglobulins is true? a immunoglobulins are produced by T lymphocytes b IgA class is determined by the gamma heavy chain c IgA class exists as serum and secretory molecules d there are only 2 subclasses of IgG

c IgA class exists as serum and secretory molecules

Membrane-bound immunoglobulin molecules: have an additional amino-terminal sequence of about 40 residues are not anchored in a transmembrane configuration are anchored by a hydrophobic sequence of about 26 residues are anchored by a hydrophilic region

are anchored by a hydrophobic sequence of about 26 residues

The area of the immunoglobulin molecule referred to as the hinge region is located between which domains? a VH and VL b CH1 and CH2 c CH2 and CH3 d CH3 and VL

b CH1 and CH2

Antibody idiotype is dictated by the: constant region of heavy chain constant region of light chain variable regions of heavy and light chains constant regions of heavy and light chains

variable regions of heavy and light chains

Antibody allotype is determined by the: constant region of heavy chain constant region of light chain variable regions of heavy and light chains constant regions of heavy and light chains

constant regions of heavy and light chains

Which IgG subclass is most efficient at crossing the placenta? a IgG1 b IgG2 c IgG3 d IgG4

a IgG1

The J-chain is associated with which of the following immunoglobulins? a IgA b IgG c IgE d IgD

a IgA

The assembly of the complement “membrane attack unit” is initiated with the binding of: a C1 b C3 c C4 d C5

d C5

Macrophages are characterized by: surface receptors for C3b complement surface CD3 expression in vitro synthesis of immunoglobulin large amounts of rough endoplasmic reticulum

surface receptors for C3b complement

Macrophage phagocytosis of bacteria is enhanced by which of the following: a opsonin b antigen c hapten d secretory piece

a opsonin

Which of the following is most likely to activate the alternative pathway of complement activation? a lipopolysaccharides b glycoproteins c haptens d IgG complexed with antigen

c haptens

Which of the following is the larger residual split portion of C3? a C3a b C3b c C4 d Clq

b C3b

Which of the following activities is associated with C3b? opsonization anaphylaxis vasoconstriction chemotaxis

opsonization

After a penicillin injection, a patient rapidly develops respiratory distress, vomiting and hives. This reaction is primarily mediated by: IgG IgA IgM IgE

IgE

Which of the following is the “recognition unit” in the classical complement pathway? C1q C3a c4 C5

C1q

In immunofixation electrophoresis: a the antibody reacts with the antigen and then the complex is electrophoresed b the antigen is electrophoresed into an antibody containing gel c the antigen is electrophoresed and then monospecific antisera is reacted with it d the antigen is electrophoresed, transferred to nitrocellulose and then antibody reacts with it and an EIA is performed

c the antigen is electrophoresed and then monospecific antisera is reacted with it

Which of the following is the “membrane attack complex” of complement activation? a C1 b C3 c C4,C2,C3 d C5b, C6, C7, C8, C9

d C5b, C6, C7, C8, C9

Which of the following releases histamine and other mediators from basophils? properdin factor B Clq C4

C3a

The complement component C3: is increased (in plasma levels) when complement activation occurs can be measured by immunoprecipitin assays causes the conversion of C4 to C4a + C4b is not involved in the alternate complement pathway

can be measured by immunoprecipitin assays

The serum hemolytic complement level (CH50): a isa measure of total complement activity b provides the same information as a serum factor B level c is detectable when any component of the classical system is congenitally absent d can be calculated from the serum concentrations of the individual components

a is a measure of total complement activity

A single, reliable screening test for detecting neonatal infection in the absence of clinical signs is: a serum immunoelectrophoresis b differential leukocyte count c CD4 cell counts d quantitative serum IgM determination

d quantitative serum IgM determination

Bence Jones proteins are: immunoglobulin catabolic fragments in the urine monoclonal light chains whole immunoglobulins in the urine Fab fragments of a monoclonal protein

monoclonal light chains

A patient’s serum IgA as measured by radial immunodiffusion (RID) was 40 mg/dL. Another laboratory reported IgA absent. A possible explanation for this discrepancy is that the: a rabbit antiserum was used in the RID plates and rabbit antisera should not be utilized in RID assays b IgA has an Fc deletion that cause complex formation in vivo c IgA antiserum has kappa specificity d patient serum has antibodies against a protein in the antiserum in the agarose of the RID utilized by the first lab

d patient serum has antibodies against a protein in the antiserum in the agarose of the RID utilized by the first lab

Goat anti-human IgG heavy chain specific alkaline phosphatase conjugate is a: . monoclonal reagent that reacts with gamma heavy chains monoclonal reagent that reacts with light chains polyclonal reagent that reacts with gamma heavy chains polyclonal reagent that reacts with light chains

polyclonal reagent that reacts with gamma heavy chains

Humoral antibodies are produced by which cells? a macrophages b T lymphocytes c B lymphocytes d neutrophils

c B lymphocytes

Initiation of the activation mechanism of the alternative complement pathway differs from that of the classical pathway in that: a antigen-antibody complexes containing IgM or IgG are required b endotoxin alone cannot initiate activation ¢ C1 component of complement is involved d antigen-antibody complexes containing IgA or IgE may initiate activation

d antigen-antibody complexes containing IgA or IgE may initiate activation

Which of the following is cleaved as a result of activation of the classical complement pathway? a properdin factor B b Clq c C4 d C3b

c C4

The component associated only with the alternative pathway of complement activation is: C4 Clq properdin factor B C3a

properdin factor B

Which of the following complement components is a strong chernotactic factor as well as a strong anaphylatoxin? a C3a b C3b c C5a d C4a

c C5a

The C3b component of complement: is undetectable in pathological sera is a component of the C3 cleaving enzyme of the classical pathway is cleaved by C3 inactivator into C3¢ and C3d is not part of the alternative pathway

is cleaved by C3 inactivator into C3¢ and C3d

Components of the complement system most likely to coat a cell are: a Cl andC2 b C3 and C4 ¢ C6and C7 d C8 and C9

b C3 and C4

‘The serological test that can be modified to selectively detect only specific IgM antibody in untreated serum is: Ouchterlony enzyme immunoassay hemagglutination inhibition passive hemagglutination

enzyme immunoassay

patient's serum is being analyzed in a sandwich assay. This patient has received mouse monoclonal antibody therapy, and shows a false positive reaction in the sandwich assay, which is due to: a the mouse antibody in the patient’s serum reacting to the antigen b the presence of human anti-mouse antibody activity c antibody to a mouse virus d production of a monoclonal gammopathy of unknown significance after the antibody treatment

b the presence of human anti-mouse antibody activity

A monoclonal spike of IgG, Bence Jones proteinuria, and bone pain are usually associated with: a Burkitt lymphoma b Bruton disease c severe combined immunodeficiency disease d multiple myeloma

d multiple myeloma

The hyperviscosity syndrome is mest likely to be seen in monoclonal disease of which of the following immunoglobulin classes? IgA IgM IgG IgD

IgM

Patients suffering from Waldenstrom macroglobulinemia demonstrate excessively increased concentrations of which of the following? IgG IgA IgM IgD

IgM

Which of the following is the mest common humoral immune deficiency disease? a Bruton agammaglobulinemia b IgG deficiency c selective IgA deficiency d Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome

c selective IgA deficiency

Which of the following is a true statement about Bruton agammaglobulinemia? it is found only in females there are normal numbers of circulating B cells there are decreased to absent concentrations of immunoglobulins the disease presents with pyogenic infections 1 week after birth

there are decreased to absent concentrations of immunoglobulins

Immunodeficiency with thrombocytopenia and eczema is often referred to as: a DiGeorge syndrome b Bruton agammaglobulinemia c ataxia telangiectasia d Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome

d Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome

The autosomal recessive form of severe combined immunodeficiency disease is also referred to as: a Bruton agammaglobulinemia b Swiss-type lymphopenic agammaglobulinemia c DiGeorge syndrome d Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome

b Swiss-type lymphopenic agammaglobulinemia

In hybridoma technology, the desirable fused cell is the: myeloma-myeloma hybrid myeloma-lymphocyte hybrid lymphocyte-lymphocyte hybrid lymphocyte-granulocyte hybrid

myeloma-lymphocyte hybrid

Potent chemotactic activity is associated with which of the following components of the complement system: C1q C5a C3b IgG

C5a

Hereditary angioedema is characterized by: decreased activity of C3 decreased activity of C1 esterase inhibitor increased activity of C1 esterase inhibitor increased activity of C2

decreased activity of C1 esterase inhibitor

Which of the following has been associated with patients who have homozygous C3 deficiency? undetectable hemolytic complement activity in the serum systemic lupus erythematosus no detectable disease a lifelong history of life-threatening infections

a lifelong history of life-threatening infections

Hereditary deficiency of early complement components (C1, C4 and C2) is associated with: pneumococcal septicemia small bowel obstruction lupus erythematosus like syndrome gonococcemia

lupus erythematosus like syndrome

Hereditary deficiency of late complement components (C5, C6, C7 or C8) can be associated with which of the following conditions? pneumococcal septicemia small bowel obstruction systemic lupus erythematosus a systemic gonococcal infection if exposed

a systemic gonococcal infection if exposed

For several months a 31-year-old woman has had migratory polyarthritis and a skin rash. Upon admission to the hospital, the following laboratory data were obtained: This patient’s test results are consistent with: a dermatomyositis b CIINH deficiency ¢ systemic lupus erythematosus d mixed connective tissue disease

¢ systemic lupus erythematosus

Infantile X-linked agammaglobulinemia is referred to as: a Bruton agammaglobulinemia b DiGeorge syndrome c Swiss-type agammaglobulinemia d ataxia telangicctasia

a Bruton agammaglobulinemia

Combined immunodeficiency disease with loss of muscle coordination is referred to as: a DiGeorge syndrome b Bruton agammaglobulinemia c ataxia telangiectasia d Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome

c ataxia telangiectasia

In skin tests, a wheal and flare development is indicative of: a immediate hypersensitivity b delayed hypersensitivity c anergy d Arthus reaction

a immediate hypersensitivity

Which immunologic mechanism is usually involved in bronchial asthma? a immediate hypersensitivity b antibody mediated cytotoxicity ¢ immune complex d delayed hypersensitivity

a immediate hypersensitivity

100

Antihistamines like Benadryl®: a depress IgE production b block antigen binding to surface IgE c bind histamine d_ block H1 histamine receptors

d_ block H1 histamine receptors

other names parasitology

Yves Laure Pimentel · 70問 · 2年前

other names parasitology