SUMMATIVE EXAM PART 1

60問 • 1年前

問題一覧

What is the lowest level of hormone for which most current serum hCG tests can give a positive result? A. 25 mIU/mL B. 50 mIU/mL C. 100 mIU/mL D. 200 mIU/mL

A. 25 mIU/mL

In the card pregnancy test, if the test band appears very faint, it is recommended that it is: A. Reported as positive B. Reported as negative C. Test is considered invalid D. New sample collected 48 hours later and tested

D. New sample collected 48 hours later and tested

Direct examination of the treponemes: A. Light microscopy B. Darkfield microscopy C. VDRL testing D. RPR testing

B. Darkfield microscopy

Which serum antibody response usually characterizes the primary (early) stage of syphilis? A. Antibodies against syphilis are undetectable B. Detected 1 to 3 weeks after appearance of the primary chancre C. Detected in 50% of cases before the primary chancre disappears D. Detected within 2 weeks after infection

B. Detected 1 to 3 weeks after appearance of the primary chancre

What substance is detected by the rapid plasma reagin (RPR) and Venereal Disease Research Laboratory (VDRL) tests for syphilis? A. Cardiolipin B. Anticardiolipin antibody C. Anti-T. pallidum antibody D. Treponema pallidum

B. Anticardiolipin antibody

What type of antigen is used in the RPR card test? A. Live treponemal organisms B. Killed suspension of treponemal organisms C. Cardiolipin D. Tanned sheep cells

C. Cardiolipin

Speed and time of rotation for serum VDRL test: A. 100 rpm for 4 minutes B. 100 rpm for 8 minutes C. 180 rpm for 4 minutes D. 180 rpm for 8 minutes

C. 180 rpm for 4 minutes

Speed and time of rotation for CSF VDRL test: A. 100 rpm for 4 minutes B. 100 rpm for 8 minutes C. 180 rpm for 4 minutes D. 180 rpm for 8 minutes

D. 180 rpm for 8 minutes

Speed and time of rotation for RPR: A. 100 rpm for 4 minutes B. 100 rpm for 8 minutes C. 180 rpm for 4 minutes D. 180 rpm for 8 minutes

B. 100 rpm for 8 minutes

In the RPR test, what is the gauge of the needle for antigen delivery? A. 16 B. 18 C. 20 D. 21

C. 20

A widely used HEMAGGLUTINATION test for detecting antibody to Treponema pallidum is: A. MHA-TP test B. FTA-ABS test C. VDRL test D. TPI test

A. MHA-TP test

. Which test is recommended for testing cerebrospinal fluid for detection of neurosyphilis? A. RPR B. VDRL C. FTA-ABS D. Enzyme immunoassay

B. VDRL

Which specimen is the sample of choice to evaluate latent or tertiary syphilis? A. Serum sample B. Chancre fluid C. CSF D. Joint fluid

C. CSF

Which test is most likely to be positive in the tertiary stage of syphilis? A. FTA-ABS B. RPR C. VDRL D. Reagin screen test (RST)

A. FTA-ABS

A biological false-positive reaction is least likely with which test for syphilis? A. VDRL B. FTA-ABS C. RPR D. All are equally likely to detect a false-positive result

B. FTA-ABS

Which of the following is the most sensitive test to detect congenital syphilis? A. VDRL B. RPR C. Microhemagglutination test for T. pallidum (MHA-TP) D. Polymerase chain reaction (PCR)

D. Polymerase chain reaction (PCR)

Which control shows the correct result for a valid ASO test? A. SLO control, no hemolysis B. Red cell control, no hemolysis C. Positive control, hemolysis in all tubes D. Hemolysis in both SLO and red cell control

B. Red cell control, no hemolysis

. Interpret the following ASO results: § Tube Nos. 1–4 (Todd unit 125): no hemolysis § Tube No. 5 (Todd unit 166): hemolysis A. Positive Todd unit 125 B. Positive Todd unit 166 C. No antistreptolysin O present D. Impossible to interpret

A. Positive Todd unit 125

A single ASO titer is considered to be moderately elevated if the titer is at least _____ Todd units in an adult. A. 200 Todd units B. 240 Todd units C. 320 Todd units D. 340 Todd units

B. 240 Todd units

A single ASO titer is considered to be moderately elevated if the titer is at least _____ Todd units in a child. A. 200 Todd units B. 240 Todd units C. 320 Todd units D. 340 Todd units

C. 320 Todd units

What is the endpoint for the antistreptolysin O (ASO) latex agglutination assay? A. Highest serum dilution that shows no agglutination B. Highest serum dilution that shows agglutination C. Lowest serum dilution that shows agglutination D. Lowest serum dilution that shows no agglutination

B. Highest serum dilution that shows agglutination

Which test, other than serological markers, is most consistently elevated in viral hepatitis? A. Antinuclear antibodies B. Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) C. Absolute lymphocyte count D. Lactate dehydrogenase

B. Alanine aminotransferase (ALT)

Which of the following was a surrogate test for hepatitis that is no longer required? A. ALT B. Anti-HBc C. CMV D. HBsAg

A. ALT

The first serologic marker to appear in patients with acute hepatitis B virus infection is A. Anti-HBs B. Anti-HBc C. Anti-HBe D. HBsAg

D. HBsAg

Which hepatitis B marker is the best indicator of early acute infection? A. HBsAg B. HBeAg C. Anti-HBc D. Anti-HBs

A. HBsAg

Which surface marker is a reliable marker for the presence of high levels of hepatitis B virus (HBV) and a high degree of infectivity? A. HBe Ag B. HBs Ag C. HBc Ag D. Anti-HBsAg

A. HBe Ag

Which is the first antibody detected in serum after infection with hepatitis B virus (HBV)? A. Anti-HBs B. Anti-HBc IgM C. Anti-HBe D. All are detectable at the same time

B. Anti-HBc IgM

Which antibody persists in low-level carriers of hepatitis B virus? A. IgM anti-HBc B. IgG anti-HBc C. IgM anti-HBe D. IgG anti-HBs

B. IgG anti-HBc

What assay would confirm the immune status of the hepatitis B virus? A. HBsAg B. Anti-HBs C. IgM anti-HBcAg D. Hepatitis C Ag

B. Anti-HBs

A hospital employee received the final dose of the hepatitis B vaccine 3 weeks ago. She wants to donate blood. Which of the following results are expected from the hepatitis screen, and will she be allowed to donate blood? A. HBsAg, positive; anti-HBc, negative; she may donate B. HBsAg, negative; anti-HBc, positive; she may not donate C. HBsAg, positive; anti-HBc, positive; she may not donate D. HBsAg, negative; anti-HBc, negative; she may donate

D. HBsAg, negative; anti-HBc, negative; she may donate

If only anti-HBs is positive, which of the following can be ruled out? A. Hepatitis B virus vaccination B. Distant past infection with hepatitis B virus C. Hepatitis B immune globulin (HBIG) injection D. Chronic hepatitis B virus infection

D. Chronic hepatitis B virus infection

What is the main difficulty associated with the development of an HIV vaccine? A. The virus has been difficult to culture; antigen extraction and concentration are extremely laborious B. Human trials cannot be performed C. Different strains of the virus are genetically diverse D. Anti-idiotype antibodies cannot be developed

B. Human trials cannot be performed

Tests to identify infection with HIV fall into which three general classification types of tests? A. Tissue culture, antigen, and antibody tests B. Tests for antigens, antibodies, and nucleic acid C. DNA probe, DNA amplification, and Western blot tests D. ELISA, Western blot, and Southern blot tests

B. Tests for antigens, antibodies, and nucleic acid

What is the advantage of 4th-generation rapid HIV tests over earlier rapid HIV tests? A. They use recombinant antigens B. They detect multiple strains of HIV C. They detect p24 antigen D. D. They are quantitative

C. They detect p24 antigen

Antibodies to which of the following viral antigens are usually the first to be detected in HIV infection? A. gp120 B. gp160 C. gp41 D. p24

D. p24

Which of the following combinations of bands would represent a positive Western blot for HIV antibody? A. p24 and p55 B. p24 and p31 C. gp41 and gp120 D. p31 and p55

C. gp41 and gp120

Interpret the following results for HIV infection. § ELISA: positive § Repeat ELISA: negative § Western blot: no bands A. Positive for HIV B. Negative for HIV C. Indeterminate D. Further testing needed

B. Negative for HIV

A woman who has had five pregnancies subsequently tests positive for HIV by Western blot. What is the most likely reason for this result? A. Possible cross-reaction with herpes or EBV antibodies B. Interference from medication C. Cross-reaction with HLA antigens in the antigen preparation D. Possible technical error

C. Cross-reaction with HLA antigens in the antigen preparation

Which of the following tests is CURRENTLY RECOMMENDED BY THE CDC to confirm a positive screening test result for HIV infection? A. Rapid test for HIV-1 and HIV-2 antibodies B. Western blot C. Molecular testing for HIV RNA D. HIV viral culture

A. Rapid test for HIV-1 and HIV-2 antibodies

Which method is used to test for HIV infection in infants who are born to HIV-positive mothers? A. ELISA B. Western blot test C. Polymerase chain reaction D. Viral culture

C. Polymerase chain reaction

A newborn is to be tested for a vertically transmitted HIV infection. Which of the following tests is most useful? A. HIV PCR B. CD4 count C. Rapid HIV antibody test D. HIV IgM antibody test

A. HIV PCR

In monitoring an HIV-infected patient, which parameter may be expected to be the most sensitive indicator of the effectiveness of antiretroviral treatment? A. HIV antibody titer B. CD4:CD8 ratio C. HIV viral load D. Absolute total T-cell count

C. HIV viral load

HTLV-I and HTLV-II can be transmitted by: A. Bloodborne (transfusion, IV drug abuse) B. Sexual contact (commonly from men to women) C. Mother-to-child (mainly through breastfeeding) D. All of these

D. All of these

Individuals exposed to EBV maintain an asymptomatic latent infection in: A. B cells B. T cells C. All lymphocytes D. Monocytes

B. T cells

Interpret the following results for EBV infection: IgG and IgM antibodies to viral capsid antigen (VCA) are positive. A. Infection in the past B. Infection with a mutual enhancer virus such as HIV C. Current infection D. Impossible to interpret; need more information

C. Current infection

Two cross-reacting antigen types of herpes simplex virus have been identified: A. EBV and CMV B. HHV6 and HHV7 C. VZV and CMV D. HSV1 and HSV2

D. HSV1 and HSV2

Cross-reactions in the complement fixation test for Histoplasma capsulatum occur in patients with ____; but titers appear to be lower. A. Aspergillosis B. Blastomycosis C. Aspergillosis, blastomycosis D. Blastomycosis, aspergillosis, coccidiomycosis

D. Blastomycosis, aspergillosis, coccidiomycosis

Which of the following fungal organisms is best diagnosed by an antibody detection test as opposed to an antibody detection assay? A. Histoplasma B. Cryptococcus C. Candida D. Aspergillus

B. Cryptococcus

LATEX AGGLUTINATION for cryptococcal _____ is now recommended test for Cryptococcus neoformans. A. Polysaccharide capsule B. Antigen C. Antibody D. Nucleic acids

B. Antigen

Serological testing provides the most practical and reliable means of confirming a measles diagnosis. Samples collected before ___ may yield false-negative results, and repeat testing on a later sample is recommended in that situation. A. 72 hours B. 5 days C. 6 days D. 9 days

A. 72 hours

Blood products are tested for which virus before being transfused to newborns? A. EBV B. Human T-lymphotropic virus II (HTLV-II) C. Cytomegalovirus (CMV) D. Hepatitis D virus

C. Cytomegalovirus (CMV)

C. Current infection

In general, in which of the following situations is the analysis of a tumor marker most useful? A. Testing for recurrence B. Prognosis C. Screening D. Diagnosis

A. Testing for recurrence

What is the primary clinical utility of measuring CEA? A. Diagnosis of liver cancer B. Diagnosis of colorectal cancer C. Screening for cancers of endodermal origin D. Monitoring for recurrence of cancer

D. Monitoring for recurrence of cancer

Which type of cancer is associated with the highest level of AFP? A. Hepatoma B. Ovarian cancer C. Testicular cancer D. Breast cancer

A. Hepatoma

Which tumor marker is associated with cancer of the urinary bladder? A. CA-19-9 B. CA-72-4 C. Nuclear matrix protein D. Cathepsin-D

C. Nuclear matrix protein

A 55-year-old male with early stage prostate cancer diagnosed by biopsy had his prostate gland removed (simple prostatectomy). His PSA prior to surgery was 10.0 ng/mL. If the surgery was successful in completely removing the tumor cells, what would the PSA result be 1 month after surgery? A. Undetectable B. 1 to 3 ng/mL C. Less than 4 ng/mL D. Less than 10 ng/mL

A. Undetectable

A patient has a prostate-specific antigen level of 60 ng/mL the day before surgery to remove a localized prostate tumor. One week following surgery, the serum PSA was determined to be 8 ng/mL by the same method. What is the most likely cause of these results? A. Incomplete removal of the malignancy B. Cross reactivity of the antibody with another tumor antigen C. Testing too soon after surgery D. Hook effect with the PSA assay

C. Testing too soon after surgery

Which of the following statements regarding the Philadelphia chromosome is true? A. It is seen exclusively in chronic myelogenous leukemia B. It results from a translocation C. It appears as a short-arm deletion of chromosome 21 D. It is associated with a poor prognosis

B. It results from a translocation

A major advantage of POCT is: A. Faster turnaround time B. Lower cost C. Better quality than traditional testing D. Both A and C

A. Faster turnaround time

other names parasitology

Yves Laure Pimentel · 70問 · 2年前

other names parasitology