IMMUNOLOGY & SEROLOGY PROGRESS EXAM

100問 • 1年前

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Serologic HLA testing uses a form of complement- dependent microlymphocytotoxicity (CDC) performed in 60-well or 72-well microtiter trays. Trays are usually read on: * 1/1 Brightfield microscopes Darkfield microscopes Polarizing microscopes Inverted phase contrast microscopes

Inverted phase contrast microscopes

In the production of hybridoma, plasma cells are harvested from: * 1/1 Rabbit kidney Rabbit spleen Mouse liver Mouse spleen

Mouse spleen

In fluorescent antinuclear antibody testing, _______ or human epithelial HEp-2 cells are fixed to a slide and allowed to react with patient serum. * 1/1 Rabbit kidney Rabbit spleen Mouse kidney Mouse spleen

Mouse kidney

Which receptor on T cells is responsible for rosetting with sheep red blood cells? * 1/1 CD2 CD3 CD4 CD8

CD2

Carrier particles to which antigens are attached in Streptozyme testing: * 0/1 Bentonite Charcoal Horse RBCs Sheep RBCs

Sheep RBCs

Marginal B cells remain in the: * 0/1 Bone marrow Lymph nodes Spleen Peyer's patches

Spleen

Primary antibody found in Helicobacter pylori infection: * 1/1 IgA IgD IgG IgM

IgG

Mantoux tuberculin test: * 1/1 Type I hypersensitivity reaction Type II hypersensitivity reaction Type III hypersensitivity reaction Type IV hypersensitivity reaction

Type IV hypersensitivity reaction

The process by which cells are capable of moving from the circulating blood to the tissues by squeezing through the wall of a blood vessel: * 1/1 Chemotaxis Diapedesis Endosmosis Phagocytosis

Diapedesis

The migration of cells in the direction of a chemical messenger: * 1/1 Chemotaxis Diapedesis Endosmosis Phagocytosis

Chemotaxis

In plasma, it is associated with HDL cholesterol, and it is thought to play a role in metabolism of cholesterol: * 1/1 Alpha1-antitrypsin Fibrinogen Mannose-binding lectin Serum amyloid A

Serum amyloid A

Serum amyloid A has been found to increase significantly more in: * 1/1 Bacterial infections Fungal infections Parasitic infections Viral infections

Bacterial infections

Cells that express CD56 and/or CD16: * 1/1 B cells T cells NK cells All of the above

NK cells

For serum VDRL, the slide is rotated at: * 1/1 100 rpm for 4 minutes 100 rpm for 8 minutes 180 rpm for 4 minutes 180 rpm for 6 minutes

180 rpm for 4 minutes

For RPR, the card is rotated at: * 1/1 100 rpm for 4 minutes 100 rpm for 8 minutes 180 rpm for 4 minutes 180 rpm for 8 minutes

100 rpm for 8 minutes

Most heat-labile of all immunoglobulins: * 1/1 IgA IgD IgE IgM

IgE

IgE has the ability to activate: * 1/1 B cells B cells and T cells Basophils and mast cells Eosinophils and neutrophils

Basophils and mast cells

IgE recruits _____________ to the area to help destroy invading antigens that have penetrated IgA defenses: * 0/1 B cells B cells and T cells Basophils and mast cells Eosinophils and neutrophils

Eosinophils and neutrophils

The classical complement pathway is activated by: * 1/1 Most viruses Antigen–antibody complexes Fungal cell walls All of the above

Antigen–antibody complexes

Triggering substances for the alternative pathway: * 1/1 Antigen-antibody complex Bacterial cell walls, especially those containing lipopolysaccharide; fungal cell walls; yeast; viruses; virally infected cells; tumor cell lines; and some parasites, especially trypanosomes Microorganisms with mannose or similar sugars in their cell wall All of the above

Bacterial cell walls, especially those containing lipopolysaccharide; fungal cell walls; yeast; viruses; virally infected cells; tumor cell lines; and some parasites, especially trypanosomes

Mannose-binding protein in the lectin pathway is most similar to which classical pathway component? * 1/1 C3b C1rs C1q C4

C1q

An antigen that triggers a type I hypersensitivity response: * 0/1 Hapten Histamine Allergen Oncogene

Allergen

Cytokines produced by T cells and other cell lines that inhibit viral synthesis or act as immune regulators: * 1/1 Integrins Interferons Complement Antibodies

Interferons

Decreased maternal alpha fetoprotein levels are associated with: * 1/1 Anencephaly Down syndrome Twins or multiple pregnancies Spina bifida

Down syndrome

Positive rheumatoid factor is generally associated with: * 0/1 Anemia Azotemia Decreased ESR Hyperglobulinemia

Hyperglobulinemia

Skin pH keeps most microorganisms from growing: * 1/1 5.6 6.5 7.2 8.0

5.6

Antigen in the RPR test: * 0/1 Anti-cardiolipin Cardiolipin Charcoal Reagin

Cardiolipin

Microscope used for the Quantitative Buffy Coat (QBC) method for diagnosis of malaria: * 1/1 Darkfield microscope Fluorescent microscope Phase contrast microscope Polarizing microscope

Fluorescent microscope

Color of the AHG reagent: * 1/1 Red Yellow Blue Green

Green

Anticoagulant for the direct AHG test (DAT): * 0/1 ACD EDTA Heparin Oxalate

EDTA

Present in 70% of patients with lupus and are highly specific for the disease: * 1/1 Anti-DNP Anti-RNP Anti-dsDNA Anti-CCP

Anti-dsDNA

T in TORCH or STORCH stands for: * 1/1 Trichinellosis Trichuriasis Toxoplasmosis None of the above

Toxoplasmosis

In the chain of infection, a contaminated work area would serve as which of the following: * 0/1 Source Method of transmission Host All of the above

Source

In the process of phagocytosis, formation of hypochlorite and hydroxyl ions damage _______ irreversibly. * 1/1 DNA RNA Carbohydrates Proteins

Proteins

Which tumor marker is used to monitor patients with breast cancer for recurrence of disease? * 0/1 CA 15-3 Estrogen receptor (ER) Cathepsin-D CA 50

CA 15-3

Antinuclear antibodies (ANA) include: * 1/1 Abs to DNA Abs to DNA, abs to nucleolar antigens Abs to DNA, abs to nucleolar antigens and abs to histone Abs to DNA, abs to nucleolar antigens, abs to histone and abs to nonhistone proteins

Abs to DNA, abs to nucleolar antigens, abs to histone and abs to nonhistone proteins

All are components of the second line of defense, except: * 0/1 Macrophages Mast cells Neutrophils B cells

B cells

A vacuole formed within a phagocytic cell as pseudopodia surround a particle during the process of phagocytosis: * 1/1 Neutrophil Monocyte Phagosome Phagolysosome

Phagosome

The structure formed by the fusion of cytoplasmic granules and the phagocytic vacuole during the process of phagocytosis: * 1/1 Neutrophil Monocyte Phagosome Phagolysosome

Phagolysosome

It has been used to treat hepatitis C and Kaposi’s sarcoma, as well as certain leukemias and lymphomas: * 0/1 TGF-alpha TGF-beta IFN-alpha IFN-beta

IFN-alpha

Efficacious in treating multiple sclerosis, although the exact mechanism of action remains unclear: * 0/1 TGF-alpha TGF-beta IFN-alpha IFN-beta

IFN-beta

A single ASO titer is considered to be moderately elevated if the titer is at least ______ Todd units in an adult: * 1/1 160 200 240 320

240

A single ASO titer is considered to be moderately elevated if the titer is at least ______ Todd units in a child. * 1/1 160 200 240 320

320

Current recommendations include the combined detection of mannan and anti-mannan antibodies for the specific identification of ______ species in serum samples. * 0/1 Bordetella Mycobacterium Candida Cryptococcus

Candida

Antibodies to which of the following viral antigens are usually the first to be detected in HIV infection? * 1/1 gp120 gp160 gp41 p24

p24

Most sensitive and reliable; reference method for VZV antibody: * 0/1 Latex agglutination ELISA FAMA PCR

FAMA

The most commonly used method to detect VZV antibodies in the clinical laboratory: * 0/1 Latex agglutination ELISA FAMA PCR

ELISA

Most common cause of congenital infections: * 1/1 Cytomegalovirus Rubella Syphilis Toxoplasmosis

Cytomegalovirus

Method of choice for diagnosis of congenital toxoplasmosis: * 0/1 EIA IFA FAMA PCR

EIA

Prenatal congenital toxoplasmosis can be diagnosed by performing ______ on amniotic fluid to detect T. gondii DNA. * 1/1 EIA IFA FAMA PCR

PCR

Method of choice to detect T. gondii DNA in CSF: * 0/1 EIA IFA FAMA PCR

PCR

The cells that Metchnikoff first observed are associated with which phenomenon? * 1/1 Innate immunity Adaptive immunity Humoral immunity Specific immunity

Innate immunity

Which of the following statements is true of NK cells? * 1/1 They rely upon memory for antigen recognition. They have the same CD groups as B cells. They are found mainly in lymph nodes. They kill target cells without prior exposure to them.

They kill target cells without prior exposure to them.

Which cell is the most potent phagocytic cell in the tissue? * 1/1 Neutrophil Dendritic cell Eosinophil Basophil

Dendritic cell

A cell characterized by a nucleus with two to five lobes, a diameter of 10 to 15 μm, and a large number of neutral staining granules is identified as a(n): * 1/1 Eosinophil Monocyte Basophil Neutrophil

Neutrophil

Where do lymphocytes mainly come in contact with antigens? * 1/1 Secondary lymphoid organs Bloodstream Bone marrow Thymus

Secondary lymphoid organs

Which of the following statements best characterizes adaptive immunity? * 0/1 Relies on normally present body functions Response is similar for each exposure Specificity for each individual pathogen Involves only cellular immunity

Specificity for each individual pathogen

The main function of T cells in the immune response is to: * 0/1 Produce cytokines that regulate both innate and adaptive immunity Produce antibodies Participate actively in phagocytosis Respond to target cells without prior exposure

Produce cytokines that regulate both innate and adaptive immunity

Antigenic groups identified by different sets of antibodies reacting in a similar manner to certain standard cell lines best describes: * 1/1 Cytokines Clusters of differentiation (CD) Neutrophilic granules Opsonins

Clusters of differentiation (CD)

All of the following are characteristics of an effective immunogen except: * 0/1 Internal complexity Large molecular weight Presence of numerous epitopes Found on host cells

Found on host cells

HLA molecules A, B, and C belong to which MHC class? * 1/1 Class I Class II Class III Class IV

Class I

Which best explains the difference between immunogens and antigens? * 1/1 Only antigens are large enough to be recognized by T cells Only immunogens can react with antibody Only immunogens can trigger an immune response Only antigens are recognized as foreign.

Only immunogens can trigger an immune response

The term for enhancement of phagocytosis by coating of foreign particles with serum proteins is * 1/1 Opsonization Agglutination Solubilization Chemotaxis

Opsonization

How do cytotoxic T cells kill target cells? * 1/1 They produce antibodies that bind to the cell. They engulf the cell by phagocytosis. They stop protein synthesis in the target cell. They produce granzymes that stimulate apoptosis.

They produce granzymes that stimulate apoptosis.

Which is a distinguishing feature of a pre-B cell? * 1/1 μ chains in the cytoplasm Complete IgM on the surface Presence of CD21 antigen Presence of CD25 antigen

μ chains in the cytoplasm

Where does the major portion of antibody production occur? * 0/1 Peripheral blood Bone marrow Thymus Lymph node

Lymph node

A cell flow cytometry pattern belonging to a 3-year old patient showed the following: normal CD4+ T-cell count, normal CD19+ B-cell count, low CD8+ T-cell count. Which type of immunity would be affected? * 1/1 Production of antibody Formation of plasma cells Elimination of virally infected cells Downregulation of the immune response

Elimination of virally infected cells

Which of the following is a unique characteristic of adaptive immunity? * 1/1 Ability to fight infection Ability to remember a prior exposure to a pathogen A similar response to all pathogens encountered Process of phagocytosis to destroy a pathogen

Ability to remember a prior exposure to a pathogen

Discovery of genetic principles underlying the generation of antibodies with different specificities: * 1/1 Edward Jenner Ellie Metchnikoff Emil von Behring Susumu Tonegawa

Susumu Tonegawa

Which of the following is characteristic of variable domains of immunoglobulins? * 0/1 They occur on both the H and L chains They represent the complement-binding site They are at the carboxy-terminal ends of the molecules They are found only on H chains

They occur on both the H and L chains

Which antibody best protects mucosal surfaces? * 1/1 IgA IgD IgG IgM

IgA

The subclasses of IgG differ mainly in: * 1/1 Type of light chain Arrangement of disulfide bonds Ability to act as opsonin Molecular weight

Arrangement of disulfide bonds

Which antibody is best at agglutination and complement fixation? * 1/1 IgA IgG IgD IgM

IgM

All of the following are true of IgE EXCEPT that it: * 1/1 Fail to fix complement Heat stable Attaches to tissue mast cells Found in the serum of allergic persons

Heat stable

Papain digestion of an IgG molecule results in which of the following? * 0/1 2 Fab' and 1 Fc' fragment F(ab')2 and 1 Fc' fragment 2 Fab and 2 Fc fragments 2 Fab and 1 Fc fragment

2 Fab and 1 Fc fragment

Which best characterizes the secondary response? * 1/1 Equal amounts of IgM and IgG are produced There is an increase in IgM only There is a large increase in IgG but not IgM The lag phase is the same as in the primary response

There is a large increase in IgG but not IgM

A patient in septic shock caused by a gram-negative bacterial infection exhibits the following symptoms: high fever, very low blood pressure, and disseminated intravascular coagulation. Which cytokine is the most likely contributor to these symptoms? * 1/1 IL-2 TNF IL-12 IL-7

TNF

Why might a colony stimulating factor be given to a cancer patient? * 0/1 Stimulate activity of NK cells Increase production of certain types of leukocytes Decrease the production of TNF Increase production of mast cells

Increase production of certain types of leukocytes

A lack of C1-INH might result in which of the following conditions? * 1/1 Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria Hemolytic uremic syndrome Hereditary angioedema Increased bacterial infections

Hereditary angioedema

Which would be most effective in measuring an individual complement component? * 1/1 CH50 assay Radial immunodiffusion AH50 assay Lytic assay with liposome

Radial immunodiffusion

Which technique represents a single-diffusion reaction? * 1/1 Radial immunodiffusion Ouchterlony diffusion Immunoelectrophoresis Immunofixation electrophoresis

Radial immunodiffusion

Tiny agglutinates turbid background: * 0/1 0 W+ 1+ 2+ 3+ 4+

W+

A few isolated aggregates; mostly free-floating cells; supernatant appears red: * 1/1 Negative Mixed-field Weak 1+

Mixed-field

Several large aggregates; some free erythrocytes; clear supernatant: * 0/1 1+ 2+ 3+ 4+

An HLA specimen is collected in a tube containing: * 0/1 ACD EDTA Silica Thrombin

ACD

Which technique involves probe amplification rather than target amplification? * 0/1 Southern blot PCR Transcription-mediated amplification Ligase chain reaction

Ligase chain reaction

Forward-angle light scatter is an indicator of cell: * 1/1 Granularity Density Size Number

Size

If an analyzer gets different results each time the same sample is tested, what type of problem does this represent? * 0/1 Sensitivity Specificity Accuracy Precision

Precision

It is considered the gold standard in testing for contact dermatitis: * 1/1 RIST RAST Tuberculin test Patch test

Patch test

Which of the following would be considered a significant finding in Graves disease? * 0/1 Increased TSH levels Antibody to TSH receptors Decreased T3 and T4 Antithyroglobulin antibody

Antibody to TSH receptors

A 20-year-old woman made an appointment to see her physician because she was experiencing intermittent diarrhea. Laboratory testing revealed that she also had an iron deficiency anemia. To determine if the patient has CELIAC DISEASE, her doctor should order which of the following laboratory tests? * 1/1 Anti-tTG Antigliadin Antigluten All of the above

Anti-tTG

Antimitochondrial antibodies are strongly associated with which disease? * 1/1 Autoimmune hepatitis Celiac disease Primary biliary cirrhosis Goodpasture’s syndrome

Primary biliary cirrhosis

Antigen receptors on T lymphocytes bind HLA class II+ peptide complexes with the help of which accessory molecule? * 1/1 CD2 CD3 CD4 CD8

CD4

The only blood group system that affects clinical transplantation: * 1/1 ABO Rh Kell Duffy

ABO

The best use of serum tumor markers is considered to be in: * 1/1 Screening for cancer Initial diagnosis of cancer Monitoring patients undergoing cancer treatment Determining patient prognosis

Monitoring patients undergoing cancer treatment

A woman with breast cancer is treated with a monoclonal antibody to HER2. This is an example of: * 1/1 A cancer vaccine An immunotoxin Passive immunotherapy Active immunotherapy

Passive immunotherapy

What clinical manifestation would be seen in a patient with myeloperoxidase deficiency? * 0/1 Defective T-cell function Inability to produce IgG Defective NK cell function Defective neutrophil function

Defective neutrophil function

A patient with a deficiency in complement component C7 would likely present with: * 1/1 Recurrent Staphylococcal infections Recurrent Neisserial infections Recurrent Escherichia coli infections Recurrent Nocardia infections

Recurrent Neisserial infections

Recurrent, periodic fevers may be associated with increased production of which immunoglobulin? * 0/1 IgG IgM IgD IgE

IgD

100

Characteristics of a bacterial capsule include which of the following? * 0/1 It cannot be used for vaccine development It is composed of peptidoglycan It is an important mechanism for protecting a bacterium against ingestion by PMNs It is what causes bacteria to stain as gram-negative

It is an important mechanism for protecting a bacterium against ingestion by PMNs

other names parasitology

Yves Laure Pimentel · 70問 · 2年前

other names parasitology