SUMMATIVE EXAM #6

89問 • 1年前

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While swimming in a lake near his home, a young boy cut his foot, and an infection developed. The culture grew a nonfastidious gram-negative, oxidase positive, beta hemolytic, motile bacilli that produced deoxyribonuclease. The most likely identification is: A. Enterobacter cloacae B. Serratia marcescens C. Aeromonas hydrophila D. Escherichia coli

C. Aeromonas hydrophila

!!!! A patient with a nosocomial pneumonia has a sputum Gram stain that shows many neutrophils and numerous small gram-negative coccobacilli. The organism grew in 24 hours as a mucoid, hemolytic colony on blood agar and a colorless colony on a MacConkey agar. The organism had the following characteristics: § Oxidase: negative § Catalase: positive § Nitrate: negative § ONPG: negative § Ornithine decarboxylase: negative § Lysine decarboxylase: negative The organism is: A. Stenotrophomonas maltophilia B. Alcaligenes faecalis C. Moraxella lacunata D. Acinetobacter baumannii

D. Acinetobacter baumannii

A community hospital microbiology laboratory is processing significant numbers of stool cultures because of an outbreak of diarrhea following heavy rains and flooding in the country. A media that should be incorporated in the plating protocol is: A. Colistin nalidixic acid for Listeria B. MacConkey agar with sorbitol for Campylobacter C. Mannitol salt agar for Enterococcus species D. Thiosulfate citrate bile salts sucrose for Vibrio species

D. Thiosulfate citrate bile salts sucrose for Vibrio species

Culture medium for Vibrio spp., EXCEPT: !!!! A. Buffered glycerol saline B. Cary-Blair C. Alkaline peptone water D. Thiosulfate citrate bile salt (TCBS) agar

A. Buffered glycerol saline

Type of blood used in blood agar plates for better production of beta hemolysis of Haemophilus: A. Sheep B. Rabbit C. Horse D. Human

C. Horse

A 4-year-old boy is admitted to the hospital with suspected meningitis. He has not had most of the childhood vaccines. The suspected pathogen is: A. Listeria monocytogenes B. Haemophilus influenzae C. Streptococcus agalactiae D. Neisseria meningitidis

B. Haemophilus influenzae

!!!!An aerobic, gram-negative coccobacillus was isolated on Bordet- Gengou agar from a nasopharyngeal swab 48 hours after culture from a 6-month-old infant with suspected pertussis. The organism exhibited the following characteristics: § MacConkey agar: no growth § Oxidase: negative § Urea: negative at 4 hours, positive at 24 hours § Catalase: positive The most probable identification of this isolate is: A. Moraxella lacunata B. Pasteurella ureae C. Bordetella pertussis D. Bordetella parapertussis

D. Bordetella parapertussis

!!! finger yielded a small, gram-negative coccobacillus that was smooth, raised and beta-hemolytic on blood agar. The isolate grew on MacConkey agar, forming colorless colonies. The organism was motile, catalase positive, oxidase positive, reduced nitrate, and was urease positive within 4 hours. No carbohydrates were fermented. The most likely identification of this isolate is: A. Brucella canis B. Yersinia pestis C. Francisella tularensis D. Bordetella bronchiseptica

D. Bordetella bronchiseptica

!!! Which of the following characteristics best differentiates Bordetella bronchiseptica from Alcaligenes species? A. Flagellar pattern B. Growth at 24ºC C. Oxidase activity D. Rapid hydrolysis of urea

D. Rapid hydrolysis of urea

A branching gram-positive, partially acid-fast organism is isolated from a bronchial washing on a 63-year-old woman receiving chemotherapy. The organism does not hydrolyze casein, tyrosine or xanthine. The most likely identification is: A. Actinomadura madurae B. Nocardia caviae C. Streptomyces somaliensis D. Nocardia asteroides

Number of sputum samples for smear microscopy for diagnosis of TB according to DOH: !!! A. One B. Two C. Three D. Four

B. Two

A sputum specimen is received for culture and Gram stain. The specimen contains 15 epithelial cells/LPF. The technologist’s best course of action would be to: A. Inoculate appropriate media and incubate anaerobically B. Inoculate appropriate media and incubate aerobically C. Call the physician and notify him of this lifethreatening situation D. Call the patient care area and request a new specimen

D. Call the patient care area and request a new specimen

Most rapid method for detection of mycobacteria: A. Direct sputum smear microscopy (DSSM) !! B. Culture C. Molecular diagnosis D. None of these

C. Molecular diagnosis

!!!. Determines resistance to anti-tuberculosis drugs: A. Direct sputum smear microscopy B. Molecular diagnosis C. Serological tests D. X-ray

B. Molecular diagnosis

Acid-fast staining of a smear prepared from digested sputum showed slender, slightly curved, beaded, red mycobacterial rods. Growth on Middlebrook 7H10 slants produced buff-colored microcolonies with a serpentine pattern after 14 days at 37°C. Niacin and nitrate reduction tests were positive. What is the most probable presumptive identification? A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis B. Mycobacterium ulcerans C. Mycobacterium kansasii D. Mycobacterium avium–intracellulare complex

A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis

The characteristic that is most commonly associated with the presence of strict anaerobic bacteria and can be taken as presumptive evidence of their presence in a clinical specimen is the: !!!! A. Presence of a single bacterial species B. Production of gas in a thioglycollate broth culture C. Growth on a blood agar plate incubated in an anaerobic jar D. Presence of a foul, putrid odor from tissue specimens and cultures

D. Presence of a foul, putrid odor from tissue specimens and cultures

Which of the following specimens would be best for identifying Bacillus cereus as the cause of an outbreak of food poisoning? A. Blood B. Rectal swabs C. Stool samples D. Food

D. Food

Methods other than packaged microsystems used to identify anaerobes include: !!!! A. Antimicrobial susceptibility testing B. Gas–liquid chromatography (GLC) C. Special staining D. Enzyme immunoassay

B. Gas–liquid chromatography (GLC)

Pre-reduced and vitamin K1-supplemented blood agar plates are recommended isolation media for: !!!! A. Mycobacterium marinum and Mycobacterium avium intracellulare B. Bacteroides, Peptostreptococcus, and Clostridium spp. C. Proteus spp. D. Enterococcus spp.

B. Bacteroides, Peptostreptococcus, and Clostridium spp.

Identification of Clostridium tetani is based upon: !!! A. Gram stain of the wound site B. Anaerobic culture of the wound site C. Blood culture results D. Clinical findings

D. Clinical findings

The classic form of foodborne botulism is characterized by the ingestion of: !!!!! A. Spores in food B. Preformed toxin in food C. Toxin H D. All of these option

B. Preformed toxin in food

Which mechanism is responsible for botulism in infants caused by Clostridium botulinum? !!!! A. Ingestion of spores in food or liquid B. Ingestion of preformed toxin in food C. Virulence of the organism D. Lipase activity of the organism

A. Ingestion of spores in food or liquid

A stool sample is sent to the laboratory for culture to rule out Clostridium difficile. What media should the microbiologist use and what is the appearance of the organisms on this media? A. BBE: colonies turn black B. Brucella agar: red pigmented colonies C. CCFA: yellow, ground glass colonies D. CNA: double zone hemolytic colonies

C. CCFA: yellow, ground glass colonies

Propionibacterium acnesis most often associated with: !!!!! A. Normal oral flora B. Post-antibiotic diarrhea C. Tooth decay D. Blood culture contamination

D. Blood culture contamination

A patient has a suspected diagnosis of subacute bacterial endocarditis. His blood cultures grow nonspore-forming pleomorphic gram-positive bacilli only in the anaerobic bottle. What test(s) will give a presumptive identification of this microorganism? !!!! A. Beta-hemolysis and oxidase B. Catalase and spot indole C. Esculin hydrolysis D. Hydrolysis of gelatin

B. Catalase and spot indole

Gram stain of a smear taken from the periodontal pockets of a 30-year-old man with poor dental hygiene showed sulfur granules containing gram-positive rods (short diphtheroids and some unbranched filaments). Colonies on blood agar resembled “molar teeth” in formation. The most likely organism is: A. Actinomyces israelii B. Propionibacterium acnes C. Staphylococcus intermedius D. Peptostreptococcus anaerobius

A. Actinomyces israelii

An organism from a peritoneal abscess is isolated on kanamycin-vancomycin laked blood agar and grows black colonies on BBE agar. It is nonpigmented, catalase positive, and indole negative. The genus of this organism is: !!! A. Acidominococcus B. Bacteroides C. Porphyromonas D. Prevotella

B. Bacteroides

Anaerobic gram-negative rods were recovered from the blood of a patient after gallbladder surgery. The bacteria grew well on agar containing 20% bile, but were resistant to kanamycin and vancomycin. What is the most likely identification? !!!! A. Clostridium perfringens B. Bacteroides fragilis group C. Prevotella spp. D. Porphyromonas spp.

B. Bacteroides fragilis group

Epidemic typhus: !!!! A. Rickettsia prowazekii B. Rickettsia rickettsia C. Rickettsia akari D. Orientia tsutsugamushi

A. Rickettsia prowazekii

All of the following are true for Candida albicans, EXCEPT: !!! A. True septate hyphae B. Nonseptate hyphae C. Positive for germ tube formation D. Blastoconidia, hyphae, and pseudohyphae are strongly gram positive

B. Nonseptate hyphae

Specimens collected for virus isolation should be kept at: !!!!! A. 37oC B. 20oC C. 4oC D. -20oC

C. 4oC

Which of the following is the specimen of choice for detecting rotavirus? A. Throat swab B. Urine sample C. Bronchoalveolar wash D. Feces sample

D. Feces sample

At what temperature should clinical specimen suspected of containing viruses be kept for transport that takes days? !!!! A. -70oC B. 37oC C. 4oC D. -10oC

A. -70oC

Viral transport medium should contain agents that: !!!! A. Enable rapid viral growth during transport time B. Inhibit bacterial and fungal growth C. Destroy nonpathogenic viruses D. Inhibit complement-fixing antibodies

B. Inhibit bacterial and fungal growth

Specimens for virus culture should be transported in media containing: A. Antibiotics and 5% sheep blood B. Saline and 5% sheep blood C. 22% bovine albumin D. Antibiotics and nutrient

D. Antibiotics and nutrient

More likely to contain trophozoites and should be examined within 30 minutes of passage: !!!!!! A. Liquid stool specimen B. Soft stool specimen C. Formed stool specimen D. Any of these

A. Liquid stool specimen

More likely to contain cysts (less likely to contain trophozoites), can be kept up to 1 day with overnight refrigeration: !!!!! A. Liquid stool specimen B. Diarrheic specimen C. Soft stool specimen D. Formed stool specimen

D. Formed stool specimen

May contain both trophozoites and cysts and should be examined within 1 hour of passage: !!! A. Liquid stool specimen B. Diarrheic specimen C. Soft stool specimen D. Formed stool specimen

C. Soft stool specimen

Ideal temperature at which to hold a fecal specimen for any length of time is: A. Freezer B. Refrigerator C. Room temperature D. Incubator temperature

B. Refrigerator

In which of the following sets of nematodes can each organism cause a pneumonia-like syndrome in a person exposed to heavy infection with any of the three parasites? !!! A. Ascaris lumbricoides, Trichuris trichiura, or Onchocerca volvulus B. Enterobius vermicularis, Dracunculus medinensis, or Trichuris trichiura C. Strongyloides stercoralis, Wuchereria bancrofti, or Angiostrongylus costaricensis D. Necator americanus, Ascaris lumbricoides, or Strongyloides stercoralis

D. Necator americanus, Ascaris lumbricoides, or Strongyloides stercoralis

Ova recovered from the stool are routinely used to diagnose infections caused by all of the following except? A. Necator americanus B. Ascaris lubricoides C. Trichuris trichiura D. Strongyloides stercoralis

D. Strongyloides stercoralis

Characteristics of the rhabditiform (noninfective) larvae of Strongyloides stercoralis include a: !!!! A. Short buccal capsule and large genital primordium B. Long buccal capsule and pointed tail C. Short buccal capsule and small genital primordium D. Small genital primordium and notch in tail

A. Short buccal capsule and large genital primordium

Microfilariae can be detected in the blood throughout the day but are detected at higher levels during the late afternoon or at night: !!! A. Diurnal B. Nocturnal C. Nonperiodic D. Subperiodic

D. Subperiodic

First stage larva liberated from the trematode egg: A. Cercaria B. Metacercaria C. Miracidium D. Redia E. Sporocyst

C. Miracidium

Fluke(s) associated with CHOLECYSTITIS (inflammation of the gallbladder),and CHOLANGIOCARCINOMA (cancerous growth in bile duct epithelium): A. F. buski B. P. westermani C. C. sinensis, O. viverrini D. S. japonicum

C. C. sinensis, O. viverrini

Eggs resemble an old-fashioned electric light bulb: A. Fasciola hepatica B. Clonorchis sinensis C. Paragonimus westermani D. Fasciolopsis buski

B. Clonorchis sinensis

Vector for Paragonimus westermani: !!!! A. Copepods B. Fishes C. Water plants D. Crabs

D. Crabs

The only known human tapeworm with an operculum is: A. Diphyllobothrium latum B. Hymenolepis nana C. Giardia lamblia D. Schistosoma haematobium

A. Diphyllobothrium latum

n infections with Taenia solium, humans can serve as the: A. Definitive host B. Intermediate host C. Either the definitive or the intermediate host D. None of the options

C. Either the definitive or the intermediate host

When humans have hydatid disease, the causative agent and host classification are: !!! A. Echinococcus granulosus—accidental intermediate host B. Echinococcus granulosus—definitive host C. Taenia solium—accidental intermediate host D. Taenia solium—definitive host

A. Echinococcus granulosus—accidental intermediate host

Which of the following is the best technique to identify Dientamoeba fragilis in stool? !!!! A. Formalin concentrate B. Trichrome-stained smear C. Modified acid-fast–stained smear D. Giemsa’s stain

B. Trichrome-stained smear

Finely granular, “ground glass” appearance; clear differentiation of ectoplasm and endoplasm; if present, vacuoles are usually small; presence of red blood cells (RBCs) is diagnostic A. E. nana B. E. coli C. E. dispar D. E. histolytica

D. E. histolytica

Larger, usually eccentric refractile granules may be on one side of karyosome (“basket nucleus”): A. E. histolytica B. E. coli C. E. nana D. I. butschlii

D. I. butschlii

Which of the following is the most important feature in differentiating cysts of Entamoeba histolytica from E. dispar? !!! A. Number of nuclei B. Size of the cyst C. Shape of the karyosome D. Distinguishing surface antigens by immunologic assays

D. Distinguishing surface antigens by immunologic assays

Small protozoa that have been missed on wet mounts or concentration methods are often detected with: !!! A. India ink B. Iodine C. Giemsa stain D. Trichrome stain

D. Trichrome stain

The preservative to be employed with trichrome stain: A. Formalin B. Alcohol C. PVA D. Iodine

C. PVA

Microsporidial infections can be confirmed using: !!! A. Light microscopy and modified trichrome stains B. Phase contrast microscopy and routine trichrome stains C. Electron microscopy and modified acid-fast stains D. Fluorescence microscopy and hematoxylin stains

A. Light microscopy and modified trichrome stains

Direct stool specimens stained with iodine make the trophozoite of protozoa: !!! A. A yellow color B. A brown color C. Disappear as they are destroyed by iodine D. Remain the same

C. Disappear as they are destroyed by iodine

Bright red pyramidal crystal in a fecal specimen stained with trichrome would be identified as: !!! A. Asbestos body B. Charcot-Leyden crystal C. Fecalith D. Chromatoid body

B. Charcot-Leyden crystal

Use solutions which have higher specific gravity than the organisms: !!! A. Flotation techniques B. Sedimentation techniques C. Both of these D. None of these

A. Flotation techniques

Use solutions of lower specific gravity than the parasitic organisms: !!!! A. Flotation techniques B. Sedimentation techniques C. Both of these D. None of these

B. Sedimentation techniques

WEST AFRICAN SLEEPING SICKNESS The two species of flies responsible for the transmission are Glossina palpalis and Glossina tachinoides: !!! A. Leishmania donovani B. Leishmania tropica C. Trypanosoma brucei gambiense D. Trypanosoma brucei rhodesiense

C. Trypanosoma brucei gambiense

EAST AFRICAN SLEEPING SICKNESS The two primary species of fly vectors responsible for transmitting are Glossina morsitans and Glossina pallidipes: A. Leishmania donovani B. Leishmania tropica C. Trypanosoma brucei gambiense D. Trypanosoma brucei rhodesiense

D. Trypanosoma brucei rhodesiense

One of the following protozoan organisms has been implicated in waterborne and foodborne outbreaks. The suspect organism is: A. Pentatrichomonas hominis B. Dientamoeba fragilis C. Giardia lamblia D. Balantidium coli

C. Giardia lamblia

Organisms that should be considered in a waterborne outbreak of diarrheal disease include: A. Giardia lamblia and Cryptosporidium spp. B. Endolimax nana and Entamoeba histolytica C. Blastocystis hominis and Trichomonas vaginalis D. Toxoplasma gondii and Schistosoma mansoni

A. Giardia lamblia and Cryptosporidium spp.

Which species of Plasmodium may readily be identified when crescent-shaped gametocytes are found in stained blood films? A. P. falciparum B. P. malariae C. P. ovale D. P. vivax

A. P. falciparum

Reddish brown, dorsoventrally flattened, wingless insects that attack most any mammal, feeding primarily at night; during daylight hours, they hide under mattresses, loose wallpaper, and floorboards: !!! A. Bed bugs B. Fleas C. Mites D. Ticks

A. Bed bugs

Cause of inflammation and itchiness of bed bug bites: A. Antenna B. Saliva C. Wings D. Any of these

B. Saliva

The enzyme ligase joins the Okazaki fragments of the: !! A. Template strand B. Lagging strand C. Leading strand D. Primer fragments

B. Lagging strand

Identify the correct sequence of events for a polymerase chain reaction (PCR) cycle. A. Anneal, extend, and denature B. Denature, anneal, and extend C. Extend, anneal, and denature D. Extend, denature, and anneal

B. Denature, anneal, and extend

Which enzyme catalyzes DNA replication? !!!! A. Endonuclease B. Ligase C. Polymerase D. Reverse transcriptase

C. Polymerase

What is the unique characteristic of the DNA polymerase, Taq DNA polymerase, used in PCR? A. It can be enzyme labeled B. It is more efficient than eukaryotic polymerases C. It is heat stable D. It works with DNA of any species

C. It is heat stable

In the PCR cycle, how is denaturation accomplished? A. Heat B. Alkali treatment C. Addition of sulfonylurea D. Formamide

A. Heat

In the PCR, a _____________ initiates extension of the sequence of interest by allowing Taq polymerase to begin adding nucleotides to single-stranded DNA. !!! A. Probe B. Ligase C. Promoter D. Primer

D. Primer

What is the composition of the primer used in PCR? !!! A. A cocktail of enzymes and nucleotide triphosphates that bind to the target B. An oligonucleotide complementary to bases at the 3 ́end of the target C. A small piece of dsDNA that attaches to the template D. A probe made of mRNA that binds downstream from the target

B. An oligonucleotide complementary to bases at the 3 ́end of the target

The master mix solution used for PCR contains: !! which of the following reagents? A. Deoxyribonucleotide triphosphates B. Deoxyribonucleotide monophosphates C. Deoxyribonucleosides D. Ribonucleotide monophosphate

A. Deoxyribonucleotide triphosphates

In PCR testing, the initial step involves adding the DNA in question to a mixture of taq polymerase, excess nucleotides, MgCl2, and primers. This mixture is placed in which of the following instruments to allow the amplification to take place?!! A. Flow cytometer B. Capillary array sequencer C. Thermal cycler D. Electrophoresis chamber

C. Thermal cycler

How can PCR be applied to the detection of human immunodeficiency and other RNA viruses? !!! A. The virus must be inserted into human DNA by viral integrase prior to PCR B. Substitute deoxyuridine triphosphate in place of deoxythymidine triphosphate in the master mix C. Add a heat-stable reverse transcriptase enzyme to the master mix D. Substitute ribonucleotide triphosphates for deoxyribonucleotide triphosphates in the master mix

C. Add a heat-stable reverse transcriptase enzyme to the master mix

PCR involving the sequential use of two primer sets: !!! A. Multiplex PCR B. Nested PCR C. Arbitrary primed PCR D. RT-PCR

B. Nested PCR

Monitoring the load of HIV circulating in a patient’s plasma would be best accomplished using which method? !!! A. ELISA B. DNA sequencing C. Northern blot D. Real-time nucleic acid amplification

D. Real-time nucleic acid amplification

ISOTHERMAL AMPLIFICATION: Loop-mediated isothermal amplification (LAMP) uses _____ primers and proceeds using a constant temperature coupled to a strand displacement reaction. A. 2 primers B. 3 primers C. 4 primers D. 5 primers

C. 4 primers

Signal amplification differs from target amplification when designing protocols for identification of nucleic acids. Which of the following is an example of a signal amplification technique? A. Branched-chain DNA detection B. Ligase chain reaction C. Polymerase chain reaction D. Reverse-transcriptase PCR

A. Branched-chain DNA detection

The detection of the DNA from cytomegalovirus (CMV) and human papillomavirus (HPV) is typically performed using the Hybrid Capture assay. What type of assay is Hybrid Capture? !!! A. Target amplification assay B. Signal amplification assay C. Reverse transcriptase assay D. Viral load assay

B. Signal amplification assay

The technique that uses fluorescent DNA probes to detect chromosomal abnormalities within cells in cytogenetic studies is referred to as: !!! A. Fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH) B. Karyotype in situ hybridization (KISH) C. Fluorescence in situ PCR D. Microarray

A. Fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH)

Recipient CELL UPTAKE OF NAKED (FREE) DNA released into the environment when another bacterial cell (i.e., donor) dies and undergoes lysis: !!! A. Transformation B. Transduction C. Conjugation D. None of these

A. Transformation

The process is mediated through viruses capable of infecting bacteria (BACTERIOPHAGES): A. Transformation B. Transduction C. Conjugation D. None of these

B. Transduction

In addition to chromosomal DNA, genes encoded in extrachromosomal genetic elements, such as PLASMIDS and TRANSPOSONS, may be transferred by: A. Transformation B. Transduction C. Conjugation D. None of these

C. Conjugation

What is the number of bacteria needed to cause turbidity in broth culture and to be seen with an unaided eye? !!! A. 102 organisms B. 104 organisms C. 106 organisms D. 108 organisms

C. 106 organisms

When examining fluids by direct microscopic examination, if one organism is seen per oil immersion field, how many organisms per milliliter of specimen are present? !!!!! A. 55 B. 75 C. 155 D. 105

D. 105

other names parasitology

Yves Laure Pimentel · 70問 · 2年前

other names parasitology