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50問 • 2年前

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What is the component of choice for a patient with chronic granulomatous disease (CGD)? - A. Fresh frozen plasma (FFP) - B. Granulocytes - C. Cryoprecipitate - D. RBCs

B. Granulocytes

What method can be employed to detect bacteria in random donor platelets? ] - A. pH - B. Glucose - C. Pan-genera detection (PGD) assay - D. Gram stain

C. Pan-genera detection (PGD) assay

: All of the following statements regarding FFP are true, except: - A. FFP must be prepared within 24 hours of collection - B. After thawing, FFP must be transfused within 24 hours - C. Storage temperature for FFP with a 1-year shelf life is –18°C or less - D. When thawed, FFP must be stored between 1°C to 6°C

FFP must be prepared within 24 hours of collection

What may be done to RBCs before transfusion to a patient with cold agglutinin disease to reduce the possibility of a transfusion reaction? ] - A. Irradiate to prevent graft-versus-host-disease (GVHD) - B. Wash with 0.9% saline - C. Warm to 37°C with a blood warmer - D. Transport so that temperature is maintained at 20°C to 24°C

C. Warm to 37°C with a blood warmer

: A unit of packed RBCs is split using the open system. One of the half units is used. What may be done with the second half unit? ] - A. Must be issued within 24 hours - B. Must be issued within 48 hours - C. Must be irradiated - D. Must retain the original expiration date

A. Must be issued within 24 hours

What should be done if a noticeable clot is found in an RBC unit? - A. Issue the unit; the blood will be filtered - B. Issue the unit; note the presence of a clot on the release form - C. Filter the unit in the blood bank before issue - D. Do not issue the unit

D. Do not issue the unit

: Cryoprecipitate may be used to treat all of the following, except: - A. von Willebrand disease - B. Hypofibrinogenemia - C. Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) - D. Factor XIII deficiency

C. Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP)

What component(s) is (are) indicated for patients who have anti-IgA antibodies? - A. Whole blood - B. Packed RBCs - C. Washed or deglycerolized RBCs - D. Granulocytes

Washed or deglycerolized RBCs

What is the expiration date for pooled cryoprecipitate (pooled before freezing)? - A. 12 months from latest date of collection of product in pool - B. 12 months from earliest date of collection of product in pool - C. 4 hours - D. 6 hours

B. 12 months from earliest date of collection of product in pool

All of the following are true regarding washed RBCs, except: - A. RBCs are washed with 1 to 2 L of normal saline - B. Volume is 180 mL - C. Shelf life is extended - D. Leukocytes are removed

C. Shelf life is extended

Which component has the longest expiration date? - A. Cryoprecipitate - B. FFP - C. Frozen RBCs - D. Platelet concentrates

C. Frozen RBCs

: All of the following are advantages of using single-donor platelets as opposed to random donor platelets, except: - A. Less preparation time - . Less antigen exposure for patients - C. May be HLA matched - D. No pooling is required

A. Less preparation time

What is the expiration of cryoprecipitate once pooled without the use of a sterile connecting device? - A. 4 hours - B. 6 hours - C. 8 hours - D. 24 hours

A. 4 hours

All of the following are reasons for a positive DAT on cord blood cells of a newborn except: - A. High concentrations of Wharton jelly on cord blood cells - B. Immune anti-A from an O mother on the cells of an A baby - C. Immune anti-D from an Rh negative mother on the cells of an Rh-positive baby - D. Immune anti-K from a K-negative mother on the cells of a K-negative baby

D. Immune anti-K from a K-negative mother on the cells of a K-negative baby

A fetal screen yielded negative results on a mother who is O negative and infant who is O positive. What course of action should be taken? ] - A. Perform a Kleihauer-Betke test - B. Issue one full dose of RhIg - C. Perform a DAT on the infant - D. Perform an antibody screen on the mother

B. Issue one full dose of RhIg

What should be done when a woman who is 24 weeks pregnant has a positive antibody screen? ] - A. Perform an antibody identification panel; titer, if necessary - B. No need to do anything until 30 weeks’ gestation - C. Administer RhIg - D. Adsorb the antibody onto antigen-positive cells

A. Perform an antibody identification panel; titer, if necessary

: All of the following are interventions for fetal distress caused by maternal antibodies attacking fetal cells except: ] - A. Intrauterine transfusion - B. Plasmapheresis on the mother - C. Transfusion of antigen-positive cells to the mother - D. Middle cerebral artery peak systolic velocity (MCA-PSV)

C. Transfusion of antigen-positive cells to the mother

Cord blood cells are washed six times with saline, and the DAT result and negative control are still positive. What should be done next? ] - A. Obtain a heelstick sample - B. Record the DAT result as positive - C. Obtain another cord blood sample - D. Perform elution on the cord blood cells

A. Obtain a heelstick sample

What is the correct procedure upon receipt of a test request for human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) on the serum of a 60-year-old man? ] - A. Return the request; hCG is not performed on men - B. Perform a qualitative hCG test to see if hCG is present - C. Perform the test; hCG may be increased in testicular tumors - D. Perform the test but use different standards and controls

C. Perform the test; hCG may be increased in testicular tumors

Would an hCG test using a monoclonal antibody against the β-subunit of hCG likely be affected by an increased level of follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)? ] - A. Yes, the β-subunit of FSH is identical to that of hCG - B. No, the test would be specific for the β-subunit of hCG - C. Yes, a cross reaction would occur because of structural similarities - D. No, the structure of FSH and hCG are not at all similar

B. No, the test would be specific for the β-subunit of hCG

Which of the following substances, sometimes used as a tumor marker, is increased two or threefold in a normal pregnancy? ] - A. Alkaline phosphatase (ALP) - B. Calcitonin - C. Adrenocortocotropic hormone (ACTH) - D. Neuron-specific enolase

A. Alkaline phosphatase (ALP)

What is an advantage of performing a prostate-specific antigen (PSA) test for prostate cancer? ] - A. PSA is stable in serum and not affected by digital rectal examination - B. PSA is increased only in prostatic malignancy - C. A normal serum level rules out malignant prostatic disease - D. The percentage of free PSA is elevated in persons with malignant disease

A. PSA is stable in serum and not affected by digital rectal examination

Which method is the most sensitive for quantitation of AFP ] - A. Double immunodiffusion - B. Electrophoresis - C. Enzyme immunoassay - D. Particle agglutination

C. Enzyme immunoassay

How is HLA typing used in the investigation of genetic diseases? - A. For prediction of the severity of the disease - B. For genetic linkage studies - C. For direct diagnosis of disease - D. Is not useful in this situation

B. For genetic linkage studies

Select the best donor for a man, blood type AB, in need of kidney transplantation. ] - A. His brother, type AB, HLA matched for class II antigens - B. His mother, type B, HLA matched for class I antigens - C. His cousin, type O, HLA matched for major class II antigens - D. Deceased donor, type O, HLA matched for some class I and II antigens

A. His brother, type AB, HLA matched for class II antigens

Interpret the following microcytotoxicity target cell results: A9 and B12 cells = damaged; A1 and Aw19 cells = intact. ] - A. Positive for A1 and Aw19; negative for A9 and B12 - B. Negative for A1 and Aw19; positive for A9 and B12 - C. Error in test system; retest - D. Impossible to determine

B. Negative for A1 and Aw19; positive for A9 and B12

Which method, classically used for HLA-D typing, is often used to determine the compatibility between a living organ donor and a recipient? ] - A. Flow cytometry - B. Mixed lymphocyte culture (MLC) - C. Primed lymphocyte test - D. Restriction fragment length polymorphism (RFLP)

B. Mixed lymphocyte culture (MLC)

The most effective component to treat a patient with fibrinogen deficiency is: - A. Fresh Frozen Plasma - B. Platelets - D. Cryoprecipitate - C. Fresh Whole Blood

D. Cryoprecipitate

. The major immunoglobulin class(es) of anti-B in a group A individual is (are): ] - IgM - IgG - IgM and IgG - IgM and IgA

IgM

: Which of the following best describes ANCA? ] - Anti-nuclear cell antibodies - Anti-neurological cytoplasmic antigens - Anti-neutrophilic cytoplasmic antibodies - Anti-nucleic acid complex antigens

Anti-neutrophilic cytoplasmic antibodies

.. What is the second leading cause of death in systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) patients? ] - Kidney failure - Infections - Stroke - Heart disease

Heart disease

... How many RDPs are required to increase a pre-transfusion platelet count of 135,000/ul to a 150,000/ul post-transfusion platelet count? ] - 1 - 2 - 3 - 4

Blocked Rh remedy ] - Elution - Absorption - Adsorption - Recentrifugation of the blood sample

Elution

... Karyotyping must be performed during ] - Metaphase - Prophase - Telophase - Anaphase

Metaphase

..... First molecular marker to increase in the early Hepa B infection ] - HBV DNA - HbsAg - Surface Antigen - Both B and C

HBV DNA

...... First serological marker to increase during Hepa B infection ] - HbsAg - HbeAg - HbfAg - HbcAg

HbsAg

A test for Type 1 hypersensitivity ] - Mantoux mtd - Prausnitz-Kustner rxn - Coomb's test - 54% Patch test

Prausnitz-Kustner rxn

in flourescent immunoassay, this fluorochrome exhibits apple green color ] - FITC - TRITC - FCTIT

- FITC

most common autoimmune liver dsx ] - primary biliary cirrhosis - SLE - primary sclerosing cholangitis - autoimmune hepa

primary biliary cirrhosis

: Which two organs are considered the primary lymphoid organs in which immunocompetent cells originate and mature? - Thyroid and Peyer patches - Thymus and bone marrow - Spleen and mucosal-associated lymphoid tissue (MALT) - Lymph nodes and thoracic duct

Thymus and bone marrow

: What type of B cells is formed after antigen stimulation? - Plasma cells and memory B cells - Mature B cells - Antigen-dependent B cells - Receptor-activated B cells

Plasma cells and memory B cells

Which cluster of differentiation (CD) marker is the most specific identifying marker for mature T cells? - CD1 - CD2 - CD3 - CD4 or CD8

CD2

: Which markers are found on mature, peripheral helper T cells? - CD1, CD2, CD4 - CD2, CD3, CD8 - CD1, CD3, CD4 - CD2, CD3, CD4

CD2, CD3, CD4

What is the name of the process by which phagocytic cells are attracted to a substance, such as a bacterial peptide? - Diapedesis - Degranulation - Chemotaxis - Phagotaxis

Chemotaxis

All of the following are immunologic functions of complement EXCEPT: - Inducion of an antiviral state - Opsonization - Chemotaxis - Anaphylatoxin formation

Inducion of an antiviral sta

: Which complement component is found in both the classic and alternative pathways? - C1 - C4 - FACTOR D - C3

Which T cells express the CD8 marker and act specifically to kill tumors or virally infected cells? - Helper T cells - Suppressor T cells - Cytotoxic T cells (TC cells) - Regulator T cells

Cytotoxic T cells (TC cells)

: How are TC cells and natural killer (NK) cells similar? - A. Require antibody to be present - B. Effective against virally infected cells - C. Recognize antigen in association with human leukocyte antigen (HLA) class II markers - D. Do not bind to infected cells

B. Effective against virally infected cells

Which of the following is not a viable method for removing leukocytes from RBCs? ] - A. Prestorage filtration - B. Bedside filtration - C. Poststorage filtration - D. Buffy coat removal

D. Buffy coat removal

: A unit of whole blood is collected at 10:00 a.m. and stored at 20°C to 24°C. What is the last hour at which platelet concentrates may be made from this unit? - A. 4:00 p.m. - B. 6:00 p.m. - C. 7:00 p.m. - D. 8:00 p.m.

B. 6:00 p.m.

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Yves Laure Pimentel · 64問 · 2年前

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