POPCORN

100問 • 1年前

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A 28-year-old man is seen by a physician because of several months of intermittent low back pain. The patient's symptoms are suggestive of ankylosing spondylitis. Which of the following laboratory studies would support this diagnosis? A. Decreased synovial fluid CH50 level B. Low serum CH50 level C. Positive HLA-B27 antigen test D. Rheumatoid factor in the synovial fluid

C. Positive HLA-B27 antigen test

HLA-B8 antigen has been associated with an increased incidence of which of the following pairs of diseases? A. Ankylosing spondylitis and myasthenia gravis B. Celiac disease and ankylosing spondylitis C. Myasthenia gravis and celiac disease D. Reiter disease and multiple sclerosis

C. Myasthenia gravis and celiac disease

The presence of HBsAg, anti-HBc and often HBeAg is characteristic of: A. Early acute phase HBV hepatitis B. Early convalescent phase HBV hepatitis C. Recovery phase of acute HBV hepatitis D. Past HBV infection

A. Early acute phase HBV hepatitis

The disappearance of HBsAg and HBeAg, the persistence of anti-HBc, the appearance of anti-HBs, and often of anti-HBe indicate: A. Early acute HBV hepatitis B. Early convalescent phase HBV hepatitis C. Recovery phase of acute HBV hepatitis D. Carrier state of acute HBV hepatitis

C. Recovery phase of acute HBV hepatitis

What assay would confirm the immune status to hepatitis B virus? A. HBsAg B. Anti-HBs C. lgM anti-HBcAg D. Hepatitis C Ag

B. Anti-HBs

The antigen marker most closely associated with transmissibility of HBV infection is: A. HBsAg B. HBeAg C. HBcAg D. HBV

B. HBeAg

The Mantoux test for Mycobacterium tuberculosis is based on a: A. Type Ill hypersensitivity reaction B. Type II hypersensitivity reaction C. Type I hypersensitivity reaction D. Type IV hypersensitivity reaction

D. Type IV hypersensitivity reaction

Hepatitis B, a disease arising from a DNA virus, is diagnosed in its acute phase via serology for HBsAg, HBclgM and total alpha-HBc. Once a patient reaches chronic HBV infection, effectiveness of therapy may be evaluated using: A. HBV DNA testing with realtime PCR B. Alpha-HBe testing C. Alpha-HBs testing D. lgM alpha-HBc

A. HBV DNA testing with realtime PCR

A 54-year-old female previous smoker presents with a recent history of fever, swollen joints, and morning stiffness. Laboratory results indicate elevated C-reactive protein, positive cyclic citrullinated peptide of 205 units (cut-off: 20 units), speckled ANA pattern (titer 1:320), and negative rheumatoid factor. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Reactive arthritis B. Rheumatoid arthritis C. Systemic sclerosis D. Sjogren syndrome

B. Rheumatoid arthritis

The activation of plasminogen to plasmin resulting in the degradation of fibrin occurs by: A. PAl-1 [Plasminogen Activator Inhibitor] B. Alpha-2 antiplasmin C. tPA [tissue-type Plasminogen Activator] D. Alpha-2 macroglobulin

C. tPA [tissue-type Plasminogen Activator]

Platelet aggregation will occur with the end production of: A. Cyclooxygenase B. Arachidonic acid C. Prostacyclin D. Thromboxane A2

D. Thromboxane A2

Miscible with paraffin: A. Water B. Ethanol C. Xylene D. All of these

C. Xylene

The laboratory manager receives a complaint from the ICU about turnaround times for coagulation tests. The first step in problem solving should be: A. Gather data on current times by shift B. Talk to staff about various solutions C. Perform root cause analysis D. Draw a process map to send to the ICU explaining why it takes so long

A. Gather data on current times by shift

The precision of an instrument is validated by: A. Running the same sample multiple times B. Performing serial dilutions C. Processing unknown specimens D. Monitoring normal and abnormal controls

A. Running the same sample multiple times

Gloves worn in the laboratory for specimen processing must be removed and hands washed when: A. Answering the telephone in the technical work area B. Carrying a specimen outside the technical work area through "clean" areas C. Answering the telephone in a designated "clean" area D. After handling specimens from known isolation precaution patients

C. Answering the telephone in a designated "clean" area

To prevent injury, a safe lab work practice is to: A. Secure long hair and jewelry B. Store well-wrapped food in the supply refrigerator C. Wear contact lenses for eye protection D. Wear comfortable, rubber-bottomed, open-weaved shoes

A. Secure long hair and jewelry

The term used to describe reproducibility is: A. Sensitivity B. Specificity C. Accuracy D. Precision

D. Precision

Diagnostic specificity is defined as the percentage of individuals: A. With a given disease who have a positive result by a given test B. Without a given disease who have a negative result by a given test C. With a given disease who have a negative result by a given test D. Without a given disease who have a positive result by a given test

B. Without a given disease who have a negative result by a given test

The process by which an agency or organization uses predetermined standards to evaluate and recognize a program of study in an institution is called: A. Regulation B. Licensure C. Accreditation D. Credentialing ---

C. Accreditation

A general term for the formal recognition of professional or technical competence is: A. Regulation B. Licensure C. Accreditation D. Credentialing

D. Credentialing

A paper or electronic report of lab results must include: A. The name of the person who collected the specimen B. The test price C. Pathologist's signature D. The name and address of the testing laboratory

D. The name and address of the testing laboratory

Certificate of registration as a medical technologist shall be issued to successful applicants who attained the age of at least: A. 19 years old B. 20 years old C. 21 years old D. 22 years old

C. 21 years old

The OSHA hazard communication standard, the “right-to-know” rule, is designed for what purpose? A. To avoid lawsuits B. To protect laboratory staff C. To protect patients D. To establish safety standards

B. To protect laboratory staff

The purest type of reagent water is: A. Type I. B. Type II. C. Type III. D. All are equal.

A. Type I.

If serum is allowed to remain on the clot for a prolonged period, which of the following effects will be noted? A. Elevated level of serum potassium B. Decreased level of serum potassium C. Elevated level of glucose D. None of the above.

A. Elevated level of serum potassium

20°C = ___ °F A. 25 B. 53 C. 68 D. 86

C. 68

75°F = ___ °C A. 15.5 B. 21.0 C. 23.8 D. 32.6

C. 23.8

In the visible light spectrum, the color red is in what nanometer range? A. 380-440 nm B. 500-580 nm C. 600-620 nm D. 620-750 nm

D. 620-750 nm

Nephelometry measures the light scatter of: A. Ions B. Macromolecules complexes C. Antibodies D. Soluble antigens

B. Macromolecules complexes

Which of the following stains is classified as a Romanowsky stains? A. Brilliant cresyl blue B. New methylene blue C. Wright-Giemsa D. Prussian blue

C. Wright-Giemsa

1. Inoculum size for DISK DIFFUSION susceptibility testing: A. 1 x 10^4 CFU/mL B. 1.5 x 10^5 CFU/mL C. 1.5 x 10^8 CFU/mL D. 5 x 10^5 CFU/mL

C. 1.5 x 10^8 CFU/mL

Inoculum size for AGAR DILUTION susceptibility testing: A. 1 x 10^4 CFU/spot B. 1.5 x 10^5 CFU/spot C. 1.5 x 10^8 CFU/spot D. 5 x 10^5 CFU/spot

A. 1 x 10^4 CFU/spot

Inoculum size for BROTH DILUTION susceptibility testing: A. 1 x 10^4 CFU/mL B. 1.5 x 10^5 CFU/mL C. 1.5 x 10^8 CFU/mL D. 5 x 10^5 CFU/mL

D. 5 x 10^5 CFU/mL

Which alloantibody is most likely to be produced if a patient that has the Rh genotype of R1R1 is transfused with red blood cells that have an Rh genotype of R0R0? A. Anti-D B. Anti-C C. Anti-c D. Anti-E E. Anti-e

C. Anti-c

Anti-G will react with red blood cells of each of the following phenotypes except: A. D+C- B. D-C+ C. D-C- D. D+C+

C. D-C-

Which cells agglutinate most strongly with Ulex europaeus lectin? A. O and A2 B. A1 and A2 C. O and A1B D. B and A2B E. A1 and B

A. O and A2

The rarest of all blood types is characterized by the absence of the common H antigen. This leads to the production of a naturally occurring, hemolytic anti-H. People with this null can only be transfused with red blood cells from other people with this null. A. McLeod phenotype B. Bombay phenotype C. Rh null phenotype D. In(Lu) E. MkMk

B. Bombay phenotype

The preparation of a patient for standard glucose tolerance testing should include: A. High carbohydrate diet for 3 days B. Low carbohydrate diet for 3 days C. Fasting for 48 hours prior to testing D. Bed rest for 3 days

A. High carbohydrate diet for 3 days

In the tolbutamide tolerance test, blood specimens are obtained for glucose and insulin before ________ of 1 g of a water-soluble form of tolbutamide and at 2, 15, 30, 60, 90, and 120 minutes afterwards. A. Oral administration B. Intramuscular injection C. Intravenous injection D. Sublingual administration

C. Intravenous injection

The conversion of glucose or other hexoses into lactate or pyruvate is called: A. Glycogenesis B. Glycogenolysis C. Gluconeogenesis D. Glycolysis

D. Glycolysis

Monitoring long-term glucose control in patients with adult onset diabetes mellitus can best be accomplished by measuring: A. Weekly fasting 7 AM serum glucose B. Glucose tolerance testing C. 2-hour postprandial serum glucose D. HbA1c

D. HbA1c

A patient with hemolytic anemia will: A. Show a decrease in glycated Hb value B. Show an increase in glycated Hb value C. how little or no change in glycated Hb value D. Demonstrate an elevated HbA1

A. Show a decrease in glycated Hb value

An increase in serum acetone is indicative of a defect in the metabolism of: A. Carbohydrates B. Fat C. Urea nitrogen D. Uric acid

A. Carbohydrates

Tne international unit of enzyme activity is the amount of enzyme that will, under specified reaction conditions of substrate concentration, pH and temperature, cause utilization of substrate at the rate of: A. 1 mol/min B. 1 mmol/min C. 1 μmol/min D. 1 nmol/min

C. 1 μmol/min

The lipoprotein that transports cholesterol away from the tissues is: A. HDL B. IDL C. LDL D. VLDL

A. HDL

What substance gives feces its normal color? A. Uroerythrin B. Urochrome C. Urobilin D. Urobilinogen

C. Urobilin

Which of the following enzymes catalyzes the conversion of starch to glucose and maltose? A. Malate dehydrogenase (MD) B. Amylase (AMS) C. Creatine kinase (CK) D. Isocitric dehydrogenase (ICD)

B. Amylase (AMS)

The most sensitive enzymatic indicator for liver damage from ethanol intake is: A. Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) B. Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) C. Gamma-glutamyl transferase (GGT) D. Alkaline phosphatase

C. Gamma-glutamyl transferase (GGT)

The main function of serum albumin in the peripheral blood is to: A. Maintain colloidal osmotic pressure B. Increase antibody production C. Increase fibrinogen formation D. Maintain blood viscosity

A. Maintain colloidal osmotic pressure

The first step in analyzing a 24-hour urine specimen for quantitative urine protein is: A. Subculture the urine for bacteria B. Add the appropriate preservative C. Screen for albumin using a dipstick D. Measure the total volume

D. Measure the total volume

A critically ill patient becomes comatose. The physician believes the coma is due to hepatic failure. The assay most helpful in this diagnosis is: A. Ammonia B. ALT C. AST D. GGT

A. Ammonia

Creatinine clearance is used to estimate the: A. Tubular secretion of creatinine B. Glomerular secretion of creatinine C. Renal glomerular and tubular mass D. Glomerular filtration rate

D. Glomerular filtration rate

Clinical assays for tumor markers are most important for: A. Screening for the presence of cancer B. Monitoring the course of a known cancer C. Confirming the absence of disease D. Identifying patients at risk for cancer

B. Monitoring the course of a known cancer

In monitoring glomerular function, which of the following tests has the highest sensitivity? A. Urine sodium B. BUN/creatinine ratio C. Creatinine clearance D. Urea clearance

C. Creatinine clearance

A double albumin band seen on serum protein electrophoresis indicates: A. Severe liver disease B. Bisalbuminemia C. Acute inflammation D. Hemolytic anemia

B. Bisalbuminemia

The expected blood gas results for a patient in chronic renal failure would match the pattern of: A. Metabolic acidosis B. Respiratory acidosis C. Metabolic alkalosis D. Respiratory alkalosis

A. Metabolic acidosis

Severe diarrhea causes: A. Metabolic acidosis B. Metabolic alkalosis C. Respiratory acidosis D. Respiratory alkalosis

A. Metabolic acidosis

The most important buffer pair in plasma is the: A. Phosphate/biphosphate pair B. Hemoglobin/imidazole pair C. Bicarbonate/carbonic acid pair D. Sulfate/bisulfate pair

C. Bicarbonate/carbonic acid pair

The bicarbonate and carbonic acid ratio is calculated from an equation by: A. Siggaard-Andersen B. Gibbs-Donnan C. Natelson D. Henderson-Hasselbalch

D. Henderson-Hasselbalch

Most automated blood gas analyzers directly measure: A. pH, HCO3, and% O2 saturation B. pH, pCO2,and pO2 C. HCO3, pCO2, and pO2 D. pH, pO2, and% O2 saturation

B. pH, pCO2,and pO2

The anion gap is useful for quality control of laboratory results for: A. Amino acids and proteins B. Blood gas analyses C. Sodium, potassium, chloride, and total CO2 D. Calcium, phosphorus and magnesium

C. Sodium, potassium, chloride, and total CO2

The buffering capacity of blood is maintained by a reversible exchange process between bicarbonate and: A. Sodium B. Potassium C. Calcium D. Chloride

D. Chloride

Which of the following electrolytes is the chief plasma cation whose main function is maintaining osmotic pressure? A. Chloride B. Calcium C. Potassium D. Sodium

D. Sodium

The recommended initial thyroid function test for either a healthy, asymptomatic patient or a patient with symptoms which may be related to a thyroid disorder is: A. Free thyroxine (free T4) B. Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) C. Total thyroxine (T4) D. Triiodothyronine (T3)

B. Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)

24-hour homovanillic acid (HVA) is usually ordered to help in diagnosis of: A. Cushing disease B. Malignant neuroblastoma C. Conn disease D. Graves disease

B. Malignant neuroblastoma

The typical specimen collected for forensic toxicity of drugs of abuse is: A. Random urine B. Serum C. Whole blood D. Hair follicle

A. Random urine

A DPT vaccination is an example of: A. Active humeral-mediated immunity B. Passive humeral-mediated immunity C. Cell-mediated immunity D. Immediate hypersensitivity

A. Active humeral-mediated immunity

The acute phase reactant that has the fastest response time and can rise 100x is: A. Alpha-1 antitrypsin B. Haptoglobin C. C-reactive protein D. Ceruloplasmin

C. C-reactive protein

A haptenic determinant will react with: A. Both T cells and antibody B. T cells but not antibody C. Neither T cells nor antibody A. Antibody but not T cells

A. Antibody but not T cells

T cells are incapable of: A. Collaborating with B cells in antibody responses B. Secretion of immunoglobulins C. Secretion of cytokines D. Producing positive skin tests

B. Secretion of immunoglobulins

Macroscopically, a well-stained blood film should be: A. Red to brown B. Green to blue C. Pink to red D. Pink to purple

D. Pink to purple

Respiratory specimens are best collected with what type of swabs? A. Calcium alginate swabs B. Dacron- or polyester-tipped swabs C. Swabs with cotton tips or wooden shafts D. All of the above are acceptable

B. Dacron- or polyester-tipped swabs

A reduction in thrombin generation in patients with Scott syndrome results from: A. Defective granule secretion B. Altered platelet aggregation C. Altered expression of phospholipids on the platelet membrane D. Deficiency of vitamin K-dependent clotting factors

C. Altered expression of phospholipids on the platelet membrane

Creatine is synthesized in the liver from all of the following amino acids, EXCEPT: A. Arginine B. Cystine C. Glycine D. Methionine

B. Cystine

All of the following specimens may be submitted for drug testing, EXCEPT: A. Blood B. Urine C. Oral fluid D. Seminal fluid

D. Seminal fluid

Type 3c diabetes, EXCEPT: A. Autoimmune B. Cystic fibrosis C. Hemochromatosis D. Pancreatitis

A. Autoimmune

Which of the following blood samples would serve best to assay lipoproteins because this anticoagulant acts to preserve lipoproteins? A. EDTA plasma sample B. Heparin plasma sample C. Citrate plasma sample D. Fluoride plasma sample

A. EDTA plasma sample

A patient sample is assayed for fasting triglycerides and a triglyceride value of 1036 mg/dL. This value is of immediate concern because of its association with which of the following conditions? A. Coronary heart disease B. Diabetes C. Pancreatitis D. Gout

C. Pancreatitis

Calcium is essential for functional integrity of this enzyme: A. Alkaline phosphatase B. Amylase C. Cholinesterase D. Lipase

B. Amylase

Non-alcoholic: A. Fruit brandy B. Root beer C. Soju D. Wine

B. Root beer

Actinomyces are: A. Gram-negative, obligate anaerobes B. Gram-negative, facultative anaerobes C. Gram-positive, obligate anaerobes D. Gram-positive, facultative anaerobes

D. Gram-positive, facultative anaerobes

Identify urinary crystals: A. Calcium oxalate B. Cholesterol C. Hippuric acid D. Triple phosphate

C. Hippuric acid

Reason for donor deferral: A. Antibiotics B. Birth control pills (oral contraceptives) C. Hepatitis A vaccine D. Blood pressure medications

A. Antibiotics

An ammonia-like odor is characteristically associated with urine from patients with: A. Phenylketonuria B. Viral hepatitis C. Bacterial infection D. Yeast infection

C. Bacterial infection

Urine that develops a "port wine" or deep red color after standing may contain: A. Melanin B. Porphyrins C. Bilirubin D. Urobilinogen

B. Porphyrins

Bright orange urine from a 24-year-old patient with cystitis likely contains: A. Bilirubin B. Pyridium C. Rifampin D. Ammonia

B. Pyridium

Following a severe crush injury, a patient is transported to the emergency room where a blood sample and a urine sample are collected. The patient's urine sample appears reddish-brown, which may be due to the presence of: A. Stercobilin B. Porphyrins C. Myoglobin D. Fresh blood

C. Myoglobin

A random urine specimen collected shortly after the patient ate lunch appeared cloudy. Results of the reagent test strip were normal. The most likely cause of the sample's turbidity is the presence of: A. Bacteria B. White blood cells C. Amorphous urates D. Amorphous phosphates

D. Amorphous phosphates

If testing cannot be performed within one hour of collection, urine samples should be: A. Frozen B. Refrigerated C. Acidified with HCI D. Discarded down the sink

B. Refrigerated

If an ambulatory, adult patient is suspected of having a urinary tract infection, which of the following collection methods would be most appropriate to obtain a urine sample? A. Random B. Catheterization C. Suprapubic aspiration D. Clean-catch midstream

D. Clean-catch midstream

Professional Regulation Commission (PRC) is a three-man commission attached to: A. DOLE B. CHED C. PHILHEALTH D. Office of the President

A. DOLE

COR as MT is not issued to individuals less than ___ yrs old A. 21 B. 22 C. 24 D. 25

A. 21

Hyperemia: A. Bruising B. Blushing C. Vaginal bleeding D. Nose bleeding

B. Blushing

Stain for collagen A. Warthin-Starry B. Masson’s trichrome C. Masson-Fontana D. Janus Green

B. Masson’s trichrome

After a boxing game, the boxer’s urine was red in color. Other than blood, what could cause it? A. Urobilinogen B. Myoglobin C. Haptoglobin D. Bilirubin

B. Myoglobin

Insufficient centrifugation will result in: A. A false increase in hematocrit (Hct) value B. A false decrease in Hct value C. No effect on Hct value D. All of these options, depending on the patient

A. A false increase in hematocrit (Hct) value

A decreased osmotic fragility test would be associated with which of the following conditions? A. Sickle cell anemia B. Hereditary spherocytosis C. Hemolytic disease of the newborn D. Acquired hemolytic anemia

A. Sickle cell anemia

Which of the following statistical terms reflects the best index of precision when comparing two CBC parameters? A. Mean B. Median C. Coefficient of variation D. Standard deviation

C. Coefficient of variation

What is the major type of leukocyte seen in the peripheral smear of a patient with aplastic anemia? A. Segmented neutrophil B. Lymphocyte C. Monocyte D. Eosinophil

B. Lymphocyte

100

Autoagglutination of red cells at room temperature can cause which of the following abnormal test results? A. Low RBC count B. High MCV C. Low hematocrit D. All of these options

D. All of these options

other names parasitology

Yves Laure Pimentel · 70問 · 2年前

other names parasitology