SUMMATIVE EXAM 5

100問 • 1年前

問題一覧

An indicator of PRE-ECLAMPSIA: A. Cylindruria B. Ketonuria C. Hematuria D. Proteinuria

D. Proteinuria

A "Maltese cross" configuration is produced in tissue by polarization of: A. Calcium oxalate B. Uric acid C. Talcum powder D. Lipofuscin

C. Talcum powder

In OBESE patients, veins may be neither readily visible nor easy to palpate. Sometimes the use of a blood pressure cuff can aid in locating a vein. The cuff should: A. Inflated higher than 40 mm Hg and should be left on the arm for longer than 1 minute B. Inflated higher than 40 mmHg and should not be left on the arm for longer than 1 minute C. Not be inflated any higher than 40 mm Hg and should be left on the arm for longer than 1 minute D. Not be inflated any higher than 40 mm Hg and should not be left on the arm for longer than 1 minute

D. Not be inflated any higher than 40 mm Hg and should not be left on the arm for longer than 1 minute

RBC with membrane folded over: A. Aplastic anemia B. Iron deficiency anemia C. Hemoglobin C, hemoglobin SC disease D. Sickle cell anemia, thalassemia

C. Hemoglobin C, hemoglobin SC disease

Gaucher disease: A. Monocyte-macrophage series B. Neutrophilic series C. Lymphocytic series D. Erythrocytic series

A. Monocyte-macrophage series

Niemann-Pick disease: A. Monocyte-macrophage series B. Neutrophilic series C. Lymphocytic series D. Erythrocytic series

A. Monocyte-macrophage series

Chédiak-Higashi syndrome: A. Monocyte-macrophage series B. Neutrophilic series C. Lymphocytic series D. Erythrocytic series

B. Neutrophilic series

Chronic granulomatous disease: A. Monocyte-macrophage series B. Neutrophilic series C. Lymphocytic series D. Erythrocytic series

B. Neutrophilic series

Lazy leukocyte syndrome: A. Monocyte-macrophage series B. Neutrophilic series C. Lymphocytic series D. Erythrocytic series

B. Neutrophilic series

The newer clinical instruments for measuring blood clotting are based on: A. Clot elasticity B. Fibrin adhesion C. Conduction of impedance of an electrical current by fibrin D. Changes in optical density

D. Changes in optical density

A patient’s serum IgA as measured by radial immunodiffusion (RID) was 40 mg/dL. Another laboratory reported IgA absent. A possible explanation for this discrepancy is that the: A. Rabbit antiserum was used in the RID plates and rabbit antisera should not be utilized in RID assays B. IgA has an Fc deletion that cause complex formation in vivo C. IgA antiserum has kappa specificity D. Patient serum has antibodies against a protein in the antiserum in the agarose of the RID utilized by the first lab

D. Patient serum has antibodies against a protein in the antiserum in the agarose of the RID utilized by the first lab

All of the following are reasons for performing an adsorption, except: A. Separation of mixtures of antibodies B. Removal of interfering substances C. Confirmation of weak antigens on red cells D. Identification of antibodies causing a positive DAT

D. Identification of antibodies causing a positive DAT

How is an individual with genotype Dce/dce classified? A. Rh positive B. Rh negative C. Rh null D. Total Rh

A. Rh positive

Testing reveals a weak D that reacts 1+ after indirect antiglobulin testing (IAT). How is this result classified? A. Rh-positive B. Rh-negative, Du positive C. Rh-negative D. Rh-positive, Du positive

A. Rh-positive

How often can a blood donor donate whole blood? A. Every 24 hours B. Once a month C. Every 8 weeks D. Twice a year

C. Every 8 weeks

Following plasmapheresis, how long must a person wait before being eligible to donate a unit of whole blood? A. 8 weeks B. 2 weeks C. 48 hours D. 24 hours

C. 48 hours

What is the safest blood that patient can receive? A. Autologous blood B. Blood from directed donor C. Blood that was crossmatched D. Blood that was crossmatched and screened for transfusion-transmitted infections

A. Autologous blood

A cause for permanent deferral of blood donation is: A. Diabetes B. Residence in an endemic malaria region C. History of jaundice of uncertain cause D. History of therapeutic rabies vaccine

C. History of jaundice of uncertain cause

Which physical examination result is cause for rejecting a whole-blood donor? A. Weight of 105 lb B. Pulse of 75 C. Temperature of 99.3°F D. Diastolic pressure of 110 mm Hg

D. Diastolic pressure of 110 mm Hg

An 18-year-old female with a hematocrit of 38%, temperature of 37 o C, and blood pressure of 175/ 90 mm Hg presents for whole blood donation. Based on this information, would you accept, permanently defer (PD), or temporarily defer (TD) the donor? A. Accept B. TD, blood pressure is too high for a person of her age C. TD, temperature is too high D. PD, for all values listed

A. Accept

A 63-year-old man with a hemoglobin of 13 g/dL and pulse of 80 beats/min, who received human pituitary growth hormone (PGH) when he was 10 years old, presents for whole blood donation. Based on this information, would you accept, permanently defer (PD,) or temporarily defer (TD) the donor? A. Accept the donor B. TD, because of the human PGH C. PD, because of the human PGH D. PD, because of the high hemoglobin value

C. PD, because of the human PGH

A 38-year-old female weighing 153 lbs, who received the rubella vaccine 2 months previously, presents to donate whole blood. She also received 2 units of packed cells after the delivery of her eighth child 8 weeks ago. Based on this information, would you accept, permanently defer (PD), or temporarily defer (TD) the donor? A. Accept the donor B. TD because of the packed cells 8 weeks ago C. PD because of receiving blood products D. TD because of the rubella vaccine

B. TD because of the packed cells 8 weeks ago

A 22-year-old female with a cousin with AIDS who had taken aspirin the day before and with needle marks on both arms presents to donate whole blood. Based on this information, would you accept, permanently defer (PD), or temporarily defer (TD) the donor? A. PD, needle marks on both arms B. TD, needle marks on both arms C. PD, cousin with AIDS D. TD, because of the aspirin

A. PD, needle marks on both arms

A woman who was requested to be a directed donor had a mastectomy with radiotherapy for breast carcinoma 5 years ago. Currently, she is well and has a hemoglobin of 14 g/dL and a hematocrit of 41%. The blood bank should: A. Accept the unit of blood for directed donation B. Accept the unit of blood for general use C. Accept the donor for only washed RBCs D. Defer the donor permanently

D. Defer the donor permanently

A father donating platelets for his son is connected to a continuous flow machine, which uses the principle of centrifugation to separate platelets from whole blood. As the platelets are harvested, all other remaining elements are returned to the donor. This method of platelet collection is known as: A. Apheresis B. Autologous C. Homologous D. Fractionation

A. Apheresis

Cryoprecipitate is prepared by first thawing: A. Fresh frozen plasma at 1 to 6 o C, and then doing a cold centrifugation to pack the cryoprecipitate to the bottom so the plasma may be removed B. Fresh frozen plasma at room temperature, then placing in the freezer for 2 hours, then centrifuging and removing the cryoprecipitate C. Cryoprecipitate at 1 to 6 o C, then pooling the thawed cryoprecipitate in batches of 10 units, then quickly refreezing D. Cryoprecipitate at room temperature, then centrifugation in the cold to concentrate the cryoprecipitate to the bottom before adding more plasma to reconstitute

A. Fresh frozen plasma at 1 to 6 o C, and then doing a cold centrifugation to pack the cryoprecipitate to the bottom so the plasma may be removed

When evaluating a suspected transfusion reaction, which of the following is the ideal sample collection time for a BILIRUBIN determination? A. 6 hours post-transfusion B. 24 hours post-transfusion C. 12 hours post-transfusion D. 48 hours post-transfusion

A. 6 hours post-transfusion

Which of the following is an immediate nonimmunologic adverse effect of transfusion? A. Hemolytic reaction B. Febrile nonhemolytic reaction C. Congestive heart failure D. Urticaria

C. Congestive heart failure

What is the most common parasitic complication of transfusion? A. Babesia microti B. Trypanosoma cruzi C. Plasmodium species D. Toxoplasma gondii

C. Plasmodium species

During acute inflammation, histamine-induced increased vascular permeability causes the formation of exudates (inflammatory edema). Which one of the listed cell types is the most likely source of the histamine that causes the increased vascular permeability? A. Endothelial cells B. Fibroblasts C. Lymphocytes D. Mast cells E. Neutrophils

D. Mast cells

What type of leukocyte actively participates in acute inflammatory processes and contains myeloperoxidase within its primary (azurophilic) granules and alkaline phosphatase in its secondary (specific) granules? A. Neutrophils B. Eosinophils C. Monocytes D. Lymphocytes E. Plasma cells

A. Neutrophils

Critical in supporting normal wound healing: A. Basophils B. Neutrophils C. Lymphocytes D. Fibroblasts

D. Fibroblasts

What is the stem cell precursor of most connective !!! tissues? A. Macrophage B. Mesenchymal C. Adipocytes D. Plasma cells

B. Mesenchymal

The pigment commonly known as "wear and tear pigment" or "brown atrophy" is: A. Hemofuscin B. Ceroid C. Lipofuscin D. Hemosiderin

C. Lipofuscin

Main inorganic component of bones and teeth: A. Potassium chloride B. Calcium chloride C. Calcium phosphate D. Calcium oxalate

C. Calcium phosphate

The breakdown of tissue due to enzyme activity is !!! called: A. Polymerization B. Putrefaction C. Autolysis D. Osmosis

C. Autolysis

The breakdown of tissue by bacterial action is called: A. Autolysis B. Putrefaction C. Denaturation D. Oxidation

B. Putrefaction

Any disease with an unknown cause or mechanism: A. Idiopathic B. Iatrogenic C. Cryogenic D. Ergonomic

A. Idiopathic

Law of diffusion states that the rate at which a molecule moves through a material is PROPORTIONAL TO THE CONCENTRATION GRADIENT (the difference in concentrations) between the two ends of the material; and INVERSELY PROPORTIONAL TO THE THICKNESS OF THE MEMBRANE: A. Avogadro’s B. Boyle’s C. Fick’s D. Mendel’s

C. Fick’s

It is achieved by immersing the specimen in the fixative (immersion fixation) or, in the case of small animals or some whole organs such as a lung, by perfusing the vascular system with fixative (perfusion fixation): A. Physical fixation B. Chemical fixation C. Both of these D. None of these

B. Chemical fixation

A physical agent used in fixation is: A. Stabilization of protein B. Heat C. Coagulation D. Alcohol

B. Heat

Which of the following is NOT a constituent of 10% neutral buffered formalin? A. Sodium phosphate trihydrate B. Sodium phosphate dibasic C. Sodium phosphate monobasic D. 37%-40% formaldehyde

A. Sodium phosphate trihydrate

Formalin fixes tissue by: A. Causing a loss of color B. Forming cross-links C. Forming formic acid D. Facilitating numerous staining techniques

B. Forming cross-links

Formic acid present in commercial formalin solutions may: A. Promote the formation of formalin pigment B. Precipitate hemosiderin C. Promote staining D. Cause tissue shrinkage

A. Promote the formation of formalin pigment

Microscopic view of a formalin-fixed tissue section demonstrates fine brown to black artifactual pigment. This would have been prevented if the formalin solution had been made: A. Alkaline B. Just prior to use C. Acidic D. Neutral

D. Neutral

For most histochemical and histological techniques, it is necessary to bring the pH of any formalin solution used to neutral because: A. Acidic formalin solutions swell tissues B. Formic acid is formed in formaldehyde solutions C. Acidic formalin removes lipids from the tissue D. Basic formalin solutions tend to polymerize

B. Formic acid is formed in formaldehyde solutions

To prevent the formation of formalin pigment in tissues, formalin should be: A. Heated B. Cooled C. Buffered D. Acidified

C. Buffered

Commercial stock formaldehyde solutions contain: A. 4% formaldehyde B. 10% formaldehyde C. 37% to 40% formaldehyde D. 98% to 100% formaldehyde

C. 37% to 40% formaldehyde

To prepare a 10% solution of formalin, which of the following amounts of water should be added to 100 mL of stock formaldehyde: A. 1,000 mL B. 900 mL C. 450 mL D. 10 mL

B. 900 mL

To make a 10% formalin solution, how many mL of water should be added to 300 mL of 37%-40% formaldehyde solution? A. 1800 B. 2500 C. 2700 D. 3600

C. 2700

10% formalin contains approximately what percentage of formaldehyde? A. 4 B. 10 C. 37 D. 100

A. 4

Generally, an increase in the temperature of the fixative solution: A. Decreases the tissue autolysis B. Decreases the fixative penetration C. Increases the speed of fixation D. Increases the volume of fixative needed

C. Increases the speed of fixation

To maintain an adequate fixation time of 4 to 6 hours, the recommended size of the tissue is: A. 2 cm2 , and no more than 2 mm. thick B. 2 cm2 , and no more than 4 mm. thick C. 2 cm2 , and no more than 6 mm. thick D. 2 cm2 , and no more than 8 mm. thick

B. 2 cm2 , and no more than 4 mm. thick

For good fixation it is recommended that the tissue be no larger than: A. 2 cm square and 1-2 mm thick B. 2 cm square and 3-4 mm thick C. 3 cm square and 1-2 mm thick D. 3 cm square and 3-4 mm thick

B. 2 cm square and 3-4 mm thick

When placed in a solution whose refractive index is similar to the refractive index of tissue proteins, the tissue becomes: A. Fragile B. Hard C. Small D. Translucent

D. Translucent

Tissue is soft when block is trimmed: A. Incomplete fixation B. Incomplete dehydration C. Incomplete clearing D. Incomplete impregnation

A. Incomplete fixation

Xylene turns milky as soon as tissue is placed in it: A. Incomplete fixation B. Incomplete dehydration C. Incomplete clearing D. Incomplete impregnation

B. Incomplete dehydration

Tissue is opaque, section cutting is difficult due to the presence of alcohol. A. Incomplete fixation B. Incomplete dehydration C. Insufficient clearing D. Incomplete impregnation

C. Insufficient clearing

Air holes found during trimming: A. Incomplete fixation B. Incomplete dehydration C. Insufficient clearing D. Incomplete impregnation

D. Incomplete impregnation

Tearing artefacts and holes in sections: A. Incomplete fixation B. Over-fixation C. Insufficient dehydration D. Insufficient clearing

C. Insufficient dehydration

A clearing agent for use in processing tissues for paraffin embedding must be miscible with the: A. Fixative and paraffin B. Dehydrant and paraffin C. Fixative and dehydrant D. Paraffin and water

B. Dehydrant and paraffin

Possible cause of an under-processed breast specimen with a large central area that appears oily. Only a rim of fragmented tissue can be transferred to the slide: A. Incorrect processing time B. Incorrect reagents C. Fatty tissue D. Knife is dull

C. Fatty tissue

Tissues are subjected to a series of different reagents in a closed processor by: A. Tissue transfer B. Fluid transfer C. Heat transfer D. Linear transport

B. Fluid transfer

The temperature of the oven used to maintain a supply of melted paraffin for embedding tissue should be about: A. 43 oC B. 43 oF C. 60 oC D. 60 oF

C. 60 oC

Which of the following instruments in histopathology laboratory is not temperatureregulated? A. Flotation water bath B. Microtome C. Paraffin embedding center D. Tissue processor

B. Microtome

Adhesives for paraffin sections: 1. Egg albumin 2. Plasma 3. Gelatin 4. Canada balsam A. 1 and 3 B. 2 and 4 C. 1, 2 and 3 D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

C. 1, 2 and 3

Paraffin sections are usually cut in the microtome for routine histologic procedures with a thickness of: A. 1 to 2 micra B. 2 to 4 micra C. 4 to 6 micra D. 6 to 8 micra

C. 4 to 6 micra

Temperature of the flotation water bath: A. 35 to 37 oC B. 45 to 50 oC C. 55 to 60 oC D. At boiling point

B. 45 to 50 oC

When using paraffin with a melting point of 55 o C to 57 oC, the most common temperature for floating sections on a flotation bath is approximately: A. 15 oC to 20 oC B. 35 oC to 40 oC C. 45 oC to 50 oC D. 55 oC to 60 oC

C. 45 oC to 50 oC

When liver is cut in the cryostat, the sections obtained are alternately thick and thin, with a distinct "venetian blind" effect. The most probable cause is that the: A. Anti-roll plate is adjusted wrong B. Block is too cold C. Knife is dull D. Liver is fatty

C. Knife is dull

Harris hematoxylin is used on tissue sections to stain: A. Fat B. Glycogen C. Nuclei D. Cytoplasm

C. Nuclei

All of the following are blueing agents, EXCEPT: A. Ammonia water B. Dilute lithium carbonate C. Sodium iodate D. Scott's tap water

C. Sodium iodate

Microscopic examination of an H&E stained section reveals marked background staining. This is most likely caused by: A. Albumin spread on the slide with a finger B. Excess section adhesive on the slide C. Sections taken immediately after "rough facing" of block D. Flotation bath not cleaned between blocks

B. Excess section adhesive on the slide

Technique to highlight various individual tissue component: A. Giemsa staining B. H and E staining C. Immunohistochemistry D. Special staining

D. Special staining

If the cell or tissue antigen of interest is detected by directly binding a labeled primary antibody specific for that antigen: A. Direct immunohistochemistry B. Indirect immunohistochemistry C. Both of these D. None of these

A. Direct immunohistochemistry

Uses an unlabeled primary antibody that is detected bound to its antigen with labeled secondary antibodies: A. Direct immunohistochemistry B. Indirect immunohistochemistry C. Both of these D. None of these

B. Indirect immunohistochemistry

Microscope for immunohistochemistry: 1. Light microscope 2. Fluorescent microscope 3. Electron microscope A. 1 only B. 2 only C. 1 and 2 D. 1, 2 and 3

D. 1, 2 and 3

Enzyme histochemistry via chromogenic reaction can be visualized using: A. Light microscope B. Fluorescent microscope C. Electron microscope D. Any of these

A. Light microscope

A cell antigen can be demonstrated by immunofluorescent staining of fresh frozen tissues but is not visible by immunoperoxidase staining of formalin-fixed paraffin-processed tissue. The procedural difference that most likely accounts for the lack of staining is: A. Masking of antigen binding sites by fixation B. Dilution of the primary antibody C. The sequence of staining steps D. Interpretation under different microscopy conditions

A. Masking of antigen binding sites by fixation

In immunoperoxidase staining of formalin-fixed tissue, enzyme pretreatment of antigens: A. Enhances background staining B. Reactivates antigens and enhances primary staining C. Is needed to demonstrate all antigens D. Has precise end-points

B. Reactivates antigens and enhances primary staining

The antibody class most frequently used in immunofluorescent and immunoenzyme staining is: A. IgM B. IgE C. IgG D. IgA

C. IgG

When performing IHC, it is important to use a ______, so that you can see where the staining from the antibody is in relation to the cellular structures within the tissue. A. Primary antibody B. Counterstain C. Enzymes and chromogens D. Proper controls

B. Counterstain

In immunoperoxidase procedures, excess background staining can occur as a result of nonspecific binding of protein to the specimen. This background staining can be reduced by: A. Using more concentrated primary antibody B. Using whole serum antibodies C. Incubating for a shorter time in the primary antibody D. Applying nonimmune serum from the same animal species as the secondary antibody prior to staining

D. Applying nonimmune serum from the same animal species as the secondary antibody prior to staining

Paraffin sections stained with the immunoperoxidase technique show excess background staining. Which of the following could be the explanation for this? A. Selecting the wrong chromogen B. Forgetting to apply nonimmune serum C. Overfixation with formaldehyde D. Prolonging incubation with the secondary antibody

B. Forgetting to apply nonimmune serum

Confirming the validity of staining pattern and excluding experimental artifacts: A. Primary antibody B. Counterstain C. Enzymes and chromogens D. Proper controls

D. Proper controls

All post-mortem procedures require adherence to: A. Isolation techniques B. Isolation precautions C. Standard precautions D. None of these

C. Standard precautions

Autopsy performed to diagnose a particular disease or for research purposes: A. Clinical or pathological B. Medico-legal or forensic C. Anatomical or academic D. Virtual or medical imaging

A. Clinical or pathological

Autopsy performed to diagnose a particular disease or for research purposes: A. Clinical or pathological B. Medico-legal or forensic C. Anatomical or academic D. Virtual or medical imaging

A. Clinical or pathological

Autopsy performed in cases of violent, suspicious or sudden deaths, deaths without medical assistance or during surgical procedure: A. Clinical or pathological B. Medico-legal or forensic C. Anatomical or academic D. Virtual or medical imaging

B. Medico-legal or forensic

In situ dissection: !!!! A. Ghon B. Letulle C. Rokitansky D. Virchow

C. Rokitansky

Which of the following conducts Proficiency Workshops in HIV and Hepatitis Testing for all medical technologists? A. LCP B. NKTI C. RITM D. SACCL-SLH

D. SACCL-SLH

Which of the following conducts EQAS on infectious markers for transfusion transmissible diseases as an input to Quality Assurance of all BLOOD SERVICE FACILITIES (BSFs) performing donor blood testing? A. LCP B. NKTI C. RITM D. SACCL-SLH

C. RITM

Proficiency testing, EXCEPT: A. Bacteriology B. Urinalysis C. HIV testing D. Drug testing

B. Urinalysis

Water microbiology analyst, EXCEPT: A. Registered medical technologist B. Certified microbiologist C. Registered food technologist D. Registered pharmacist

D. Registered pharmacist

Water physico-chemical analyst: A. Registered medical technologist B. Certified microbiologist C. Registered food technologist D. Registered chemist

D. Registered chemist

Trains laboratory personnel, analysts and the drinking water sampler: A. RITM B. San Lazaro Hospital C. East Avenue Medical Center D. Lung Center of the Philippines

C. East Avenue Medical Center

DOH approved form used to document the collection, transport, security, and test results of the specimen for drug test: A. Turnaround time B. Chain of infection C. Custody and control form D. Request form

C. Custody and control form

Laboratory records, EXCEPT: A. Standard operating procedures (SOP) B. Laboratory workbooks/sheets C. Sample log book D. Patient’s test reports

A. Standard operating procedures (SOP)

Which of the following is not a basic component of a QA program? A. Calibration B. Preventive maintenance C. Viral marker testing D. Record keeping

C. Viral marker testing

100

Manual records can be corrected as long as: A. The original entry is neither obliterated nor deleted B. The person making the correction dates and initials the change C. The item to be corrected is crossed off with a single line D. All of the above

D. All of the above

other names parasitology

Yves Laure Pimentel · 70問 · 2年前

other names parasitology