POPCORN

Yves Laure Pimentel · 70問 · 2年前

通報

問題一覧

IgM in plasma: A. Monomer B. Dimer C. Pentamer D. All of these

C. Pentamer

IgM on the surface of B cells: A. Monomer B. Dimer C. Pentamer D. Polymer

A. Monomer

Which of the following yeast enzymes is detected using birdseed (niger seed) agar? A. Phenol oxidase B. Catalase C. Urease D. Nitrate reductase

A. Phenol oxidase

What is the first step to be performed in the identification of an unknown yeast isolate? A. Gram stain smear B. India ink stain C. Catalase test D. Germ tube test

D. Germ tube test

Dimorphic molds are found in infected tissue in which form A. Mold phase B. Yeast phase C. Encapsulated D. Latent

B. Yeast phase

Microscopic examination of a fungus cultured from a patient with athlete’s foot showed large, smooth-walled, club-shaped macroconidia appearing singly or in clusters of two to three from the tips of short conidiophores. The colonies did not produce microconidia. What is the most likely identification? A. Trichophyton spp. B. Alternaria spp. C. Epidermophyton spp. D. Microsporum spp.

C. Epidermophyton spp.

Which of the following viruses is implicated along with Epstein–Barr virus as a cause of infectious mononucleosis? A. Cytomegalovirus (CMV) B. Coxsackie A virus C. Coxsackie B virus D. Hepatitis B virus

A. Cytomegalovirus (CMV)

Which virus belonging to the Reoviridae group causes gastroenteritis in infants and young children but an asymptomatic infection in adults? A. Coxsackie B virus B. Rotavirus C. Respiratory syncytial virus D. Rhabdovirus

B. Rotavirus

Charcot–Leyden crystals in stool may be associated with an immune response and are thought to be formed from the breakdown products of: A. Neutrophils B. Eosinophils C. Monocytes D. Lymphocytes

B. Eosinophils

Visceral larva migrans is associated with which of the following organisms? A. Toxocara—serology B. Onchocerca—skin snips C. Dracunculus—skin biopsy D. Angiostrongylus—CSF examination

A. Toxocara—serology

Maintains cellular energy by generating ATP: A. Methemoglobin reductase pathway B. Hexose monophosphate shunt C. Luebering-Rapaport pathway D. Embden-Meyerhof pathway

D. Embden-Meyerhof pathway

Regulates oxygen affinity of hemoglobin: A. Methemoglobin reductase pathway B. Hexose monophosphate shunt C. Luebering-Rapaport pathway D. Embden-Meyerhof pathway

C. Luebering-Rapaport pathway

Prevents oxidation of heme iron: A. Methemoglobin reductase pathway B. Hexose monophosphate shunt C. Luebering-Rapaport pathway D. Embden-Meyerhof pathway

A. Methemoglobin reductase pathway

Prevents denaturation of globin of the hemoglobin molecule: A. Methemoglobin reductase pathway B. Hexose monophosphate shunt C. Luebering-Rapaport pathway D. Embden-Meyerhof pathway

B. Hexose monophosphate shunt

The ideal site of capillary puncture in infants is the medial or lateral plantar surface of the heel, with a puncture no deeper than ____ mm beneath the plantar heel-skin surface. A. 2.0 mm B. 2.4 mm C. 2.6 mm D. 3.0 mm

A. 2.0 mm

Platelet adhesion defect: A. Bernard-Soulier syndrome B. Essential athrombia C. Afibrinogenemia D. Glanzmann thrombasthenia

A. Bernard-Soulier syndrome

Primary platelet aggregation defect(s): 1 Bernard-Soulier syndrome 2 Essential athrombia 3 Afibrinogenemia 4 Glanzmann thrombasthenia A. 1 and 3 B. 2 and 4 C. 1, 2 and 3 D. Only 4

B. 2 and 4

INR range recommended for most indications (e.g., treatment or prophylaxis of deep venous thrombosis [DVT], or prevention of further clotting in patients who have had a myocardial infarction): A. 1.0 to 1.5 B. 1.5 to 2.0 C. 2.0 to 3.0 D. 2.5 to 3.5

C. 2.0 to 3.0

INR recommended for patients with prosthetic heart valves: A. 1.0 to 1.5 B. 1.5 to 2.0 C. 2.0 to 3.0 D. 2.5 to 3.5

D. 2.5 to 3.5

The target INR for pulmonary embolism (PE) treatment is ____ for the duration of anticoagulation. A. 1.0 B. 2.0 C. 2.5 D. 3.0

D. 3.0

May-Hegglin anomaly is characyerized by: A. Giant platelets B. Smallest platelets seen C. Large platelets D. Absence of platelets

C. Large platelets

Bernard-Soulier syndrome is characterize by: A. Giant platelets B. Smallest platelets seen C. Large platelets D. Absence of platelets

A. Giant platelets

Cardiovascular complications of phlebotomy: Cardiac arrest Hypotension Syncope Shock A. 1 and 2 B. 1 and 3 C. 1, 2 and 3 D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

The most versatile type of stem cell, can develop into any human cell type, including development from embryo into fetus: A. Multipotential stem cell B. Pluripotential stem cell C. Totipotential stem cell D. None of these

C. Totipotential stem cell

Sodium citrate in the concentration of a _____ solution has been adopted as the appropriate concentration by the ICSH and the International Society for Thrombosis and Hemostasis for coagulation studies. A. 1.5% B. 15% C. 3.2% D. 3.8%

C. 3.2%

Phlebotomy complications including diaphoresis, seizure, pain, and nerve damage: A. Cardiovascular complications B. Vascular complications C. Neurological complications D. Infections

C. Neurological complications

A patient on therapeutic warfarin will most likely have a(n) A. Normal PT/INR, increased APTT, prolonged bleeding time, low platelet count B. Increased PT/INR, increased APTT, normal bleeding time, normal platelet count C. Normal PT/INR, normal APTT, normal bleeding time, normal platelet count D. Increased PT/INR, normal APTT, prolonged bleeding time, low platelet count

B. Increased PT/INR, increased APTT, normal bleeding time, normal platelet count

Of the following therapeutic agents, those considered to be antiplatelet medications are A. Aspirin and Plavix® B. Coumadin® and heparin C. Heparin and protamine sulfate D. Tissue plasminogen activator and streptokinase

A. Aspirin and Plavix®

The expected screening test results for a patient with a fibrin stabilizing factor deficiency are: A. Prolonged prothrombin time B. Prolonged activated partial thromboplastin time C. Prolonged prothrombin time and APTT D. Normal prothrombin time and APTT

D. Normal prothrombin time and APTT

Which of the following is not a cause of thrombocytopenia? A. Splenomegaly B. Chemotherapy C. Increased thrombopoietin D. Aplastic anemia

C. Increased thrombopoietin

The recommended type of microscopy for the performance of manual platelet counts is: A. Electron B. Dark field C. Light D. Phase contrast

D. Phase contrast

If a physician suspects a qualitative platelet defect, the most useful test to order is the: A. Platelet count B. Prothrombin time C. 5 M urea solubility test D. Bleeding time

D. Bleeding time

If a physician suspects a qualitative platelet defect, the most useful test to order is the: A. Platelet count B. Prothrombin time C. 5 M urea solubility test D. Bleeding time

B. Prothrombin time

A patient on warfarin therapy will be deficient in a functional amount of: A. Fibrinogen and prothrombin B. Stable and labile factors C. Protein C and protein S D. Fletcher and Fitzgerald factors

C. Protein C and protein S

The CBC results for children (aged 3 to 12 years) differ from those of adults chiefly in what respect? A. NRBCs are present. B. Notable polychromasia is seen, indicating increased reticulocytosis. C. Platelet count is lower. D. The percentage of lymphocytes is higher.

D. The percentage of lymphocytes is higher.

What is the PT/INR therapeutic range for Coumadin therapy when a patient has a mechanical heart valve? A. 1 to 2 B. 2 to 3 C. 2.5 to 3.5 D. Coumadin is not indicated for patients with mechanical heart valves

C. 2.5 to 3.5

What happens if a coagulation specimen collection tube is underfilled? A. The specimen clots and is useless B. The specimen is hemolyzed and is useless C. . Clot-based test results are falsely prolonged D. Chromogenic test results are falsely decreased

C. . Clot-based test results are falsely prolonged

Most coagulation testing must be performed on PPP, which is plasma with a platelet count less than: A. 1,000/uL B. 10,000/uL C. 100,000/uL D. 1,000,000/uL

B. 10,000/uL

What agonist is used in platelet aggregometry to detect VWD? A. Arachidonic acid B. Ristocetin C. Collagen D. ADP

B. Ristocetin

Deficiency of which single factor is likely when the PT result is prolonged and the PTT result is normal? A. Factor V B. Factor VII C. Factor VIII D. Prothrombin

B. Factor VII

The patient has deep vein thrombosis. The PTT is prolonged and is not corrected in an immediate mix of patient plasma with an equal part of normal plasma. What is the presumed condition? A. Factor VIII inhibitor B. Lupus anticoagulant C. Factor VIII deficiency D. Factor V Leiden mutation

B. Lupus anticoagulant

The clinical presentation of platelet-related bleeding may include all of the following except: A. Bruising B. Nosebleeds C. Gastrointestinal bleeding D. Bleeding into the joints (hemarthroses)

D. Bleeding into the joints (hemarthroses)

A defect in GP IIb/IIIa causes: A. Glanzmann thrombasthenia B. Bernard-Soulier syndrome C. Gray platelet syndrome D. Storage pool disease

A. Glanzmann thrombasthenia

Which of the following is the most common of the hereditary platelet function defects? A. Glanzmann thrombasthenia B. Bernard-Soulier syndrome C. Storage pool defects D. Multiple myeloma

C. Storage pool defects

Patients with Bernard-Soulier syndrome have which of the following laboratory test findings? A. Abnormal platelet response to arachidonic acid B. Abnormal platelet response to ristocetin C. Abnormal platelet response to collagen D. Thrombocytosis

B. Abnormal platelet response to ristocetin

The platelet defect associated with increased paraproteins is A. Impaired membrane activation owing to protein coating B. Hypercoagulability owing to antibody binding andmembrane activation C. Impaired aggregation because the hyperviscous plasma prevents platelet-endothelium interaction D. Hypercoagulability because the increased proteins bring platelets closer together, which leads to inappropriate aggregation

A. Impaired membrane activation owing to protein coating

A defect in primary hemostasis (platelet response to an injury) often results in: A. Musculoskeletal bleeding B. Mucosal bleeding C. Hemarthroses D. None of the above

B. Mucosal bleeding

Which of the following conditions causes a prolonged thrombin time? A. Antithrombin deficiency B. Prothrombin deficiency C. Hypofibrinogenemia D. Warfarin therapy

C. Hypofibrinogenemia

If a patient has anatomic soft tissue bleeding and poor wound healing, but the PT, PTT, thrombin time, platelet count, and platelet functional assay results are normal, what factor deficiency is indicated? A. Fibrinogen B. Prothrombin C. Factor XII D. Factor XIII

D. Factor XIII

What coagulation plasma protein should be assayed when platelets fail to aggregate properly? A. Factor VIII B. Fibrinogen C. Thrombin D. Factor X

B. Fibrinogen

What two regulatory proteins form a complex that digests activated factors V and VIII? A. TFPI and Xa B. Antithrombin and protein C C. APC and protein S D. Thrombomodulin and plasmin

C. APC and protein S

Most coagulation factors are synthesized in: A. The liver B. Monocytes C. Endothelial cells D. Megakaryocytes

A. The liver

According to the WHO classification, except in leukemias with specific genetic anomalies, the minimal percentage of blasts necessary for a diagnosis of acute leukemia is: A. 10% B. 20% C. 30% D. 50%

B. 20%

Disseminated intravascular coagulation is more often seen in association with leukemia characterized by which of the following mutations? A. t(12;21)(p13;q22) B. t(9;22)(q34;q11.2) C. inv(16)(p13;q22) D. t(15;17)(q22;q12)

D. t(15;17)(q22;q12)

A patient with normal chromosomes has a WBC count of 3.0 x 10^9/L and dysplasia in all cell lines. There are 60% blasts of varying sizes. The blasts stain positive for CD61. The most likely type of leukemia is: A. Acute lymphoblastic B. Acute megakaryoblastic C. Acute monoblastic D. AML with t(15;17)

B. Acute megakaryoblastic

SBB stains which of the following component of cells? A. Glycogen B. Lipids C. Structural proteins D. Enzymes

B. Lipids

A patient has anemia, oval macrocytes, and hypersegmented neutrophils. Which of the following tests would be most efficient in differential diagnosis of this disorder? A. Serum iron and ferritin levels B. Erythropoietin level C. Vitamin B12 and folate levels D. Chromosome analysis

C. Vitamin B12 and folate levels

Which of the following chromosome abnormalities is associated with CML? A. t(15;17) B. t(8;14) C. t(9;22) D. Monosomy 7

C. t(9;22)

Which of the following inherited leukocyte disorders is caused by a mutation in the lamin B receptor? A. Pelger-Huët anomaly B. Chédiak-Higashi disease C. Alder-Reilly anomaly D. May-Hegglin anomaly

A. Pelger-Huët anomaly

Which of the following inherited leukocyte disorders is one of a group of disorders with mutations in nonmuscle myosin heavy-chain IIA? A. Pelger-Huët anomaly B. Chédiak-Higashi disease C. Alder-Reilly anomaly D. May-Hegglin anomaly

D. May-Hegglin anomaly

Which of the following inherited leukocyte disorders might be seen in Hurler syndrome? A. Pelger-Huët anomaly B. Chédiak-Higashi disease C. Alder-Reilly anomaly D. May-Hegglin anomaly

C. Alder-Reilly anomaly

Which of the following lysosomal storage diseases is characterized by macrophages with striated cytoplasm and storage of glucocerebroside? A. Sanfilippo syndrome B. Gaucher disease C. Fabry disease D. Niemann-Pick disease

B. Gaucher disease

An absolute lymphocytosis with reactive lymphocytes suggests which of the following conditions? A. DiGeorge syndrome B. Bacterial infection C. Parasitic infection D. Viral infection

D. Viral infection

What leukocyte cytoplasmic inclusion is composed of ribosomal RNA? A. Primary granules B. Toxic granules C. Döhle bodies D. Howell-Jolly bodies

C. Döhle bodies

Hb H is composed of: A. Two alpha and two beta chains B. Two epsilon and two gamma chains C. Four beta chains D. Four gamma chains

C. Four beta chains

Hb Bart is composed of: A. Two alpha and two beta chains B. Two epsilon and two gamma chains C. Four beta chains D. Four gamma chains

D. Four gamma chains

Painful crises in patients with SCD occur as a result of: A. Splenic sequestration B. Aplasia C. Vasoocclusion D. Anemia

C. Vasoocclusion

Which of the following species of Plasmodium produce hypnozoites that can remain dormant in the liver and cause a relapse months or years later? A. P. falciparum B. P. vivax C. P. knowlesi D. P. malariae

B. P. vivax

What RBC morphology is characteristically found within the first 24 hours following extensive burn injury? A. Macrocytosis and polychromasia B. Burr cells and crenated cells C. Howell-Jolly bodies and bite cells D. Schistocytes and microspherocytes

D. Schistocytes and microspherocytes

Which one of the following is a feature found in all microangiopathic hemolytic anemias? A. Pancytopenia B. Thrombocytosis C. Intravascular RBC fragmentation D. Prolonged prothrombin time and partial thromboplastin time

C. Intravascular RBC fragmentation

The altered shape of the spherocyte in HS is due to: A. Abnormal precipitation of the hemoglobin molecule B. A mutated RBC membrane protein affecting vertical protein interactions C. A mutated RBC membrane protein affecting horizontal protein interactions D. Defective RNA catabolism and clearance

B. A mutated RBC membrane protein affecting vertical protein interactions

The RBCs in HE are abnormally shaped and have unstable cell membranes as a result of: A. Defects in horizontal membrane protein interactions B. Deficiency in cation pumps in the RBC membrane C. Lack of Rh antigens in the RBC membrane D. Mutations in the ankyrin complex

A. Defects in horizontal membrane protein interactions

Acanthocytes are found in association with: A. Abetalipoproteinemia B. G6PD deficiency C. Rh deficiency syndrome D. Vitamin B12 deficiency

A. Abetalipoproteinemia

The most common defect or deficiency in the anaerobic glycolytic pathway: A. Pyruvate kinase deficiency B. Lactate dehydrogenase deficiency C. Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency D. Methemoglobin reductase deficiency

A. Pyruvate kinase deficiency

Which of the following tests provides a good indication of accelerated erythropoiesis? A. Urine urobilinogen level B. Hemosiderin level C. Reticulocyte count D. Glycated hemoglobin level

C. Reticulocyte count

Folate and vitamin B12 work together in the production of: A. Amino acids B. RNA C. Phospholipids D. DNA

D. DNA

What are the initial laboratory tests that are performed for the diagnosis of anemia? A. CBC, iron studies, and reticulocyte count B. CBC, reticulocyte count, and peripheral blood film examination C. Reticulocyte count and serum iron, vitamin B12, and folate assays D. Bone marrow study, iron studies, and peripheral blood film examination

B. CBC, reticulocyte count, and peripheral blood film examination

What is the largest hematopoietic cell found in a normal bone marrow aspirate? A. Osteoblast B. Myeloblast C. Pronormoblast D. Megakaryocyte

D. Megakaryocyte

A laboratory science student consistently makes wedge technique blood films that are too long and thin. What change in technique would improve the films? A. Increasing the downward pressure on the pusher slide B. Decreasing the acute angle of the pusher slide C. Placing the drop of blood closer to the center of the slide D. Increasing the acute angle of the pusher slide

D. Increasing the acute angle of the pusher slide

A stained blood film is held up to the light and observed to be bluer than normal. What microscopic abnormality might be expected on this film? A. Rouleaux B. Spherocytosis C. Reactive lymphocytosis D. Toxic granulation

A. Rouleaux

The megakaryocyte progenitor that undergoes endomitosis is: A. MK-I B. BFU-Meg C. CFU-Meg D. LD-CFU-Meg

D. LD-CFU-Meg

What plasma protein is essential to platelet adhesion? A. VWF B. Factor VIII C. Fibrinogen D. P-selectin

A. VWF

Which of the following molecules is stored in platelet dense granules? A. Serotonin B. Fibrinogen C. PF4 D. Platelet-derived growth factor

A. Serotonin

The stage in neutrophilic development in which the nucleus is indented in a kidney bean shape and the cytoplasm has secondary granules that are lavender in color is the: A. Band B. Myelocyte C. Promyelocyte D. Metamyelocyte

D. Metamyelocyte

Basophils and mast cells have high-affinity surface receptors for which immunoglobulin? A. A B. D C. E D. G

C. E

What is the normal distribution of hemoglobins in healthy adults? A. 80% to 90% Hb A, 5% to 10% Hb A2, 1% to 5% Hb F B. 80% to 90% HbA2, 5% to 10% HbA, 1% to 5% HbF C. 95% Hb A, 3.5% Hb A2, 1% to 2% Hb F D. 90% Hb A, 5% Hb F, 5% Hb A2

C. 95% Hb A, 3.5% Hb A2, 1% to 2% Hb F

What pathway anaerobically generates energy in the form of ATP? A. Hexose monophosphate pathway B. Rapoport-Luebering pathway C. Embden-Meyerhof pathway D. 2,3-BPG pathway

C. Embden-Meyerhof pathway

During the second trimester of fetal development, the primary site of blood cell production is the: A. Bone marrow B. Spleen C. Lymph nodes D. Liver

D. Liver

Apoptosis is morphologically identified by: A. Cellular swelling B. Nuclear condensation C. Rupture of the cytoplasm D. Rupture of the nucleus

B. Nuclear condensation

The most important step in phlebotomy is: A. Cleansing the site B. Identifying the patient C. Selecting the proper needle length D. Using the correct evacuated tube

B. Identifying the patient

Which of the following cells expresses HLA class II antigens? A. B cells B. Erythrocytes C. Platelets D. T cells

A. B cells

Select the term that describes the unique part of the antigen that is recognized by a corresponding antibody. A. Immunogen B. Epitope C. Avidity D. Clone

B. Epitope

The mixed lymphocyte culture (MLC) is an older technique in the HLA laboratory used to determine: A. HLA-A antigens B. HLA-C antigens C. HLA antibody identification D. HLA-D antigens and compatibility

D. HLA-D antigens and compatibility

The average diameter of a normal erythrocyte is _____ um. A. 5.2 B. 6.4 C. 7.2 D. 8.4

C. 7.2

An MCHC between 36 and 38 g/dL should be checked for: A. Codocytes B. Drepanocytes C. Spherocytes D. Schistocytes

C. Spherocytes

What characteristic red cell shape is associated with extravascular hemolysis? A. Burr cell B. Schistocyte C. Spherocyte D. Target cell

C. Spherocyte

Gaucher disease: A. Monocyte-macrophage series B. Neutrophilic series C. Lymphocytic series D. Erythrocytic series

A. Monocyte-macrophage series

Niemann-Pick disease: A. Monocyte-macrophage series B. Neutrophilic series C. Lymphocytic series D. Erythrocytic series

A. Monocyte-macrophage series

Chédiak-Higashi syndrome: A. Monocyte-macrophage series B. Neutrophilic series C. Lymphocytic series D. Erythrocytic series

B. Neutrophilic series

100

Chronic granulomatous disease: A. Monocyte-macrophage series B. Neutrophilic series C. Lymphocytic series D. Erythrocytic series

B. Neutrophilic series

other names parasitology

other names parasitology

70問 • 2年前

Yves Laure Pimentel · 111問 · 2年前

PARASITOLOGY

PARASITOLOGY

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HTMLBE

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CC - 1 LAB. SAFETY, BASIC UNITS, AND CONVERSION FACTOR

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HISTOPATHOLOGY

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CC-2 SPECTROPHOTOMETRY

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CC-3 ELECTROPHORESIS

CC-3 ELECTROPHORESIS

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AUBF LAB SAFETY

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CSF 1

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CSF 2

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SEMEN 1

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SEMEN 2

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SYNOVIAL FLUID 1

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SYNOVIAL FLUID 2

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SEROUS FLUID

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PLEURAL FLUID

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PERICARDIAL FLUID

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PERITONEAL FLUID/ ASCITIC FLUID

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AMNIOTIC FLUID

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FECALYSIS

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OTHER BODY FLUIDS

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MTLBE..

MTLBE..

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CC- CHROMATOGRAPHY

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CC-OSMOMETRY

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CC- CARBOHYDRATES

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CC- DIABETES MELLITUS

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MINOR LIPOPROTEINS

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PROTEINS

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PLASMA PROTEINS 1

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PLASMA PROTEINS 2 (ALPHA 2 REGION)

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MISCELLANEOUS PROTEINS

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Liver Function Test 1

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Liver Function Test 2

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PROTEINS

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QUICK FIRE- ELECTRODES

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ELECTROLYTES

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DRUGS

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TOXIC AGENTS:

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HEMATOLOGY 1 (HEMATOPOIESIS 1)

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hema diseases

hema diseases

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AML

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GLOBIN SYNTHESIS

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HEMATOLOGY REFERENCE RANGES

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DISORDERS OF PRIMARY HEMOSTASIS

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PLATELET DISORDERS

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CHARACTERISTICS OF CLOTTING FACTORS

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4. CLASSIFICATION OF MACROPHAGE

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3. NATURAL OR INNATE IMMUNITY

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5. INTERNAL DEFENSE:SOLUBLE FACTORS (ACUTE PHASE REACTANTS)

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6. PHAGOCYTOSIS Chemotaxis

6. PHAGOCYTOSIS Chemotaxis

37問 • 2年前

Yves Laure Pimentel · 44問 · 2年前

8. NATURE OF ANTIGEN

8. NATURE OF ANTIGEN

44問 • 2年前

Yves Laure Pimentel · 50問 · 2年前

9. MAJOR HISTOCOMPATIBILITY COMPLEX/HUMAN LEUKOCYTE ANTIGEN

9. MAJOR HISTOCOMPATIBILITY COMPLEX/HUMAN LEUKOCYTE ANTIGEN

50問 • 2年前

Yves Laure Pimentel · 69問 · 2年前

1. HISTORY

1. HISTORY

69問 • 2年前

Yves Laure Pimentel · 38問 · 2年前

2. TYPES OF IMMUNITY

2. TYPES OF IMMUNITY

38問 • 2年前

Yves Laure Pimentel · 21問 · 2年前

7. PHAGOCYTOSIS Engulfment and Digestion

7. PHAGOCYTOSIS Engulfment and Digestion

21問 • 2年前

Yves Laure Pimentel · 15問 · 2年前

8. PHAGOCYTOSIS EXOCYTOSIS

8. PHAGOCYTOSIS EXOCYTOSIS

15問 • 2年前

Yves Laure Pimentel · 32問 · 2年前

10. DISEASE ASSOCIATED TO HUMAN LEUKOCYTE ANTIGEN (henry)

10. DISEASE ASSOCIATED TO HUMAN LEUKOCYTE ANTIGEN (henry)

32問 • 2年前

Yves Laure Pimentel · 30問 · 2年前

11. TRANSPLANTATION IMMUNOLOGY

11. TRANSPLANTATION IMMUNOLOGY

30問 • 2年前

Yves Laure Pimentel · 38問 · 2年前

2. LYMPHOID ORGANS

2. LYMPHOID ORGANS

38問 • 2年前

Yves Laure Pimentel · 48問 · 2年前

3. CLUSTER OF DIFFERENTIATION

3. CLUSTER OF DIFFERENTIATION

48問 • 2年前

Yves Laure Pimentel · 35問 · 2年前

4. T-CELL DIFFERENTIATION

4. T-CELL DIFFERENTIATION

35問 • 2年前

Yves Laure Pimentel · 18問 · 2年前

5. T CELL IMMUNODEFICIENCIES

5. T CELL IMMUNODEFICIENCIES

18問 • 2年前

Yves Laure Pimentel · 44問 · 2年前

6. STAGES IN B-CELL DIFFERENTIATION  PROPIMAP

6. STAGES IN B-CELL DIFFERENTIATION  PROPIMAP

44問 • 2年前

Yves Laure Pimentel · 23問 · 2年前

7. B CELL IMMUNODEFICIENCIES

7. B CELL IMMUNODEFICIENCIES

23問 • 2年前

Yves Laure Pimentel · 34問 · 2年前

8. COMBINED T CELL AND B CELL DEFICIENCIES

8. COMBINED T CELL AND B CELL DEFICIENCIES

34問 • 2年前

Yves Laure Pimentel · 12問 · 2年前

9. COMPARISON OF T AND B CELLS

9. COMPARISON OF T AND B CELLS

12問 • 2年前

Yves Laure Pimentel · 16問 · 2年前

10. LABORATORY IDENTIFICATION OF LYMPHOCYTES

10. LABORATORY IDENTIFICATION OF LYMPHOCYTES

16問 • 2年前

Yves Laure Pimentel · 15問 · 2年前

11. NATURAL KILLER CELLS OR THIRD POPULATION CELL

11. NATURAL KILLER CELLS OR THIRD POPULATION CELL

15問 • 2年前

Yves Laure Pimentel · 79問 · 2年前

12. ANTIBODY

12. ANTIBODY

79問 • 2年前

Yves Laure Pimentel · 97問 · 2年前

13. TYPES OF ANTIBODIES

13. TYPES OF ANTIBODIES

97問 • 2年前

Yves Laure Pimentel · 11問 · 2年前

14. MONOCLONAL ANTIBODIES

14. MONOCLONAL ANTIBODIES

11問 • 2年前

Yves Laure Pimentel · 23問 · 2年前

1. INTERLEUKINS

1. INTERLEUKINS

23問 • 2年前

Yves Laure Pimentel · 28問 · 2年前

2. INTERFERONS

2. INTERFERONS

28問 • 2年前

Yves Laure Pimentel · 8問 · 2年前

3. CYTOKINES IN THE INNATE AND ADAPTIVE IMMUNITY

3. CYTOKINES IN THE INNATE AND ADAPTIVE IMMUNITY

8問 • 2年前

Yves Laure Pimentel · 19問 · 2年前

4. COMPLEMENT SYSTEM

4. COMPLEMENT SYSTEM

19問 • 2年前

Yves Laure Pimentel · 76問 · 2年前

15. COMPLEMENT SYSTEM

15. COMPLEMENT SYSTEM

76問 • 2年前

Yves Laure Pimentel · 21問 · 2年前

16. SYSTEM CONTROLS/COMPLEMENT REGULATION

16. SYSTEM CONTROLS/COMPLEMENT REGULATION

21問 • 2年前

Yves Laure Pimentel · 29問 · 2年前

17. COMPLEMENT AND DISEASE STATES

17. COMPLEMENT AND DISEASE STATES

29問 • 2年前

Yves Laure Pimentel · 19問 · 2年前

18. IMMUNOLOGIC ASSAYS OF INDIVIDUAL COMPONENTS (CLASSICAL)

18. IMMUNOLOGIC ASSAYS OF INDIVIDUAL COMPONENTS (CLASSICAL)

19問 • 2年前

Yves Laure Pimentel · 22問 · 2年前

19. CYTOKINES

19. CYTOKINES

22問 • 2年前

Yves Laure Pimentel · 24問 · 2年前

20. INTERLEUKINS

20. INTERLEUKINS

24問 • 2年前

Yves Laure Pimentel · 21問 · 2年前

21. INTERFERONS, TNF, TGF, CHEMOKINE

21. INTERFERONS, TNF, TGF, CHEMOKINE

21問 • 2年前

Yves Laure Pimentel · 54問 · 2年前

1. SERO

1. SERO

54問 • 2年前

Yves Laure Pimentel · 38問 · 2年前

2. PRECIPITATION

2. PRECIPITATION

38問 • 2年前

Yves Laure Pimentel · 17問 · 2年前

3. PASSIVE IMMUNODIFFUSION

3. PASSIVE IMMUNODIFFUSION

17問 • 2年前

Yves Laure Pimentel · 15問 · 2年前

4. OUCHTERLONY

4. OUCHTERLONY

15問 • 2年前

Yves Laure Pimentel · 9問 · 2年前

5. ELECTROPHORETIC TECHNIQUE

5. ELECTROPHORETIC TECHNIQUE

9問 • 2年前

Yves Laure Pimentel · 11問 · 2年前

6. IMMUNOELECTROPHORESIS (DOUBLE DIFFUSION)

6. IMMUNOELECTROPHORESIS (DOUBLE DIFFUSION)

11問 • 2年前

Yves Laure Pimentel · 29問 · 2年前

7. IMMUNOFIXATION ELECTROPHORESIS

7. IMMUNOFIXATION ELECTROPHORESIS

29問 • 2年前