SUMMATIVE EXAM PART 3

90問 • 1年前

問題一覧

In Sysmex UF-100 urine cell analyzer, the DNA within the cell is stained with: A. Hematoxylin B. Eosin C. Phenathridine D. Carbocyanine

C. Phenathridine

In Sysmex UF-100 urine cell analyzer, nuclear membranes, mitochondria and negatively charged cell membranes are stained with: A. Hematoxylin B. Eosin C. Phenathridine D. Carbocyanine

D. Carbocyanine

Which of the following fluids is not an ultrafiltrate of plasma? A. Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) B. Peritoneal fluid C. Pleural fluid D. Synovial fluid

A. Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)

CSF is routinely collected by lumbar puncture between the: A. First, second or third lumbar vertebrae B. First, second or fourth lumbar vertebrae C. Second, third or fourth lumbar vertebrae D. Third, fourth, or fifth lumbar vertebrae

D. Third, fourth, or fifth lumbar vertebrae

CSF is collected from intervertebral space between: [Turgeon] A. T4 and T5 B. L2 and L3 C. L3 and L4 D. L4 and L5

D. L4 and L5

What department is the CSF tube labeled 3 routinely sent to? A. Hematology B. Chemistry C. Microbiology D. Serology

A. Hematology

The CSF tube that should be kept at room temperature is: A. Tube 1 B. Tube 2 C. Tube 3 D. Tube 4

B. Tube 2

Fourth CSF tube may be drawn for: A. Cell counts B. Chemical tests C. Chemistry and cell counts D. Microbiology or additional serologic tests

D. Microbiology or additional serologic tests

If only a small amount of CSF is obtained, which is the most important procedure to perform first? A. Cell count B. Chemistries C. Immunology D. Microbiology

D. Microbiology

CSF cell count should be performed: A. Immediately B. Within 5 minutes C. Within 30 minutes D. Within 1 hour

A. Immediately

The cell count on a CSF specimen should be performed within _____ of collection. [Turgeon] A. 30 minutes B. 1 hour C. 2 hours D. 12 hours E. 24 hours

B. 1 hour

A CSF total cell count is diluted with: A. Distilled water B. Normal saline C. Acetic acid D. Methylene blue

B. Normal saline

A CSF WBC count is diluted with: A. Distilled water B. Normal saline C. Acetic acid D. Methylene blue

C. Acetic acid

The reference range for CSF protein is: A. 6 to 8 g/dL B. 15 to 45 g/dL C. 6 to 8 mg/dL D. 15 to 45 mg/dL

D. 15 to 45 mg/dL

Major protein in CSF: A. Albumin B. Prealbumin C. Transferrin D. IgG

A. Albumin

Second most prevalent protein in CSF: A. Albumin B. Prealbumin C. Transferrin D. IgG

B. Prealbumin

Major beta globulin in CSF: A. Albumin B. Prealbumin C. Transferrin D. IgG

C. Transferrin

CSF gamma-globulin is primarily: A. IgA B. IgE C. IgG D. IgM

C. IgG

Following a head injury, which protein will identify the presence of CSF leakage through the nose? A. Transthyretin B. Myelin basic protein C. Tau protein D. C-reactive protein

C. Tau protein

To assess the PERMEABILITY OF THE BLOOD/BRAIN BARRIER in CSF: A. Albumin B. IgG C. Transferrin D. Prealbumin

A. Albumin

For an accurate evaluation of CSF glucose, a blood glucose test must be run for comparison. The blood glucose should be drawn about ________ spinal tap to allow time for equilibration between the blood and fluid. A. 2 hour after spinal tap B. 2 hours before spinal tap C. 8 hours after spinal tap D. 8 hours before spinal tap

B. 2 hours before spinal tap

CSF test frequently requested for patients with coma of unknown origin: A. Glucose B. Glutamine C. Lactate D. Protein

B. Glutamine

Given the following information, calculate the TOTAL CSF CELL COUNT, hazy CSF, diluted 1:20; cells counted in 2 WBC SQUARES ON EACH SIDE OF THE HEMOCYTOMETER, 28 and 32. A. 1,500/µL B. 3,000/µL C. 3,200/µL D. 30,000/µL

B. 3,000/µL

Compute for the WBC count in patient’s CSF. Dilution 1:20, counted in 4 corner squares Given are the number of WBCs in each square: Square 1: 40 Square 2: 43 Square 3: 43 Square 4: 44 A. 2, 125 WBCs/cu.mm. B. 4, 250 WBCs/cu.mm. C. 8, 500 WBCs/cu.mm. D. 17,000 WBCs/cu.mm.

C. 8, 500 WBCs/cu.mm.

Eosinophils may be increased in CSF in fungal infections primarily with: A. Candida albicans B. Coccidioides immitis C. Cryptococcus neoformans D. Histoplasma capsulatum

B. Coccidioides immitis

An increase in the amount of serous fluid is called a/an: A. Exudate B. Transudate C. Effusion D. Malignancy

C. Effusion

The MOST RELIABLE DIFFERENTIATION OF TRANSUDATE AND EXUDATE is usually obtained by: A. Rivalta’s test B. Determining the WBC count C. Determining the fluid: blood ratios for protein and LDH D. Determining the pleural fluid: serum cholesterol ratio

C. Determining the fluid: blood ratios for protein and LDH

Which of the following is characteristic of an exudate effusion? A. Leukocyte count >1000/µL B. Clear appearance C. Protein concentration <3.0 g/dL D. Absence of fibrinogen

A. Leukocyte count >1000/µL

The recommended test for determining whether PERITONEAL FLUID is a transudate or an exudate is the: A. Fluid: serum albumin ratio B. Serum: ascites albumin gradient C. Fluid: serum lactic dehydrogenase ratio D. Absolute neutrophil count

B. Serum: ascites albumin gradient

Black pleural fluid: A. Aspergillus infection B. Chylous effusion C. Hemothorax D. Rupture of amoebic liver abscess

A. Aspergillus infection

Brown pleural fluid: A. Aspergillus infection B. Chylous effusion C. Hemothorax D. Rupture of amoebic liver absces

D. Rupture of amoebic liver abscess

These cells are increased in effusions resulting from PANCREATITIS: A. Plasma cells B. Lymphocytes C. Mesothelial cells D. Neutrophils

D. Neutrophils

Presence of plasma cells but noticeable lack of mesothelial cells in pleural fluid is associated with: A. Autoimmune disorders B. Viral infections C. Malignancy D. Tuberculosis

D. Tuberculosis

The pleural fluid hematocrit is MORE THAN 50% of the whole blood hematocrit: A. Hemorrhagic effusion B. Hemothorax C. Both of these D. None of these

B. Hemothorax

Which of the following best represents a hemothorax? A. Blood HCT: 42 Fluid HCT: 15 B. Blood HCT: 42 Fluid HCT: 10 C. Blood HCT: 30 Fluid HCT: 10 D. Blood HCT: 30 Fluid HCT: 20

D. Blood HCT: 30 Fluid HCT: 20

The glucose level of normal pleural fluid, transudates, and most exudates _____ serum levels. A. Above serum levels B. Below serum levels C. Same as serum levels D. Variable

C. Same as serum levels

Glucose in peritoneal fluid is decreased below serum levels in: A. Bacterial peritonitis B. Tubercular peritonitis C. Malignancy D. All of these

D. All of these

Normal synovial fluid does not clot; however, fluid from a diseased joint may contain fibrinogen and will clot. Therefore, fluid is often collected in a syringe that has been moistened with: A. EDTA B. SPS C. Heparin D. Sodium fluoride

C. Heparin

Required tube for synovial fluid glucose analysis: A. Powdered EDTA B. Liquid EDTA C. Sodium heparin D. Sodium fluoride

D. Sodium fluoride

Synovial fluid is typically collected using sterile needle and syringe and then transferred to collection tubes for testing. Which of the following anticoagulants would be appropriate to use for the aliquot sent for manual cell count and crystal evaluation? A. Liquid EDTA B. Sodium polyanethol sulfonate C. Sodium fluoride D. Lithium heparin

A. Liquid EDTA

Normal synovial fluid will be able to form ____ cm STRING. A. 1 to 2 cm B. 2 to 3 cm C. 3 to 4 cm D. 4 to 6 cm

D. 4 to 6 cm

Hyaluronate polymerization can be measured using a ROPES, or MUCIN CLOT TEST. When added to a solution of 2% to 5% acetic acid, normal synovial fluid forms: A. No clot B. Friable clot C. Soft clot D. Solid clot surrounded by clear fluid

D. Solid clot surrounded by clear fluid

Before testing, very viscous synovial fluid should be treated with: A. Normal saline B. Hyaluronidase C. Distilled water D. Hypotonic saline

B. Hyaluronidase

When diluting a synovial fluid WBC count, all of the following are acceptable except: A. Acetic acid B. Isotonic saline C. Hypotonic saline D. Saline with saponin

A. Acetic acid

Synovial fluid WBC count of 800/µL: A. Non-inflammatory <1,000/µL B. Immunologic 2,000 to 75,000/µL C. Crystal-induced 100,000/µL D. Septic 50,000 to 100,000/µL E. Hemorrhagic EQUAL TO BLOOD

A. Non-inflammatory <1,000/µL

Fragments of degenerating proliferative synovial cells or microinfarcted synovium: A. Ragocytes B. Reiter cells C. Rice bodies D. Ochronotic shards

C. Rice bodies

PEPPER-LIKE PARTICLES are pieces of pigmented cartilage that has eroded and broken loose into the fluid. A. Reiter cells B. Ragocytes C. Rice bodies D. Ochronotic shards

D. Ochronotic shards

Synovial fluid crystals that occur as a result of purine metabolism or chemotherapy for leukemia are: A. Monosodium urate B. Cholesterol C. Calcium pyrophosphate D. Apatite

A. Monosodium urate

Normal synovial fluid glucose values are based on the blood glucose level, SIMULTANEOUS blood and synovial fluid samples should be obtained, preferably after the patient has fasted for ____ hours to allow equilibration between the two fluid. A. 6 hours B. 8 hours C. 10 hours D. 12 hours

B. 8 hours

Normal synovial fluid glucose should: A. Same as blood glucose value B. More than 5 mg/dL lower than the blood value C. More than 10 mg/dL lower than the blood value D. Not be more than 10 mg/dL lower than the blood value

D. Not be more than 10 mg/dL lower than the blood value

Normal synovial fluid protein: A. Less than 10 g/dL of protein B. More than 10 g/dL of protein C. Less than 3 g/dL of protein D. More than 3 g/dL of protein

C. Less than 3 g/dL of protein

The uric acid concentration in synovial fluid is _______ to that in blood plasma. A. Higher B. Lower C. Equivalent D. Variable

C. Equivalent

What is the primary cause of the normal increase in amniotic fluid as a pregnancy progresses? A. Fetal cell metabolism B. Fetal swallowing C. Fetal urine D. Transfer of water across the placenta

C. Fetal urine

Portion of the amniotic fluid arises from all of the following, EXCEPT: A. Fetal urine B. Fetal respiratory tract C. Amniotic membrane D. Umbilical cord E. Bone marrow

E. Bone marrow

Family history of chromosome abnormalities, such as trisomy 21 (Down syndrome), amniocentesis may be indicated at: A. 1 to 14 weeks B. 15 to 18 weeks C. 20 to 42 weeks D. Any of these

B. 15 to 18 weeks

The amount of amniotic fluid increases in quantity throughout pregnancy, reaching a peak of approximately ____ mL during the third trimester, and then gradually decreases prior to delivery. A. 400 to 800 mL B. 800 mL to 1,200 mL C. 1,200 to 1,500 mL D. 2,000 to 4, 000 mL

B. 800 mL to 1,200 mL

A maximum of ___ mL of amniotic fluid is collected in sterile syringes. A. 5 mL B. 10 mL C. 20 mL D. 30 mL

D. 30 mL

When severe HDN is present, which of the following tests on the amniotic fluid would the physician not order to determine whether the fetal lungs are mature enough to withstand a premature delivery? A. AFP levels B. Foam stability index C. Lecithin/sphingomyelin ratio D. Phosphatidyl glycerol detection

A. AFP levels

In the foam or shake test, amniotic fluid is mixed with: A. 1% NaOH B. 3% acetic acid C. 70% ethanol D. 95% ethanol

D. 95% ethanol

A rapid test for FLM that does not require performance of thin-layer chromatography is: A. AFP levels B. Amniotic acetylcholinesterase C. Aminostat-FLM D. Bilirubin scan

C. Aminostat-FLM

The presence of phosphatidyl glycerol in amniotic fluid fetal lung maturity tests must be confirmed when: A. Hemolytic disease of the newborn is present B. The mother has diabetes C. Amniotic fluid is contaminated by hemoglobin D. Neural tube disorder is suspected

B. The mother has diabetes

Microviscosity of amniotic fluid is measured by: A. Thin-layer chromatography B. Immunologic agglutination C. Spectrophotometer D. Fluorescence polarization

D. Fluorescence polarization

O.D. 650 A. Acetylcholinesterase B. Bilirubin C. Lamellar bodies D. Oxyhemoglobin

C. Lamellar bodies

Amniotic fluid for OD 650: A. Addition of ethanol B. Addition of methanol C. Centrifuged at 2000 g for 10 minutes D. Mix the sample by gentle inversion or by placing the test tube on a tube rocker

C. Centrifuged at 2000 g for 10 minutes

Method for counting lamellar bodies: A. Densitometry B. Flow cytometry C. Impedance D. Radiofrequency

C. Impedance

Amniotic fluid for lamellar body count: A. Addition of ethanol B. Addition of methanol C. Centrifuged at 2000 g for 10 minutes D. Mix the sample by gentle inversion or by placing the test tube on a tube rocker

D. Mix the sample by gentle inversion or by placing the test tube on a tube rocker

Bacterial, viral, and protozoan infections produce increased secretion of water and electrolytes, which override the reabsorptive ability of the large intestine, leading to: A. Osmotic diarrhea B. Secretory diarrhea C. Either of these D. None of these

B. Secretory diarrhea

Maldigestion (impaired food digestion) and malabsorption (impaired nutrient absorption by the intestine) contribute to: A. Osmotic diarrhea B. Secretory diarrhea C. Either of these D. None of thes

A. Osmotic diarrhea

The BROWN COLOR OF THE FECES results from intestinal oxidation of stercobilinogen to_______. A. Bilirubin B. Blood C. Urobilinogen D. Urobilin

D. Urobilin

A pale, frothy stool is indicative of which of the following? A. Barium testing B. Osmotic diarrhea C. Steatorrhea D. Excess carbohydrates

C. Steatorrhea

Stool specimens that appear ribbon-like are indicative of which condition? A. Bile-duct obstruction B. Colitis C. Intestinal constriction D. Malignancy

C. Intestinal constriction

The normal composition of feces includes all of the following except: A. Bacteria B. Blood C. Electrolytes D. Wate

B. Blood

By far the MOST FREQUENTLY PERFORMED FECAL ANALYSIS is the detection of: A. Carbohydrates B. Fats C. Leukocytes D. Occult blood (hidden blood)

D. Occult blood (hidden blood)

Guaiac tests for detecting occult blood rely on the: A. Reaction of hemoglobin with hydrogen peroxide B. Pseudoperoxidase activity of hemoglobin C. Reaction of hemoglobin with ortho-toluidine D. Pseudoperoxidase activity of hydrogen peroxide

B. Pseudoperoxidase activity of hemoglobin

Large orange-red droplets seen on direct microscopic examination of stools mixed with Sudan III represent: A. Cholesterol B. Fatty acids C. Neutral fats D. Soaps

C. Neutral fats

Microscopic examination of stools mixed with Sudan III and glacial acetic acid and then heated will show small orange-red droplets that represent: A. Fatty acids and soaps B. Fatty acids and neutral fats C. Fatty acids, soaps, and neutral fats D. Soaps

C. Fatty acids, soaps, and neutral fats

What is the significance of an APT test that remains pink after addition of sodium hydroxide? A. Fecal fat is present B. Fetal hemoglobin is present C. Fecal trypsin is present D. Vitamin C is present

B. Fetal hemoglobin is present

Liquefaction of a semen specimen should take place within: A. 1 hour B. 2 hours C. 3 hours D. 4 hours

A. 1 hour

Sperm motility evaluations are performed: A. Immediately after the specimen is collected B. Within 1 hour of collection C. After 3 hours of incubation D. At 6-hour intervals for 1 day

B. Within 1 hour of collection

The percentage of sperm showing average motility that is considered normal is: A. 25% B. 50% C. 60% D. 75%

B. 50%

Failure of laboratory personnel to document the time a semen sample is collected primarily affects the interpretation of semen: A. Appearance B. Volume C. pH D. Viscosity

D. Viscosity

. Location of sperm nucleus: A. No nucleus B. Head C. Neck D. Tail

B. Head

The purpose of the acrosomal cap is to: A. Penetrate the ovum B. Protect the nucleus C. Create energy for tail movement D. Protect the neckpiece

A. Penetrate the ovum

Measurement of α -glucosidase is performed to detect a disorder of the: A. Seminiferous tubules B. Epididymis C. Prostate gland D. Bulbourethral glands

B. Epididymis

Follow-up testing for a low sperm concentration would include testing for: A. Antisperm antibodies B. Seminal fluid fructose C. Sperm vitality D. Prostatic acid phosphatase

B. Seminal fluid fructose

Following an abnormal sperm motility test with a normal sperm count, what additional test might be ordered? A. Fructose level B. Zinc level C. MAR test D. Eosin-nigrosin stain

D. Eosin-nigrosin stain

Given the following information, calculate the SPERM CONCENTRATION: dilution, 1:10; sperm counted in 25 RBC SQUARES ON EACH SIDE OF THE HEMOCYTOMETER, 198 and 202; seminal fluid volume is 4 mL. A. 20 M/mL B. 20 M/ejaculate C. 80 M/mL D. 80 M/ejaculate

A. 20 M/mL

Given the following information, calculate the SPERM COUNT: dilution, 1:10; sperm counted in 25 RBC SQUARES ON EACH SIDE OF THE HEMOCYTOMETER, 198 and 202; seminal fluid volume is 4 mL. A. 20 M/mL B. 20 M/ejaculate C. 80 M/mL D. 80 M/ejaculate

D. 80 M/ejaculate

When performing a sperm concentration, 60 sperms are counted in the RBC squares on one side of the hemocytometer and 90 sperms are counted in the RBC squares on the other side. The specimen is diluted 1:20. A. Specimen should be rediluted and counted B. Sperm count is 75 million/mL C. Sperm count is greater than 5 million/mL D. Sperm concentration is abnormal

A. Specimen should be rediluted and counted

For POSTVASECTOMY SEMEN ANALYSIS, specimens are routinely tested: A. Beginning at 1 month postvasectomy and continuing until two consecutive monthly specimens show no spermatozoa. B. Beginning at 2 months postvasectomy and continuing until two consecutive monthly specimens show no spermatozoa. C. Beginning at 2 months postvasectomy and continuing until three consecutive monthly specimens show no spermatozoa. D. Beginning at 3 months postvasectomy and continuing until three consecutive monthly specimens show no spermatozoa.

B. Beginning at 2 months postvasectomy and continuing until two consecutive monthly specimens show no spermatozoa.

other names parasitology

Yves Laure Pimentel · 70問 · 2年前

other names parasitology