BLOOD BANKING PROGRESS EXAM

100問 • 1年前

問題一覧

Transfusion-transmissible infectious agents for which UNIVERSAL SCREENING of all donations in all countries is recommended. Check four (4) boxes.

Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), Hepatitis B virus (HBV), Hepatitis C virus (HCV), Treponema pallidum (syphilis)

What is the maximum volume of blood that can be collected from a 110-lb donor, including samples for processing? * 0/1 450 mL 500 mL 525 mL 550 mL

525 mL

When RBCs are stored, there is a “shift to the left.” This means: * 1/1 Hemoglobin-oxygen affinity increases, owing to an increase in 2,3 -DPG Hemoglobin-oxygen affinity increases, owing to a decrease in 2,3-DPG Hemoglobin-oxygen affinity decreases, owing to a decrease in 2,3-DPG Hemoglobin-oxygen affinity decreases, owing to an increase in 2,3-DPG

Hemoglobin-oxygen affinity increases, owing to a decrease in 2,3-DPG

What are the current storage time and storage temperature for platelet concentrates and apheresis platelet components? * 1/1 5 days at 1°C to 6°C 5 days at 24°C to 27°C 5 days at 20°C to 24°C 7 days at 22°C to 24°C

5 days at 20°C to 24°C

Prestorage pooled platelets can be stored for: * 0/1 4 hours 24 hours 5 days 7 days

5 days

Additive solutions are approved for storage of red blood cells for how many days? * 0/1 21 42 35 7

One criterion used by the FDA for approval of new preservation solutions and storage containers is an average 24-hour post-transfusion RBC survival of more than: * 1/1 50% 60% 65% 75%

75%

What is the lowest allowable pH for a platelet component at outdate? * 1/1 6 5.9 6.8 6.2

6.2

Which of the following occurs during storage of red blood cells? * 0/1 pH decreases 2,3-DPG increases ATP increases Plasma K+ decreases

pH decreases

Which of the following is approved for bacterial detection specific to extending the expiration of apheresed platelets to 7 days? * 1/1 BacT/ALERT eBDS Gram stain Pan Genera Detection (PGD) test

Pan Genera Detection (PGD) test

The pattern of inheritance most commonly expressed by blood group genes is: * 1/1 X-linked recessive Autosomal recessive Autosomal codominant X-linked codominant

Autosomal codominant

RBCs must be washed in saline at least three times before the addition of AHG reagent to: * 0/1 Wash away any hemolyzed cells Remove traces of free serum globulins Neutralize any excess AHG reagent Increase the antibody binding to antigen

Remove traces of free serum globulins

You are working on a specimen in the laboratory that you believe to be a Bombay phenotype. Which of the following reactions would you expect to see? * 0/1 Patient’s cells + Ulex europaeus = no agglutination Patient’s cells + Ulex europaeus = agglutination Patient’s serum + group O donor RBCs = no agglutination Patient’s serum + A1 and B cells = no agglutination

Patient’s cells + Ulex europaeus = no agglutination

Which of the following ABO blood groups contains the least amount of H substance? * 1/1 A1B A2 B O

A1B

Cells carrying a weak D antigen require the use of what test to demonstrate its presence? * 0/1 Indirect antiglobulin test Direct antiglobulin test Microplate test Warm autoadsorption test

Indirect antiglobulin test

Which of the following is the most common haplotype in the African American population? * 1/1 DCe DcE Dce ce

Dce

If a patient who is R1R1 is transfused with RBCs that are R0r, which antibody is he most likely to produce? * 0/1 Anti-D Anti-c Anti-e Anti-G

Anti-c

The following results were obtained on a 51-year-old male with hepatitis C: * 0/1 Retype the patient’s sample to confirm group AB positive Repeat the Rh typing Run a saline control in forward grouping Report the patient as group AB, Rh positive

Run a saline control in forward grouping

What is the purpose of including a reagent control when interpreting group AB, D-positive red cells after testing with a low-protein anti-D reagent? * 0/1 To detect false-positive agglutination reactions To detect false-negative agglutination reactions To identify a mix up with patient’s sample To confirm ABO typing results

To detect false-positive agglutination reactions

Transformation to Leb phenotype after birth may be as follows: * 1/1 Le(a–b–) to Le(a+b–) to Le(a+b+) to Le(a–b+) Le(a+b–) to Le(a–b–) to Le(a–b+) to Le(a+b+) Le(a–b+) to Le(a+b–) to Le(a+b+) to Le(a–b–) Le(a+b+) to Le(a+b–) to Le(a–b–) to Le(a–b+)

Le(a–b–) to Le(a+b–) to Le(a+b+) to Le(a–b+)

In what way do the Lewis antigens change during pregnancy? * 0/1 Lea antigen increases only Leb antigen increases only Lea and Leb both increase Lea and Leb both decrease

Lea and Leb both decrease

The most commonly encountered of the Lewis antibodies: * 0/1 Anti-Le a Anti-Le b Anti-Le bH Anti-Le bL

Anti-Le a

Which of the following best describes MN antigens and antibodies? * 1/1 Well developed at birth, susceptible to enzymes, generally saline reactive Not well developed at birth, susceptible to enzymes, generally saline reactive Well developed at birth, not susceptible to enzymes, generally saline reactive Well developed at birth, susceptible to enzymes, generally antiglobulin reactive

Well developed at birth, susceptible to enzymes, generally saline reactive

Which autoantibody specificity is found in patients with paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria? * 1/1 Anti-I Anti-i Anti-P Anti-P1

Anti-P

Which of the following is the most common antibody seen in the blood bank after ABO and Rh antibodies? * 0/1 Anti-Fya Anti-k Anti-Jsa Anti-K

Anti-K

Which antibody is most commonly associated with delayed hemolytic transfusion reactions? * 1/1 Anti-s Anti-k Anti-Lu Anti-Jk

Anti-Jk

A patient with an M. pneumoniae infection will most likely develop a cold autoantibody with specificity to which antigen? * 0/1 I i P P1

The antibody to this high-prevalence antigen demonstrates mixed-field agglutination that appears shiny and refractile under the microscope. * 0/1 Vel JMH Jr Sd

What red blood cell treatment can be used to differentiate between anti-D and anti-LW? * 0/1 Ficin Trypsin Dithiothreitol (DTT) Papain

Dithiothreitol (DTT)

A weakly reactive antibody with a titer of 128 is neutralized by plasma. Which of the following could be the specificity? * 1/1 Anti-JMH Anti-Ch Anti-Kn Anti-Kp

Anti-Ch

The prevalence of ____ in Northern Europeans is 1% but is higher in the Mennonite population * 1/1 Diego a Diego b Scianna 1 Scianna 2

Scianna 2

Anti-Sda has been identified in a patient. What substance would neutralize this antibody and allow detection of other alloantibodies? * 0/1 Saliva Hydatid cyst fluid Urine Human breast milk

Urine

How many days before a pretransfusion specimen expires? * 1/1 3 days 7 days 14 days 1 month

3 days

How many days must a pretransfusion specimen and donor unit segments be retained post-transfusion? * 0/1 3 days 7 days 14 days 1 month

7 days

Which is not true of rouleaux formation? * 1/1 Mimics agglutination Appears like a “stacking of coins” Can be seen in the antiglobulin test Can be dispersed by saline

Can be seen in the antiglobulin test

Protein A captures antibodies by binding to the: * 1/1 Fab portion of immunoglobulin Fc portion of immunoglobulin Surface of test cells Surface of indicator cells

Fc portion of immunoglobulin

Immunization for rubella (German measles) would result in a temporary deferral for: * 1/1 4 weeks 2 weeks 1 year 3 years

4 weeks

Which of the following carries a 12-month deferral? * 1/1 Donor received Hepatitis B immune globulin Donor received pituitary growth hormone from another human Donor received the MMR vaccine Donor spent 10 years in Africa

Donor received Hepatitis B immune globulin

A first-trimester or second trimester abortion or miscarriage: * 1/1 4 weeks deferral 6 weeks deferral 12 months deferral Not cause for deferral

Not cause for deferral

Donors who have received a transfusion of blood or its components or other human tissues (organ, tissue, bone marrow transplant, or bone or skin graft) known to be possible sources of bloodborne pathogens should be deferred for _____ from the time of receiving the blood product or graft * 0/1 4 weeks 6 weeks 12 months 3 years

12 months

Currently, steps taken to reduce transfusion-transmitted CMV include: * 1/1 Plaque reduction neutralization test NAT testing Leukoreduction Minipool screening

Leukoreduction

The first retrovirus to be associated with human disease was: * 1/1 HCV HIV-1 HTLV-1 WNV

HTLV-1

What is the most common parasitic complication of transfusion? * 1/1 Babesia microti Trypanosoma cruzi Plasmodium species Toxoplasma gondii

Plasmodium species

RBCs that have been leukoreduced must contain less than ______ leukocytes and retain at least ______ of original RBCs. * 1/1 8 × 10 6th/ 85% 8 × 10 6th/ 90% 5 × 10 6th/ 85% 5 × 10 6th / 80%

5 × 10 6th/ 85%

Patient with APLASTIC ANEMIA should be transfused with: * 0/1 Fresh whole blood (FWB) Washed RBCs less than 7 days old Fresh frozen plasma and platelets Cryoprecipitated AHF

Washed RBCs less than 7 days old

Leukocyte-reduced filters can do all of the following except: * 1/1 Reduce the risk of CMV infection Prevent or reduce the risk of HLA alloimmunization Prevent febrile, nonhemolytic transfusion reactions Prevent TA-GVHD

Prevent TA-GVHD

Which patient does NOT need an irradiated component? * 0/1 Bone marrow transplant recipient Neonate weighing less than 1,200 g Adult receiving an RBC transfusion Adult receiving an RBC transfusion from a blood relative

Adult receiving an RBC transfusion

RBC transfusions should be given: * 1/1 Within 4 hours With lactated Ringer solution With dextrose and water With cryoprecipitate

Within 4 hours

Which type of transplantation requires all cellular blood components to be irradiated? * 1/1 Bone marrow Heart Liver Kidney

Bone marrow

Select the appropriate product for a bone marrow transplant patient with anemia: * 1/1 RBCs Irradiated RBCs Leukoreduced RBCs Washed RBCs

Irradiated RBCs

Which fluid should be used to dilute RBCs? * 0/1 0.9% saline 5% dextrose and water Immune globulin Lactated Ringer solution

0.9% saline

Fatal transfusion reactions are mostly caused by: * 1/1 Serologic errors Improper storage of blood Improper handling of the product Clerical errors

Clerical errors

Pain at infusion site and hypotension are observed with what type of reaction? * 0/1 Delayed hemolytic transfusion reaction Acute hemolytic transfusion reaction Allergic reaction Febrile nonhemolytic reaction

Acute hemolytic transfusion reaction

The most common isolate found in RBC units: * 1/1 Bacillus cereus Propionobacterium acnes Staphylococcus epidermidis Yersinia enterocolitica

Yersinia enterocolitica

The organisms most frequently recovered from donated blood and contamination of platelets: * 0/1 Yersinia enterocolitica and Pseudomonas species Yersinia enterocolitica and Propionobacterium acnes Staphylococcus aureus and Bacillus cereus Staphylococcus epidermidis and Bacilus cereus

Staphylococcus epidermidis and Bacilus cereus

The only presenting sign most often accompanying a delayed hemolytic transfusion reaction is: * 0/2 Renal failure Unexplained decrease in hemoglobin Active bleeding Hives

Unexplained decrease in hemoglobin

Which transfusion reaction presents with fever, maculopapular rash, watery diarrhea, abnormal liver function, and pancytopenia? * 1/1 Transfusion-associated sepsis Transfusion-related acute lung injury Transfusion-associated graft-versus-host disease Transfusion-associated allergic reaction

Transfusion-associated graft-versus-host disease

The most common anticoagulant used for apheresis procedures is: * 0/1 Heparin Sodium fluoride Warfarin Citrate

Citrate

The minimum interval allowed between plateletpheresis component collection procedures is: * 1/1 1 day 2 days 7 days 8 weeks

2 days

Which of the following can be given to an apheresis donor to increase the number of circulating granulocytes? * 1/1 DDAVP Hydroxyethyl starch (HES) Immune globulin G-CSF

G-CSF

Acute transfusion reactions: signs or symptoms presenting during or within ___ hours of transfusion * 0/1 Within 4 hours Within 24 hours Within 48 hours Within 72 hours

Within 24 hours

In humans, there are ____ chromosomes. * 1/1 2 chromosomes (1 pair) 22 chromosomes (11 pairs) 44 chromosomes (22 pairs) 46 chromosomes (23 pairs)

46 chromosomes (23 pairs)

Humans have ___ autosomes and ____ of sex chromosomes, * 0/1 1 pair of autosomes, 23 pairs sex chromosomes 22 pairs of autosomes, 2 pairs sex chromosomes 22 pairs of autosomes, 1 pair sex chromosomes 23 pairs of autosomes, 1 pair sex chromosomes

22 pairs of autosomes, 1 pair sex chromosomes

A1 individuals: * 0/1 A antigen A and A1 antigens Anti-A2 Production of only 240,000 to 290,000 antigen sites on the adult RBCs

A and A1 antigens

The ultimate goal of biological safety is to: * 0/1 Provide safe and sterile working area Provide immunity to healthcare workers Prevent completion of the chain of infection by preventing transmission Prevent the spread of harmful aerosols

Prevent completion of the chain of infection by preventing transmission

Which of the following includes an amorph? * 1/1 DcE DCE dce All of these

dce

A cause of indefinite deferral of blood donation is: * 1/1 German measles vaccination Residence in an endemic malaria region Positive test for Trypanosoma cruzi History of therapeutic rabies vaccine

Positive test for Trypanosoma cruzi

Which one of the following constitutes permanent deferral status of a donor? * 1/1 Tattoo 5 months previously Recent close contact with a patient with viral hepatitis 2 units of blood transfused 4 months previously Confirmed positive test for HBsAg 10 years previously

Confirmed positive test for HBsAg 10 years previously

Which of the following donors may be accepted as a blood donor? * 0/1 Traveled to an area endemic for malaria 9 months previously Spontaneous abortion at 2 months, 3 months previously Resides with a known hepatitis B patient Received blood transfusion 22 weeks previously

Spontaneous abortion at 2 months, 3 months previously

In order to be a plateletpheresies donor, the platelet count must be at least: * 1/1 150,000/uL 200,000/uL 250,000/uL 300,000/uL

150,000/uL

Prior to blood donation, the intended venipuncture site must be cleaned with a scrub solution containing: * 1/1 Hypochlorite Green soap 10% acetone Povidone iodine

Povidone iodine

What is/are the minimum pretransfusion testing requirement(s) for autologous donations collected and transfused by the same facility? * 0/1 ABO and Rh typing only ABO/Rh type and antibody screen ABO/Rh type, antibody screen, crossmatch No pretransfusion testing is required for autologous donation

ABO and Rh typing only

Upon inspection, a unit of aphaeresis platelets is noted to have visible clots, but otherwise appears normal. The technologist should: 1/1 Issue without concern Filter to remove clots Centrifuge to express off the clots Quarantine for Gram stain and culture

Quarantine for Gram stain and culture

An important determinant of platelet viability during storage is: * 1/1 Plasma potassium concentration Plasma pH Prothrombin time Partial thromboplastin time Feedback

Plasma pH

term refers to the test results obtained with specific antisera,

PHENOTYPE

refers to the genetic makeup of an individual.

GENOTYPE

An individual's red blood cells give the following reactions with RH antisera: anti-D (4+), anti-C (3+), anti-E (neg), anti-c(3+) anti-e (3+). The individual's most probable GENOTYPE is: * 0/1 DCe/DcE DcE/dce Dce/dce DCe/dce

DCe/dce

An individual's red blood cells give the following reactions with RH antisera: anti-D (4+), anti-C (3+), anti-E (neg), anti-c(3+) anti-e (3+). The individual's PHENOTYPE is: * 0/1 Dce/dce DCe/dce DCce Dce

DCce

ABO hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn (HDFN) differs from Rh HDFN in that: * 0/1 Rh HDFN is clinically more severe than ABO HDFN The direct antiglobulin test is weaker in Rh HDFN than ABO Rh HDFN occurs in the first pregnancy The mother's antibody screen is positive in ABO HDFN

Rh HDFN is clinically more severe than ABO HDFN

RBCs agglutinated by Dolichos biflorus: * 1/1 O red cells B and AB red cells A2 and A2B red cells A1 and A1B red cells

A1 and A1B red cells

Some blood group antibodies characteristically hemolyze appropriate antigen-positive red cells in the presence of : * 1/1 Complement Anticoagulants Preservatives Penicillin

Complement

The major crossmatch will detect a(an): * 1/1 Group A patient mistyped as O Unexpected red cell antibody in the donor unit Rh-negative donor unit mislabeled as Rh-positive Recipient antibody directed against antigens on the donor red cells

Recipient antibody directed against antigens on the donor red cells

In the Fisher-Race nomenclature, "d" represents: * 1/1 Presence of D antigen Absence of D antigen Elimination of D antigen Weak D antigen

Absence of D antigen

If the Du rosette test is positive, quantitation of the fetomaternal hemorrhage must be done by: * 0/1 Spectrophotometric technique Indirect antiglobulin test Flow cytometry Hemagglutination-inhibition test

Flow cytometry

Performed as early as 10 to 12 weeks’ gestation to determine whether the FETUS has the gene for the D antigen: * 1/1 Amniocentesis Cordocentesis Peripheral blood sample None of these

Amniocentesis

Defined as the proportion of cases with a specific disease or condition that give a positive test result: * 0/1 Sensitivity Specificity

Sensitivity

Defined as the proportion of cases with absence of the specific disease or condition that gives a negative test result: * 0/1 Sensitivity Specificity

Specificity

How are Rh antigens inherited? * 1/1 Autosomal recessive alleles Sex-linked genes Codominant alleles X-linked

Codominant alleles

Which animal was immunized that led to discovery of the Rh blood group? * 0/1 Mice Bats Guinea pigs and rabbits Rhesus macaque monkeys

Guinea pigs and rabbits

Agglutination with yellow anti-serum, no agglutination with blue anti-serum : * 1/1 A + B + A B

Reported the use of sodium citrate as an anticoagulant solutions for transfusions in 1914: * 1/1 Edward Lindemann Hustin Lewisohn Rous and Turner

Hustin

Introduced citrate-dextrose solution for preservation of blood in 1916: * 1/1 Edward Lindemann Hustin Lewisohn Rous and Turner

Rous and Turner

Prospective donors with a history of SYPHILIS or GONORRHEA, of treatment for either, or of a reactive screening test for syphilis, or where no confirmatory test was performed, should be deferred for ___months AFTER COMPLETION OF THERAPY. * 1/1 3 months 6 months 12 months 36 months

12 months

Donor deferral after complete recovery from tuberculosis: * 0/1 3 months 6 months 12 months 24 months

24 months

For ABO grouping, mix red cell suspension and antiserum and centrifuge for approximately: * 0/1 10 seconds 15 seconds 20 seconds 60 seconds

20 seconds

Centrifugation for the GEL TEST: * 1/1 5 minutes 10 minutes 15 minutes 20 minutes

10 minutes

Shelf-life of FFP stored at -18C: * 0/1 24 hours 1 year 2 years 7 years 10 years

1 year

Shelf-life of FFP stored at -65C: * 0/1 24 hours 1 year 2 years 7 years 10 years

7 years

Fresh frozen plasma must be thawed at which temperature? * 1/1 1 to 6C Room temperature 37C 40C or higher

37C

100

Once thawed, FFP must be transfused within: * 0/1 4 hours 6 hours 12 hours 24 hours

24 hours

other names parasitology

Yves Laure Pimentel · 70問 · 2年前

other names parasitology