ISBB

100問 • 1年前

問題一覧

Blood films for malaria * 0/1 A. Thin film should be fixed with methanol B. Thick film should be fixed with methanol C. Neither A or B D. Both a and b

A. Thin film should be fixed with methanol

A patient showed positive results with screening cells and 4 donor units. The patient autocontrol was negative. What is the most likely antibody? * 0/1 A. Anti-H B. Anti-S C. Anti-Kpa D. Anti-k

D. Anti-k

HDFN is nearly always limited to A or B infants of group ___ mothers * 0/1 A. A B. B C. O D. AB

C. O

Most common cause of HDFN * 0/1 A. Rh Antibody B. ABO antibody C. Duffy Antibody D. Kell Antibody

B. ABO antibody

Most lethal cause of HDFN * 1/1 A. Rh Antibody B. ABO antibody C. Duffy Antibody D. Kell Antibody

A. Rh Antibody

What minor blood group has a complement? * 0/1 A. Chido-rodgers B. Knops C. Vel D. AOTA

A. Chido-rodgers

What protein who is also an APR needed for coagulation of blood? * 0/1 A. Thrombin B. Fibrinogen C. Ceruloplasmin D. Haptoglobin

B. Fibrinogen

Your mother is a breast cancer patient, what tumor marker should be used? * 1/1 A. CEA B. CYFRA C. CA 153 D. CA 199

C. CA 153

How many diluent is needed if you have 0.2 ml of solute with a 1:20 dilution? * 0/1 A. 19.8 B. 3.8 C. 4 D. 1.8

B. 3.8

What IgG subclass that is the most abundant? * 1/1 A. IgG1 B. IgG2 C. IgG3 D. IgG4

A. IgG1

Cancer remission * 1/1 A. Accept B. Retest C. Defer D. Take history

C. Defer

Type of Anti D except * 1/1 a. IgG b. IgM c. IgA d. IgE

d. IgE

It is the most common parasitic complication of transfusion * 0/1 a. babesiosis b. malaria c. chaga d. toxoplasmosis

b. malaria

P1 is considered as * 0/1 a. IgG b. IgM c. IgA d. IgE

b. IgM

All of the following is required of HIV testing, except * 1/1 a. TB px b. all infants c. px w/ std d high risk population

b. all infants

What should be done if you observe the stop in the flow of blood during blood donation * 1/1 A. Reposition the needle B. Draw 2nd sample C. Stop the donation D. Squeeze the line

A. Reposition the needle

From the following, identify a specific component of the adaptive immune system that is formed in response to antigenic stimulation: * 0/1 a) Lysozyme b) Complement c) Commensal organisms d) Immunoglobulin

d) Immunoglobulin

Which cluster of differentiation (CD) marker appears during the first stage of T-cell development and remains present as an identifying marker for T cells? * 1/1 a) CD1 b) CD2 c) CD3 d) CD4 or CD8

b) CD2

All of the following are immunologic functions of complement except: * 0/1 a) Induction of an antiviral state b) Opsonization c) Chemotaxis d) Anaphylatoxin formation

a) Induction of an antiviral state

Which serum antibody response usually characterizes the primary (early) stage of syphilis? * 1/1 a) Antibodies against syphilis are undetectable b) Detected 1–3 weeks after appearance of the primary chancre c) Detected in 50% of cases before the primary chancre disappears d) Detected within 2 weeks after infection

b) Detected 1–3 weeks after appearance of the primary chancre

Which tests are considered screening tests for HIV? * 1/1 a) ELISA, 4th generation, and rapid antibody tests b) Immunofluorescence, Western blot, radioimmuno-precipitation assay c) Culture, antigen capture assay, DNA amplification d) Reverse transcriptase and messenger RNA (mRNA) ass

a) ELISA, 4th generation, and rapid antibody tests

Interpret the following results for HIV infection. ELISA: positive; Repeat ELISA: negative; Western blot: no bands * 1/1 a) Positive for HIV b) Negative for HIV c) Indeterminate d) Further testing needed

b) Negative for HIV

Which CD4:CD8 ratio is most likely in a patient with AIDS? * 1/1 a) 2:1 b) 3:1 c) 2:3 d) 1:2

d) 1:2

What should be done if all forward and reverse ABO results as well as the autocontrol are positive? * 1/1 a) Wash the cells with warm saline, autoadsorb the serum at 4oC b) Retype the sample using a different lot number of reagents c) Use polyclonal typing reagents d) Report the sample as group AB

a) Wash the cells with warm saline, autoadsorb the serum at 4oC

The k (Cellano) antigen is a high-frequency antigen and is found on most red cells. How often would one expect to find the corresponding antibody? * 1/1 a) Often b) Rarely c) Always d) Never

b) Rarely

Which of the following is not a requirement for the electronic crossmatch? * 1/1 a) The computer system contains logic to prevent assignment and release of ABO incompatible blood b) There are concordant results of at least two determinations of the recipient’s ABO type on record, one of which is from the current sample c) Critical elements of the system have been validated on site d) There are concordant results of at least one determination of the recipient’s ABO type on file

d) There are concordant results of at least one determination of the recipient’s ABO type on file

What ABO types may donate to any other ABO type? * 1/1 a) O- b) A-, O- c) A- d) A-,B-,AB-,O-

a) O-

A major crossmatch and screening cells are 2+ at IS, 1+ at 37°C, and negative at the IAT phase. Identify the most likely problem. * 1/1 a) Combination of antibodies b) Cold alloantibody c) Rouleaux d) Test error

b) Cold alloantibody

All of the following are reasons for performing an adsorption, except: * 0/1 a) Separation of mixtures of antibodies b) Removal of interfering substances c) Confirmation of weak antigens on red cells d) Identification of antibodies causing a positive DAT

d) Identification of antibodies causing a positive DAT

When may an immediate spin crossmatch be performed? * 0/1 a) When a patient is being massively transfused b) When there is no history of antibodies and the current antibody screen is negative c) When blood is being emergency released d) When a patient has not been transfused in the past 3 months

b) When there is no history of antibodies and the current antibody screen is negative

Which of the following vaccinations carries no deferral period? * 1/1 a) Rubella b) Varicella zoster c) HPV d) Small pox

c) HPV

What should be done when a woman who is 24 weeks pregnant has a positive antibody screen? * 0/1 a) Perform an antibody identification panel; titer if necessary b) No need to do anything until 30 weeks gestation c) Administer Rh immune globulin (RhIg) d) Adsorb the antibody onto antigen-positive cells

a) Perform an antibody identification panel; titer if necessary

What is the latest method used in detecting HIV infection in its early acute phase? * 1/1 a) ELISA b) Southern Blot c) Western blot d) Nucleic acid amplification testing

d) Nucleic acid amplification testing

Who is the best candidate for a predeposit autologous donation? * 1/1 a) A 45-year-old man who is having elective surgery in 2 weeks; he has alloanti-k b) A 23-year-old female leukemia patient with a hemoglobin of 10 g/dL c) A 12-year-old boy who has hemophilia d) A 53-year-old woman who has septicemia

a) A 45-year-old man who is having elective surgery in 2 weeks; he has alloanti-k

ANA tests are performed to help diagnose which condition: * 1/1 a) SLE b) Rheumatoid arthritis c) Leukemia d) Hemolytic anemia

a) SLE

To make a presumptive diagnosis of RA, which of the following qualitative methods is MOST sensitive * 0/1 a) Latex agglutination b) Immunoelectrophoresis c) RID d) ELISA

a) Latex agglutination

In chronic active hepatitis, high titers of which of the following antibodies are seen? * 1/1 a) Anti-smooth muscle b) Antimitochondrial c) Anti-DNA d) Anti-parietal cell

a) Anti-smooth muscle

Anti-glomerular basement membrane antibody is MOST often associated with this condition: * 1/1 a) Goodpasture disease b) SLE c) Celiac disease d) Chronic active hepatitis

a) Goodpasture disease

Flocculation tests for syphilis detect the presence of * 1/1 a) Reagin b) Antigen c) Hemolysin d) Forssman antigen

a) Reagin

Which of the following is a treponemal test? * 1/1 a) RST b) RPR c) FTA-ABS d) VDRL

c) FTA-ABS

The key structural difference that distinguishes immunoglobulin subclasses: * 0/1 a) Stereometry of the hypervariable region b) Number of domains c) Sequence of the constant regions d) Number of disulfide bridges

c) Sequence of the constant regions

Antibody idiotype is dictated by the * 0/1 a) Constant region of heavy chain b) Constant region of light chain c) Constant regions of heavy and light chains d) Variable regions of heavy and light chains

d) Variable regions of heavy and light chains

Immunoglobulin that is most efficient at crossing the placenta: * 1/1 a) IgG b) IgA c) IgM d) IgD

a) IgG

Which is most likely to activate the alternative pathway * 0/1 a) Lipopolysaccharide b) Glycoproteins c) Haptens d) IgG complexed with antige

a) Lipopolysaccharide

T lymphocytes are incapable of functioning as: * 0/1 a) Cytotoxic cells b) Helper cells c) Phagocytic cells d) Regulatory cells

c) Phagocytic cells

Which test is used to evaluate the cellular immune system in a patient? * 0/1 a) Skin test for commonly encountered antigens b) Determination of isohemagglutinin titer c) Immunoelectrophoresis of serum d) Measurement of anti-HBsAg after immunization

a) Skin test for commonly encountered antigens

Tumor markers found in the circulation are most frequently measured by: * 1/1 a) Immunoassays b) TLC c) HPLC d) Colorimetry

a) Immunoassays

Antigen receptors on T lymphocytes bind HLA class II molecules with the help of which accessory molecule? * 0/1 a) CD2 b) CD3 c) CD4 d) CD8

c) CD4

Bone marrow transplant donors and their recipients must be matched for which antigen systems * 0/1 a) ABO & Rh b) HLA c) CD4/CD8 d) P

b) HLA

Which antibody characteristically gives a refractile mixed-field appearance? * 1/1 a) Anti-K b) Anti-Dia c) Anti-Sda d) Anti-s

c) Anti-Sda

What does a minor crossmatch consist of? * 1/1 a) Recipient plasma and recipient red cells b) Recipient plasma and donor red cells c) Recipient red cells and donor plasma d) Donor plasma and donor red cells

c) Recipient red cells and donor plasma

Most common Di phenotype is often associated with what ancestry: * 0/1 a) Asian b) African c) European d) Mongolian

d) Mongolian

A 47-year old man with a history of cancer wants to donate blood. What would the MTOD do? * 0/1 a) Defer b) Defer for 1 year c) Defer for 3 years d) Accept

a) Defer

Symptoms of dyspnea, cough, hypoxemia, and pulmonary edema within 6 hours of transfusion: * 0/1 a) Anaphylactic b) Hemolytic c) TRALI d) TACO

c) TRALI

Which is NOT a correct match of blood component and its temperature? * 0/1 a) Frozen RBCs: -18°C b) Platelets: 20-24°C c) FFP: -65 d) Cryoprecipitate: -18°C

a) Frozen RBCs: -18°C

The anticoagulant/s with the shelf life of 21 days: 1. CPD 2. CPDA-1 3. CP2D 4. ACD 5. ADSOL * 1/1 a) 1,2, and 3 b) 1 only c) 4 and 5 d) 1,3, and 4

d) 1,3, and 4

Kernicterus: * 0/1 a) decreased B1 b) increased unconjugated bilirubin c) increased conjugated bilirubin d) decreased B2

b) increased unconjugated bilirubin

Why do Rh-negatiive women tend to have a positive antibody screen compared with Rh-positive women of childbearing age? * 1/1 a) They have formed active Anti-D b) They have received RhIg c) They have formed anti-K d) They have a higher rate of transfusion

b) They have received RhIg

Which is the most significant agent formed in the phagolysosome for the killing of microorganisms? * 0/1 a) Proteolytic enzymes b) Hydroxyl radicals c) Hydrogen peroxide d) Superoxides

c) Hydrogen peroxide

Which of the following white blood cells is capable of further differentiation in the tissues? * 0/1 a) Neutrophil b) Eosinophil c) Basophil d) Monocyte

d) Monocyte

Which of the following plays an important role as an external defense mechanism? * 0/1 a) Phagocytosis b) C-reactive protein c) Lysozyme d) Complement

c) Lysozyme

How much diluent needs to be added to 0.2 ml of serum to make a 1:20 dilution? * 0/1 a) 19.8 mL b) 4.0 mL c) 3.8 mL d) 10.0 m

c) 3.8 mL

Which of the following statements accurately describes competitive binding assays? * 1/1 a) Excess binding sites for the analyte are provided. b) Labeled and unlabeled analyte are present in equal amounts. c) The concentration of patient analyte is inversely proportional to bound radioactive label. d) All the patient analyte is bound in the reaction.

c) The concentration of patient analyte is inversely proportional to bound radioactive label.

How do heterogeneous assays differ from homogeneous assays? * 0/1 a) Heterogeneous assays require a separation step. b) Heterogeneous assays are easier to perform than homogeneous assays. c) The concentration of patient analyte is directly proportional to bound label in homogeneous assays. d) Homogeneous assays are more sensitive than heterogeneous ones.

a) Heterogeneous assays require a separation step.

In a noncompetitive enzyme immunoassay, if a negative control shows the presence of color, which of the following might be a possible explanation? * 0/1 a) No reagent was added. b) Washing steps were incomplete. c) The enzyme was inactivated. d) No substrate was present.

b) Washing steps were incomplete.

Which of the following techniques uses restriction enzymes, electrophoresis, and then transfer of DNA fragments onto a solid matrix, followed by probing with labeled probes? * 0/1 a) Dot-blot b) Southern blot c) Western blot d) LCR

b) Southern blot

Most of the pathology associated with parasitic infections results from which of the following? * 0/1 a) Symbiotic relationships with the host b) Elaborate parasitic life cycles c) Immune response to the offending organism d) Innate defense mechanisms of the host

c) Immune response to the offending organism

The chronic nature of parasitic infections is due to the host’s * 0/1 a) inability to eliminate the infective agent. b) type I hypersensitivity response to the infection. c) ability to form a granuloma around the parasite. d) tendency to form circulating immune complexes

a) inability to eliminate the infective agent.

Antigen-antibody reactions are: * 0/1 a) Irreversible b) Reversible c) Lattice formation d) Cross links

b) Reversible

PCR technology can be used to: * 1/1 a) Amplify small amounts of DNA. b) Isolate intact nuclear RNA. c) Digest genomic DNA into small fragments. d) Repair broken pieces of DNA.

a) Amplify small amounts of DNA.

Part of the surrogate testing for HBV that is no longer required: * 0/1 a) ALT b) HBsAg c) Anti-HBc d) GGT

a) ALT

What should you do to a whole blood with not adjusted anticoagulant? Underfilled blood * 1/1 a) Label as pRBC b) Label as pRBC, low volume indicated c) Label as FFP d) Discard the unit

b) Label as pRBC, low volume indicated

Which of the following is proper procedure for preparation of platelets from whole blood? * 1/1 a) Light spin followed by a hard spin b) Light spin followed by two hard spins c) Two light spins d) Hard spin followed by a light spin

a) Light spin followed by a hard spin

Plastic bag overwraps are recommended when thawing units of FFP in 37oC water baths because they prevent: * 0/1 a) The FFP bag from cracking when it contacts the warm water b) Water from slowly dialyzing across the bag membrane c) The entry ports from becoming contaminate with water d) The label from peeling off as the water circulates in the bath

c) The entry ports from becoming contaminate with water

A 10% red cell suspension in saline is used in a compatibility test. Which of the following would most likely occur? * 0/1 a) False-positive due to antigen excess b) False-positive due to prozone c) False-negative due to prozone d) False-negative due to antigen excess

d) False-negative due to antigen excess

Results of a serum sample tested against a panel of reagent red cells gives presumptive evidence of an alloantibody directed against a high incidence antigen. Further investigation to confirm the specificity should include which of the following? * 0/1 a) Serum testing against red cells from random donors b) Serum testing against red cells known to lack incidence antigens c) Serum testing against enzyme-treated autologous red cells d) Testing of an eluate prepared form the patient’s red cells

b) Serum testing against red cells known to lack incidence antigens

AHG control cells: * 0/1 a) Positive control for anti-C3 reagents b) Only for IAT c) Coated only with IgG antibody d) Must be used to confirm all positive antiglobulin reactions

c) Coated only with IgG antibody

.Which of the following is consistent with standard blood bank procedure governing the infusion of fresh frozen plasma, except? * 0/1 a) Only blood group-specific plasma may be administered b) Group O may be administered to recipients of all blood groups c) Group AB may be administered to AB recipients only d) Group A may be administered to both A and O recipient

d) Group A may be administered to both A and O recipient

The most serious HTRs are due to which incompatibility: * 1/1 a) ABO b) Rh c) MN d) Duffy

a) ABO

Most frequent transfusion-associated disease complication of blood transfusions is: * 0/1 a) CMV b) Syphilis c) Hepatitis d) AIDS

c) Hepatitis

When soluble antigens diffuse in a gel that contains antibody, in which zone does optimum precipitation occur? * 0/1 a) Prozone b) Zone of equivalence c) Postzone d) Prezone

b) Zone of equivalence

The following mainly transmitted through fecal/oral route: 1. HAV 2. HEV 3. HCV 4. HBV * 1/1 a) 1 and 2 b) 1 and 3 c) 1,2 and 3 d) 1,2,3 and 4

a) 1 and 2

What is the transport temperature for red cells? * 0/1 a) Between 2°C and 6°C b) Between 1°C and 4°C c) Between 1°C and 6°C d) Between 2°C and 10°C

d) Between 2°C and 10°C

The term used when an individual received the same 2 alleles from each parent * 1/1 a) Homozygous b) Heterozyous c) Dominant d) Recessive

a) Homozygous

The law mandates that all Blood Banks should have a? * 1/1 a) Foot-operated sink b) Biosafety cabinet c) Safety plan d) Fume hoods

c) Safety plan

Which is NOT nontreponemal tests? 1. FTA-ABS 2. VDRL 3. RPR 4. MHA-TP 5. RST 6. USR 7. TRUST * 0/1 a) 2 and 4 b) 2 and 3 c) 1 and 7 d) 1 and 4

d) 1 and 4

The required tests for the disease transmission prevention, EXCEPT? * 1/1 a) Tuberculosis b) HIV c) Malaria d) Syphilis

a) Tuberculosis

How much anticoagulant is needed for 280 mL sample? * 0/1 a) 28 mL b) 39 mL c) 63 mL d) 70 mL

b) 39 mL

What is the simplest test to evaluate the cellular immune system in a patient? * 0/1 a) Skin test b)Immunoelectrophoresis c) Protein electrophoresis d) Antibody titer

a) Skin test

Which blood type can produced all FOUR blood types * 1/1 a) AA and BB b) AB and BO c) AB and AB d) BB and O

b) AB and BO

Component of humoral immunity * 0/1 a) Antibodies b) Saliva c) T cell d) B cell

a) Antibodies

Recombinant DNA techniques: * 0/1 a) Are not used in a clinical setting b) Are useful research tools c) Are not used in blood banking d) Are useful only for research

d) Are useful only for research

nti-U will not react with which of the following RBCs? * 0/1 a)M+N+S+s– b)M+N–S–s– c)M–N+S–s+ d) M+N–S+s+

b)M+N–S–s–

Can you accurately interpret a patient’s group AB, D- positive result in ABO and D typing tests using monoclonal antibody reagents without additional testing? * 0/1 a) YES b) NO c) Either d) Cannot be determine

b) NO

What lectin possesses the specificity for the H antigen? * 1/1 a) Iberis amara b) Dolichos biflorus c) Ulex europaeus d) Vicia graminea

c) Ulex europaeus

What is the term that describes the number of cases of a disease present in a particular population at a given time? * 0/1 a) Incidence b) Prevalence c) Case occurrence d) Window period

b) Prevalence

What labile coagulation factors are present in fresh frozen plasma (FFP)? 1. Factor V 2. Fibrinogen 3. Anti-hemophilic factor 4. Factor IX * 1/1 a) 1 and 2 b) 1 and 3 c) 2 and 3 d) 3 and 4

b) 1 and 3

Protein A captures antibodies by binding to: * 1/1 a) Fab portion of immunoglobulin b) Fc portion of immunoglobulin c) Surface of test cells d) Surface of indicator cells

b) Fc portion of immunoglobulin

How does irradiation affect the shelf-life of red blood cells? * 1/1 a) Irradiation has no effect on the shelf-life. b) The expiration date is 28 days from the date of irradiation or the original outdate, whichever is later. c) The expiration date is 28 days from the date of irradiation or the original outdate, whichever is sooner. d) The expiration date is 25 days from the date of irradiation

c) The expiration date is 28 days from the date of irradiation or the original outdate, whichever is sooner.

100

Which patient does not need an irradiated component? * 0/1 a) Bone marrow transplant recipient b) Neonate weighing less than 1,200 g c) Adult receiving an RBC transfusion d) Adult receiving an RBC transfusion from a blood relative

c) Adult receiving an RBC transfusion

other names parasitology

Yves Laure Pimentel · 70問 · 2年前

other names parasitology