SUMMATIVE EXAM PART 3

100問 • 1年前

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Which of the following is most likely to activate the alternative pathway of complement activation? A. Lipopolysaccharides B. Glycoproteins C. Haptens D. lgG complexed with antigen

A. Lipopolysaccharide

The transfusion service is preparing aliquots from a unit of Red Blood Cells Leukocytes Reduced with the aid of a sterile connecting device for a pediatric patient. When checking the weld for one of these aliquots, it is noted that the weld is incomplete and leaking. This unit is then resealed with an acceptable weld. What will the expiration date of this unit be? A. 6 hours B. 24 hours C. 3 days D. Original expiration date

B. 24 hours

A technologist removed 4 units of blood from the blood bank refrigerator and placed them on the counter. A clerk was waiting to take the units for transfusion. As she checked the paperwork, she noticed that one of the units was leaking onto the counter. What should she do? A. Issue the unit if the red cells appear normal B. Reseal the unit C. Discard the unit D. Call the medical director and ask for an opinion

C. Discard the unit

Traditional example of quality control: A. Error-free quality B. Management controlled worker C. Quality as means to lower cost D. Quality defined

B. Management controlled worker

Focus on PEOPLE and OPERATIONAL DELIVERY of laboratory services: A. Laboratory supervisor B. Laboratory manager or chief MT C. Laboratory director D. Administrator

A. Laboratory supervisor

In the urinalysis laboratory the primary source in the chain of infection would be: A. Patients B. Needlesticks C. Specimens D. Biohazardous waste

C. Specimens

The best way to break the chain of infection is: A. Handwashing B. Personal protective equipment C. Aerosol prevention D. Decontamination

A. Handwashing

An employee can learn the carcinogenic potential of potassium chloride by consulting the: A. Chemical hygiene plan B. Material safety data sheets C. OSHA standards D. Urinalysis procedure manual

B. Material safety data sheets

Blood vessel that supply blood to the kidney: A. Renal artery B. Renal vein C. Peritubular capillaries D. None of these

A. Renal artery

Ultrafiltration: A. Chemical filtration B. Mechanical filtration C. Both of these D. None of these

B. Mechanical filtration

Composition of urine: A. Organic chemicals dissolved in water B. Inorganic chemicals dissolved in water C. Organic and inorganic chemicals D. Organic and inorganic chemicals dissolved in water

D. Organic and inorganic chemicals dissolved in water

Which of the following is passively reabsorbed? A. Amino acids B. Chloride C. Glucose D. Urea

D. Urea

The correct method for labeling urine specimen containers is to: A. Attach the label to the lid B. Attach the label to the bottom C. Attach the label to the container D. D. Use only a wax pencil for labeling

C. Attach the label to the container

The only tissue in the body that is hypertonic with respect to normal plasma (i.e., its osmolality is greater than 290 mOsm/kg): A. Glomerulus B. Convoluted tubules C. Renal cortex D. Renal medulla

D. Renal medulla

Urine preservative that maintains the pH at about 6.0 and preserves protein and formed elements well without interfering with routine testing except for pH. A. Boric acid B. Toluene C. Formalin D. Phenol

A. Boric acid

Polyuria in adults: A. Greater than 1.5 L urine/day B. Greater than 2.0 L urine/day C. Greater than 2.5 L urine/day D. Greater than 3.0 L urine/day

C. Greater than 2.5 L urine/day

Evaluation of polyuria: A. Culture B. Glucose C. Routine urinalysis D. Urine osmolality

D. Urine osmolality

Urine solute exhibiting diurnal variation: A. Creatinine B. Glucose C. Nitrite D. 17-hydroxysteroids

D. 17-hydroxysteroids

Phenol derivatives found in certain intravenous medications produce ______ urine on oxidation. A. Amber B. Yellow C. Orange D. Green

D. Green

Calibration of centrifuges is customarily performed every ______. A. Daily B. Weekly C. Monthly D. Every 3 months (quarterly)

D. Every 3 months (quarterly)

Centrifuges are routinely disinfected on a ___ basis. A. Daily B. Weekly C. Monthly D. Yearly

B. Weekly

Let refrigerated urine specimens warm to ______before testing: A. Body temperature B. Room temperature C. 37 oC D. 56 oC

B. Room temperature

Refrigeration may cause precipitation of amorphous urates and phosphates and other nonpathologic crystals that can obscure other elements in the urine sediment. Warming the specimen to ____ prior to centrifuging may dissolve some of these crystals. A. 20 oC B. 37 oC C. 40 oC D. 100 oC

B. 37 oC

Which of the following produces sweet or fruity odor in urine? A. Bacteria B. Ketone C. Methionine D. Phenylalanine

B. Ketone

The concentration of myoglobin in the urine must be at least ___ before the red pigmentation can be visualized. A. 10 mg/dL B. 15 mg/dL C. 20 mg/dL D. 25 mg/dL

D. 25 mg/dL

A specimen with a specific gravity of 1.005 would be considered: A. Isosthenuric B. Hyposthenuric C. Hypersthenuric D. Not urine

B. Hyposthenuric

The reading of distilled water by the refractometer is 1.003. You should: A. Subtract 1.003 from each specimen reading B. Add 1.003 to each specimen reading C. Use a new refractometer D. Adjust the set screw

D. Adjust the set screw

Refractometer results are valid up to _______; specimen with greater than (your answer) should be diluted and remeasured. A. 1.020 B. 1.030 C. 1.035 D. 1.050

C. 1.035

Urine specific gravity by the REAGENT STRIP is 1.020, chemical tests indicate presence of 2 g/dL protein. What is the corrected specific gravity? A. 1.010 B. 1.012 C. 1.014 D. 1.020

D. 1.020

Urine specific gravity by the REFRACTOMETER is 1.020. The urine temperature is 17 oC. What is the corrected specific gravity? A. 1.016 B. 1.017 C. 1.019 D. 1.020

D. 1.020

Urine specific gravity by the URINOMETER is 1.032. The urine temperature is 26 oC and chemical tests indicate presence of 2 g/dL protein. What is the corrected specific gravity? A. 1.022 B. 1.024 C. 1.026 D. 1.028

D. 1.028

The method for determining a urine specific gravity that is based on the principle that the frequency of a sound wave entering a solution changes in proportion to the density of the solution is: A. Colorimetric B. Oscillation densitometry C. Refractometry D. Urinometry

B. Oscillation densitometry

A urine sample is received in the laboratory with the appropriate custody control form, and a request for drug of abuse screening. Which test result would be cause for rejecting the sample? A. Temperature after collection 95°F B. pH 5.0 C. Specific gravity 1.005 D. Creatinine 5 mg/dL

D. Creatinine 5 mg/dL

When testing for drugs of abuse in urine, which of the following test results indicate dilution and would be cause for rejecting the sample? A. Temperature upon sample submission 92°F B. Specific gravity 1.002; Creatinine 15 mg/dL C. pH 5.8; temperature 94°F D. Specific gravity 1.012, creatinine 25 mg/dL

B. Specific gravity 1.002; Creatinine 15 mg/dL

How should controls be run to ensure the precision and accuracy of the reagent test strips used for the chemical analysis of urine? A. Positive controls should be run on a daily basis and negative controls when opening a new bottle of test strips. B. Positive and negative controls should be run when the test strips' expiration date is passed. C. Positive and negative controls should be run on a daily basis. D. Positive controls should be run on a daily basis and negative controls on a weekly basis.

C. Positive and negative controls should be run on a daily basis.

All of the following are important to protect the integrity of reagent strips EXCEPT: A. Removing the desiccant from the bottle B. Storing in an opaque bottle C. Storing at room temperature D. Resealing the bottle after removing a strip

A. Removing the desiccant from the bottle

Which of the following tests is affected LEAST by standing or improperly stored urine? A. Glucose B. Protein C. pH D. Bilirubin

B. Protein

The principle of “protein error of indicators” is based on: A. Protein changing the pH of the specimen B. Protein changing the pKa of the specimen C. Protein accepting hydrogen from the indicator D. Protein giving up hydrogen to the indicator

C. Protein accepting hydrogen from the indicator

Sensitivity of Multistix albumin pad: A. 5 to 10 mg/dL albumin B. 10 to 14 mg/dL albumin C. 15 to 30 mg/dL albumin D. 20 to 30 mg/dL albumin

C. 15 to 30 mg/dL albumin

Daily loss of protein in urine normally does not exceed: A. 30 mg B. 50 mg C. 100 mg D. 150 mg

D. 150 mg

Bilirubin combines with 2,6-dichlorobenzenediazonium-tetrafluoroborate in an acid medium to produce an azodye, with colors ranging from: A. Green to blue B. Green to brown C. Pink to purple D. Yellow to orange

C. Pink to purple

The purpose of the special mat supplied with the Ictotest tablets is that: A. Bilirubin remains on the surface of the mat B. It contains the dye needed to produce color C. It removes interfering substances D. Bilirubin is absorbed into the mat

A. Bilirubin remains on the surface of the mat

All of the following are contained in the Multistix urine glucose pad, EXCEPT: A. Glucose oxidase B. Gluconic acid C. Peroxidase D. Potassium iodide

B. Gluconic acid

False negative glucose pad: A. Oxidizing agents B. Detergent C. Refrigerator temperature D. None of these

C. Refrigerator temperature

The primary reason for performing a Clinitest is to: A. Check for high ascorbic acid levels B. Confirm a positive reagent strip glucose C. Check for newborn galactosuria D. Confirm a negative glucose reading

C. Check for newborn galactosuria

False negative urobilinogen reagent strip: A. Formalin B. Methyldopa C. Porphobilinogen D. Sulfonamides

A. Formalin

Primary test for diagnosing and monitoring bacterial infection: A. Glucose and ketones B. Leukocyte esterase C. Nitrite D. Culture

D. Culture

Test for ______ requires patients on a diet that contains GREEN VEGETABLES: A. Bilirubin B. Glucose C. Ketone D. Nitrite

D. Nitrite

Esterases also are present in which parasite? A. Enterobius B. Giardia C. Schistosoma D. Trichomonas

D. Trichomonas

When semi-automated urine chemistry analyzers are used, the color that develops on the reaction pads is measured by: A. Spectrophotometry B. Reflectance photometry C. Fluorescence photometry D. Comparing reaction pads with a color chart

B. Reflectance photometry

Reflectance photometry uses the principle that light reflection from the test pads _________ in proportion to the intensity of color produced by the concentration of the test substance. A. Increases B. Decreases C. Variable D. Undetermined

B. Decreases

Type of microscope used for routine urinalysis: A. Bright-field microscope B. Phase contrast microscope C. Polarizing microscope D. Interference contrast microscope

A. Bright-field microscope

It enhances visualization of elements with low refractive indices: A. Bright-field microscope B. Dark-field microscope C. Phase contrast microscope D. Interference contrast microscope

C. Phase contrast microscope

Type of microscope that forms HALO of light around an object: A. Bright-field B. Dark-field microscope C. Polarizing microscope D. Phase-contrast

D. Phase-contrast

It produces a THREE-DIMENSIONAL MICROSCOPY IMAGE and layer by- layer imaging of a specimen: A. Bright-field microscope B. Phase contrast microscope C. Polarizing microscope D. Interference contrast microscope

D. Interference contrast microscope

Kohler illumination is: A. Method to ensure optimal contrast and resolution B. Method to magnify objects C. An indication of the type of light source in use D. One method of phase contrast magnification

A. Method to ensure optimal contrast and resolution

Initial magnification: A. Condenser B. Rheostat C. Ocular D. Objective

D. Objective

Further magnification: A. Condenser B. Rheostat C. Ocular D. Objective

C. Ocular

Primary components of the lens system: 1. Oculars 2. Objectives 3. Coarse adjustment knob 4. Fine adjustment knobs A. 1 and 2 B. 3 and 4 C. 1, 2 and 3 D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Centrifugation for urine microscopic examination: A. RCF of 100 for 2 minutes B. RCF of 400 for 5 minutes C. RCF of 500 for 5 minutes D. RCF of 500 for 10 minutes

B. RCF of 400 for 5 minutes

Initial screening of the urine sediment is performed using an objective power of: A. 4x B. 10x C. 40x D. 100x

B. 10x

Nuclear detail can be enhanced by: A. Prussian blue B. Toluidine blue C. Acetic acid D. Both B and C

D. Both B and C

When pyuria is detected in a sediment, the slide should be carefully checked for the presence of: A. RBCs B. Bacteria C. Hyaline casts D. Mucus

B. Bacteria

Glitter cells in KOVA stain: A. Violet B. Light blue C. Pink D. Black

B. Light blue

Hyaline cast in KOVA stain: A. Dark shade of orange-purple B. Dark shade of blue-purple C. Pale pink or pale purple D. Do not stain

C. Pale pink or pale purple

Largest cell in urine sediment: A. Squamous epithelial cells B. Transitional epithelial cells C. Renal tubular epithelial cells D. None of these

A. Squamous epithelial cells

Largest RTE cells originate from the: A. Proximal convoluted tubule B. Distal collecting tubule C. Collecting duct D. None of these

A. Proximal convoluted tubule

RTE cell from the proximal convoluted tubules: A. Columnar or convoluted B. Cuboidal C. Round or oval D. None of these

A. Columnar or convoluted

RTE cell from the distal convoluted tubules: A. Columnar or convoluted B. Cuboidal C. Round or oval D. None of these

C. Round or oval

RTE cells from the collecting duct: A. Columnar or convoluted B. Cuboidal C. Round or oval D. None of these

B. Cuboidal

Neutrophils lyse rapidly in: A. Acetic acid B. Ether C. Dilute acid urine D. Dilute alkaline urine

D. Dilute alkaline urine

Differentiation among RBCs, yeast, and oil droplets may be accomplished by all of the following EXCEPT: A. Observation of budding in yeast cells B. Increased refractility of oil droplets C. Lysis of yeast cells by acetic acid D. Lysis of RBCs by acetic acid

C. Lysis of yeast cells by acetic acid

Of all the urine sediment elements, ___ are the MOST DIFFICULT TO RECOGNIZE. A. Bacteria B. Epithelial cells C. RBCs D. WBCs

C. RBCs

RBCs in a dilute urine: A. Crenate B. Dysmorphic C. Swell D. Shrink

C. Swell

RBC casts are easily detected under low power by their ____color. A. Blue color B. Purple color C. Yellow color D. Orange-red color

D. Orange-red color

Following an episode of hemoglobinuria, RTE cells may contain: A. Bilirubin B. Hemosiderin granules C. Porphobilinogen D. Myoglobin

B. Hemosiderin granules

The order of cast degradation is: A. Cellular > granular > waxy B. Cellular > hyaline > waxy C. Hyaline > cellular > waxy D. Hyaline > granular > waxy

A. Cellular > granular > waxy

The presence of waxy casts in a microscopic examination of urine is consistent with a diagnosis of: A. Strenuous exercise B. Pyelonephritis C. Glomerulonephritis D. Chronic renal failure

D. Chronic renal failure

Differentiation between cystitis and pyelonephritis is aided by the presence of: A. WBC casts B. RBC casts C. Bacteria D. Granular cast

A. WBC casts

Primary urinalysis results: § Leukocyturia § Bacteriuria § Microscopic hematuria § Mild proteinuria § Increased pH A. Acute interstitial nephritis B. Acute pyelonephritis C. Acute tubular necrosis D. Cystitis

D. Cystitis

Primary urinalysis results: § Leukocyturia § Bacteriuria § WBC casts § Bacterial casts § Microscopic hematuria § Proteinuria A. Acute interstitial nephritis B. Acute pyelonephritis C. Acute tubular necrosis D. Cystitis

B. Acute pyelonephritis

Urinalysis results include hematuria, possibly macroscopic, mild to moderate proteinuria, numerous WBCs, and WBC casts without the presence of bacteria: A. Acute interstitial nephritis B. Acute pyelonephritis C. Acute tubular necrosis D. Cystitis

A. Acute interstitial nephritis

Eosinophils are not normally seen in the urine; therefore, the finding of more than __eosinophils in urine is considered significant: A. More than 1% B. More than 2% C. More than 3% D. More than 5%

A. More than 1%

Urinalysis findings include mild proteinuria, microscopic hematuria, and most noticeably the presence of RTE cells and RTE cell casts containing tubular fragments consisting of three or more cell: A. Acute interstitial nephritis B. Acute pyelonephritis C. Acute tubular necrosis D. Cystitis

C. Acute tubular necrosis

In SEVERE yeast infection: A. Gram-negative coccobacilli B. Pear-shaped flagellate with undulating membrane C. Oval structures that may or may not contain a bud D. Appear as branched, mycelial form

D. Appear as branched, mycelial form

The primary component of urinary mucus is: A. Bence Jones protein B. Microalbumin C. Uromodulin D. Orthostatic protein

C. Uromodulin

Amorphous urate crystals are soluble in HEAT and: A. Acetone B. Chloroform C. Dilute alkali D. Ether

C. Dilute alkali

The crystal associated with ETHYLENE GLYCOL poisoning has which characteristic appearance: A. Coffin lid B. Thorny apple C. Envelope, pyramidal D. Dumbbell

D. Dumbbell

During microscopy, a medical technologist suspects that what he see are calcium oxalate crystals, but the uncommon form. These crystals are soluble with: A. Acetic acid B. Dilute HCl C. Both D. None

B. Dilute HCl

Crystals may be precipitated with if ALCOHOL IS ADDED TO THE URINE: A. Amorphous urate crystals B. Bilirubin crystals C. Triple phosphate crystals D. Tyrosine and leucine crystals

D. Tyrosine and leucine crystals

Which of the following is an abnormal crystal described as a hexagonal plate? A. Cystine B. Tyrosine C. Leucine D. Cholesterol

A. Cystine

Positive for the cyanide nitroprusside test: A. Uric acid crystals B. Cystine C. Tyrosine D. Leucine

B. Cystine

Crystals in an amber-colored urine: Crystals appear as clumped needles or granules with the characteristic yellow color. These crystals are characteristic of: A. Acute glomerulonephritis B. Acute pyelonephritis C. Hepatic disorders D. Lipiduria example, nephrotic syndrome

C. Hepatic disorders

Tests to for bilirubin detection: A. Chloroform test B. Esbach’s test C. Heat and acetic acid test D. Sulkowitch test

A. Chloroform test

Calculi formation at pH > 7: A. Uric acid, cystine, xanthine B. Calcium oxalate, apatite C. Triple phosphate, calcium phosphate D. All of the above

C. Triple phosphate, calcium phosphate

. Hurler, Hunter, and Sanfilippo syndromes are hereditary disorders affecting metabolism of: A. Porphyrins B. Purines C. Mucopolysaccharides D. Tryptophan

C. Mucopolysaccharides

Cetyltrimethylammonium bromide (CTAB) test: A. Homogentisic acid, transient blue B. Mucopolysaccharides, blue spot C. Mucopolysaccharides, white turbidity D. PKU, blue-green color

C. Mucopolysaccharides, white turbidity

Positive result in the metachromatic staining procedure for mucopolysaccharides: A. Black precipitate B. White turbidity C. Blue spot D. Red spot

C. Blue spot

Which of the following conditions is associated with normal urine color but produces red fluorescence when urine is examined with an ultraviolet (Wood’s) lamp? A. Acute intermittent porphyria B. Lead poisoning C. Erythropoietic porphyria D. Porphyria cutanea tarda

B. Lead poisoning

100

Elevated compound(s) in congenital erythropoietic porphyria: A. Protoporphyrin B. ALA, porphobilinogen C. ALA, protoporphyrin D. Uropophyrin, coproporphyrin

D. Uropophyrin, coproporphyrin

other names parasitology

Yves Laure Pimentel · 70問 · 2年前

other names parasitology