RECALLS

100問 • 1年前

問題一覧

Assay for uric acid, that has problems with turbidity and is least specific: a. Enzymatic: UV b. Enzymatic: H2O2 c. Colorimetric: Endpoint d. Colorimetric: Kinetic

c. Colorimetric: Endpoint

Hyponatremia due to increased sodium loss, except: a. Severe burns b. Diuretics c. Renal failure d. Potassium deficiency

c. Renal failure

Lithium is an example of: a. CNS Stimulants b. CNS Depressants c. Hallucinogens d. Anti-depressants

d. Anti-depressants

Marker for renal tubule problem: a. Cystastin C b. Creatinine c. Beta-2 microglobulin d. Urea

c. Beta-2 microglobulin

Marker for nutritional status: a. Adiponectin b. Fibronectin c. Beta-2 microglobulin d. Cystatin C

b. Fibronectin

Electrolytes that function in acid-base balance: I. Bicarbonate III. Chloride II. Potassium IV. Phosphate a. I,II b. III, IV c. I, II, III d. I, II, III, IV

c. I, II, III

Blood is collected in a high altitude place. Volume of blood collected is: a. Not affected b. Increased c. Decreased d. Normal

c. Decreased

Copper reduction method is ____ than enzymatic methods. a. 5-10% higher b. 5-15% higher c. 10-15% higher d. 15-25% higher

b. 5-15% higher

Biochemical marker of bone resorption that can be detected in serum and urine: a. Adiponectin b. Fibronectin c. Cross-linked C-telopeptides d. Cystatin C

c. Cross-linked C-telopeptides

Major apolipoprotein of LDL: a. Apo A b. Apo B c. Apo C d. Apo D

b. Apo B

Creamy floating layer in a serum sample indicates presence of? a. LDL b. Chylomicrons c. HDL d. Triglycerides

b. Chylomicrons

Which of the following is best used against computer caused fires? a. CO2 b. Dry chemicals c. Halon d. Foam

c. Halon

Enzyme with moderate specificity for the liver, heart, and skeletal muscles: a. CK b. ALP c. AST d. LD

c. AST

Age group associated with the following cutoff points for serum cholesterol: Moderate risk >240 mg/dL, High risk of >260 mg/dL a. 2-19 years old b. 20-29 years old c. 30-39 years old d. 40 and over

d. 40 and over

Measured by standard protein electrophoresis: I. C3 component III. Transferrin II. Fibrinogen a. I, II b. I, III c. II, III d. I, II, III

b. I, III

Test for synthetic and excretory function of the liver: a. Transaminases b. Bilirubin c. Prothrombin Time d. Albumin

b. Bilirubin

Highest elevation of ALP activity occur in: a. Rickets b. Paget’s disease c. Hyperparathyroidism d. Pernicious anemia

b. Paget’s disease

Aside from troponin, which of the following biomarkers has been used to help diagnose or ruleout a heart attack? a. Fibronectin b. Myoglobin c. Cross-linked C-telopeptides d. Amyloid

b. Myoglobin

Conditions associated with hyperkalemia: I. Sample hemolysis II. Prolonged tourniquet application III. Thrombocytosis IV. Fist clenching a. I, II, III b. I, II, IV c. I, III, IV d. I, II, III, IV

d. I, II, III, IV

Which of the following hormones increases in response to stress? a. Aldosterone b. Cortisol c. Antidiuretic Hormone d. Catecholamine

b. Cortisol

Examples of anti-asthmatics: I. Theophylline III. Digoxin II. Theobromine IV. Fluoxetine a. I, II b. I, III c. II, IV d. III, IV

a. I, II

A hormone that is produced mainly by the lutein cells of the corpus luteum in the female: a. Estrogen b. Progesterone c. Dehydroepiandrosterone d. Testosterone

b. Progesterone

Conversion factor for albumin: a. 10 b. 0.357 c. 12.9 d. 0.0595

a. 10

Conversion factor for glucose: a. 0.0595 b. 0.0555 c. 0.0113 d. 88.4

b. 0.0555

Which of the following is the critical value of hypernatremia? a. 155 mEq/L b. 140 mEq/L c. 150 mEq/L d. 160 mEq/L

d. 160 mEq/L

Which electrolyte plays a major role in the regulation of water balance in the body? a. Chloride b. Phosphorus c. Potassium d. Sodium

d. Sodium

Conditions associated with low albumin/globulin ratio: I. Multiple Myeloma II. Cirrhosis III. Nephrotic Syndrome a. I only b. I, II c. I, III d. I, II, III

d. I, II, III

This metal inhibits sulfhydryl enzymes throughout the body: a. Arsenic b. Lead c. Mercury d. Cadmium

a. Arsenic

Which of the following analytes are affected when the patient changes position from supine to sitting or standing? a. Aldosterone b. Protein c.Sodium

b. Protein

Lipoprotein measurement in some laboratories uses: a. Gamma scintillation b. MALDI-TOF c. Mass spectrometry d. ELISA

c. Mass spectrometry

Major waste product of protein metabolism: a. Creatinine b. Urea c. Ammonia d. Uric Acid

b. Urea

Secondary hyperthyroidism: a. Increased T3 T4, decreased TSH b. Increased T3 T4, increased TSH c. Decreased T3 T4, increased TSH d. Decreased T3 T4, decreased TSH

b. Increased T3 T4, increased TSH

A flexible calcium alginate nasopharyngeal swab is the collection device of choice for recovery of which organism from the nasopharynx? a. Staphylococcus aureus b. Streptococcus pneumoniae c. Corynebacterium diphtheriae d. Bacteroides fragilis

c. Corynebacterium diphtheriae

The following organisms have mycolic acid in their cell walls, except: a. Corynebacterium b. Streptomyces

b. Streptomyces

Unique characteristics of spirochetes: a. lack cell wall b. motile but without flagella c. lack plasma membrane

b. motile but without flagella

Chinese Liver Fluke: a. Fasciolopsis buski b. Opistorchis felineus c. Clonorchis sinensis

Clonorchis sinensis

Which of the following Schistosoma eggs are seen in stool samples? a. Schistosoma japonicum b. Schistosoma mansoni c. Schistosoma haematobium d. Schistosoma intercalatum

d. Schistosoma intercalatum

The following are arthropod-borne viruses, except: a. Dengue Virus b. Chikungunya Virus c. Zika Virus d. Respiratory Syncytial Virus

d. Respiratory Syncytial Virus

Characteristic of stool with blood & mucus, mimics traveller’s diarrhea: a. Balantidiasis b. Giardiasis c. Sarcoidosis

b. Giardiasis

Cycloserine-cefoxitin-fructose agar (CCFA) is used for the recovery of? a. Clostridium perfringens b. Clostridium botulinum c. Clostridium perfringens d. Clostridium difficile

d. Clostridium difficile

Aerobic, filamentous, branching weakly acid fast bacilli. Negative for casein, xanthine, and tyrosine hydrolysis: a. Nocardia caviae b. Nocardia asteroides c. Streptomyces somaliensis d. Actinomadura madurae

b. Nocardia asteroides

Scolicidal agent used during surgical removal of hydatid cyst: a. KOH b.10% formalin

b.10% formalin

Treatment of choice for Paragnimus westermani infection: a. Albendazole b. Praziquantel c. Primaquine d. Surgery

b. Praziquantel

Test that will best differentiate Mycobacterium tuberculosis from Mycobacterium kansasii, yielding a positive result of canary yellow: a. Niacin test b. Tween Hydrolysis c. Arylsulfatase Test

a. Niacin test

For the selective isolation of Vibrio spp. ,the recommended agar is: a. Thiosulfate-citrate-bile salt-sucrose agar b. Charcoal yeast extract agar c. Mannitol salt agar d. Cefsulodin-irgasan-novobiocin agar

a. Thiosulfate-citrate-bile salt-sucrose agar

Which of the following is the uppermost layer after centrifugation of FECT? a. ethyl acetate ether b. debris c. formalin d. parasites

a. ethyl acetate ether

How is the Chocolate Agar Plate made? a. Addition of 5% sheep’s blood b. Addition of chocolate c. Preparing CAP-based nutrient agar d. Adding lysed RBCs

d. Adding lysed RBCs

Parasite oocyst that is resistant to detergents and environmental factors but is susceptible at 70 degrees Celsius. This parasite infects animals: a. Giardia lamblia b. S. lindemani c. Toxoplasma gondi d. Capillaria philippinensis

c. Toxoplasma gondi

Infective stage to mosquito once it took a blood meal: a. sporozoite b. gametocyte c. merozoite d. oocyst

b. gametocyte

Plasmodium spp. characterized by crescent-shaped gametocytes and presence of Maurer’s dots: a. Plasmodium falciparum b. Plasmodium vivax c. Plasmodium ovale d. Plasmodium malariae

a. Plasmodium falciparum

Filarial worm that has no genital lymphatic involvement:

b. Brugia malayi

A bloody stool cultured from 26-year-old woman after 3 days of severe diarrhea showed the following results: MacConkey agar: little normal flora with many nonlactose-fermenting colonies Clear colonies tested negative for oxidase, indole, urease and H2s a. Shigella spp. b. Salmonella spp. c. Proteus spp. d. E. coli

a. Shigella spp.

Three blood cultures taken from a 30-year-old cancer patient receiving chemotherapy and admitted with a urinary tract infection grew lactose-negative, motile, gram-negative rods. Given the following biochemical reactions, which is the most likely organism? H2S (TSI) = + Indole = + MR = + Citrate = Neg Urease = + VP = Neg Gelatin Hydrolysis = + Phenyalalanine deaminase = + Ornithine decarboxylase = Neg a. Proteus vulgaris b. Proteus mirabilis c. Serratia marcescens d. Klebsiella pneumoniae

a. Proteus vulgaris

Type of incubator wherein plates are placed on their own individual shelves and optimal growth conditions will be achieved: a. b. c. Smart incubators d. Humidity incubators

c. Smart incubators

How to know colony count? a. CFu/mL b. Colony calculator

a. CFu/mL

Traditional specimen of choice for Chlamydia trachomatis in males:

Urethral swab

Which of the following agents acts by inhibiting protein synthesis: a. Gentamicin b. Methicillin c. Vancomycin d. Rifampin

a. Gentamicin

Common cestoidal infection amongst children, unsanitary places and unhygienic persons: a. Ascaris lumbricoides b. Taenia solium

b. Taenia solium

Color of methylene blue when anaerobic conditions are reached inside anaerobic jars: a. Blue b. Pink c. Green d. Colorless

d. Colorless

First swimming morphologic form that penetrates 1st intermediate host: a. Miracidium b. Rediae c. Cercaria d. Metacercaria

a. Miracidium

Type of microscope that forms halo of light around an object: a. Bright-field microscope b. Dark-field microscope c. Polarizing microscope d. Phase-contrast microscope

d. Phase-contrast microscope

Which of the following is least affected by standing or improperly stored urine? a. Glucose b. pH c. Protein d. Bilirubin

c. Protein

Major inorganic substance found in urine: a. Urea b. Sodium c. Creatinine d. Potassium

b. Sodium

Which of the following statements about Bence Jones protein is correct? a. It is found in urine of patients with multiple sclerosis b. c. Precipitates at 40-60oC, and dissolves at 100oC d. It can produce a positive reagent strip protein test and a negative sulfosalicylic acid precipitation (SSA) test

c. Precipitates at 40-60oC, and dissolves at 100oC

Reporting of renal tubular epithelial (RTE) cells: a. Averaged and reported per lpf b. Averaged and reported per hpf c. Rare, few, moderate or many per lpf d. Rare, few, moderate or many per hpf

a. Averaged and reported per lpf

A technologist is having trouble differentiating between red blood cells, oil droplets, and yeast cells on a urine microscopy. Acetic acid should be added to the sediment to: a. Lyse the yeast cells b. Lyse the RBCs c. Dissolve the oil droplets d. Crenate the red blood cells

b. Lyse the RBCs

Granular, dirty, brown casts are associated with? a. Pyelonephritis b. Acute interstitial nephritis c. Acute tubular necrosis d. Cystitis

c. Acute tubular necrosis

Renal stones that are yellow to brownish red, moderately hard: a. Uric acid b. Phosphates c Calcium oxalates d. Cystine

a. Uric acid

A web-like clot or pellicle is formed in CSF from patients with: a. Bacterial meningitis b. Tubercular meningitis c. Viral meningitis d. Fungal meningitis

b. Tubercular meningitis

Seminal fluid viscosity graded as 4: a. Gel-like b. Watery c. Clotted d. Compact

a. Gel-like

A WBC count of 150/uL in synovial fluid is: a. Normal b. Septic joint disorder c. Hemorrhagic joint disorder d. Inflammatory joint disorder

a. Normal

Stool WBC Differential count: I. Mononuclear cells II. Polymorphonuclear cells III. Macrophages a. I only b. II only c. I, II d. I, II, III

c. I, II

Pigment present in pink colored sediments after refrigeration: a. Urochrome b. Uroerythrin c. Urobilin d. Urobilinogen

b. Uroerythrin

Which of the following is true about sputum? a. Secreted by the tracheobronchial tree b. Normally produced by healthy individuals c. Is of green color

a. Secreted by the tracheobronchial tree

Secretes pepsinogen which catalyzes digestion of proteins: a. Parietal cells b. Chief cells c. G cells

b. Chief cells

Resorcinol test produces a/an ____ color when fructose is present: a. Magenta b. Orange c. d. Yellow

b. Orange

Pungent odor of urine indicates: a. Phenylketonuria b. c. d. Bacteriuria

d. Bacteriuria

Measurement of bacteria in slideless microscopy: a. b. indirectly by using nitrite c. scattergram

b. indirectly by using nitrite

Urine preservative that preserves protein and formed elements well and does not interfere with routine analyses other than pH: a. Boric acid b. Formalin c. Toluene d. Thymol

a. Boric acid

Normally, daily urine protein excretion does not exceed:

10 mg/dL

For nitrite determination, patient should include ____ in their diet: a. Sugar, honey b. Red meat c. Green vegetables d. Fish

c. Green vegetables

The most reliable way to differentiate an exudate from transudate: a. White blood cell count b. Fluid:serum protein ratio c. Fluid:serum cholesterol ratio d. Bilirubin ratio

b. Fluid:serum protein ratio

Glitter cells are usually found in ____ urine: a. b. concentrated c. diluted

c. diluted

Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) is increased in the following conditions, except: a. Spina bifida b. Anencephaly c. d. Down Syndrome

d. Down Syndrome

Home-based pregnancy test kit contains antibodies against which hormone? a. Alpha subunit of the glycoprotein b. Beta subunit of the glycoprotein c. Alpha subunit of the amino acid d. Beta subunit of the amino acid

b. Beta subunit of the glycoprotein

Measures to assess the risk of preterm delivery: a. Alpha-fetoprotein b. c. Placental alpha-microglobulin d. Fetal fibronectin

d. Fetal fibronectin

Which of the following causes interference in SSA? a. Tolbutamide b. Sulfonamide c. Radiographic contrast media d. AOTA

d. AOTA

Which of the following error may result in excessive anticoagulant? a. Falsely decreased hematocrit b. Falsely high ESR c. Falsely increased hemoglobin d. Falsely low MCHC

a. Falsely decreased hematocrit

Concentration of citrate used in coagulation studies: a. 4.2% b. 4.8% c. 3.2% d. 3.8%

c. 3.2%

Which of the following mobilizes stem cell differentiation? a. IL-2, IL-3 b. c. IL-3, GM-CSF d. GM-CSF, G-CSF

c. IL-3, GM-CSF

Only metal coagulation factor: a. Factor I b. Factor II c. Factor III d. Factor IV

d. Factor IV

Fitzgerald Factor: a. Hageman Factor b. HMWK c. Prekallikrein d. Stuart-Prower

b. HMWK

Fletcher factor: a. Hageman Factor b. HMWK c. Prekallikrein d. Stuart-Prower

c. Prekallikrein

Color of cytoplasm of younger cells: a. Gray b. Light blue c. Dark blue d. Pink

c. Dark blue

Neurological phlebotomy complication: a. Reflex arteriospasm b. Syncope c. Pseudoaneurysm d. Nerve damage

d. Nerve damage

Hemoglobin production starts at what stage of maturation? a. Orthochromic normoblast b. Polychromatophilic normoblast c. Basophilic normoblast d. Polychromatophilic erythrocyte

b. Polychromatophilic normoblast

Fibrinogen concentration increases per decade by: a. 10 mg/dL b. 15 mg/dL c. 20 mg/dL d. 30 mg/dL

a. 10 mg/dL

Select the gauge most commonly used for venepuncture in children: a. 18 gauge b. 22 gauge c. 16 gauge d. 20 gauge

b. 22 gauge

Platelet count that can cause turbidity in cyanmethemoglobin method: a. Greater than 150 x 109/L b. Greater than 300 x 109/L c. Greater than 500 x 109/L d. Greater than 700 x 109/L

d. Greater than 700 x 109/L

100

When comparing spun microhematocrit results with haematocrit results obtained on an electronic cell counter, the spun haematocrit results may vary from ____ beacause of trapped plasma: a. 1 to 3% lower b. 1 to 3% higher c. 3 to 5% lower d. 3 to 5% higher

b. 1 to 3% higher

other names parasitology

Yves Laure Pimentel · 70問 · 2年前

other names parasitology