POPCORN

100問 • 1年前

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MHC Class I includes which molecules? A. Complement B. HLA-A, B, C C. Cytokines D. HLA-DP, DQ, DR

B. HLA-A, B, C

In chronic active hepatitis, high titers of which of the following antibodies are seen? A. Antimitochondrial B. Anti-smooth muscle C. Anti-DNA D. Anti-parietal cell

B. Anti-smooth muscle

In primary biliary cirrhosis, which of the following antibodies is seen in high titers? A. Anti-mitochondrial B. Anti-smooth muscle C. Anti-DNA D. Anti-parietal cell

A. Anti-mitochondrial

A 28-year-old man is seen by a physician because of several months of intermittent low back pain. The patient’s symptoms are suggestive of ankylosing spondylitis. Which of the following laboratory studies would support this diagnosis? A. A decreased synovial fluid CH50 level B. Low serum CH50 level C. Positive HLA-B27 antigen test D. Rheumatoid factor in the synovial fluid

C. Positive HLA-B27 antigen test

The disappearance of HBsAg and HBeAg, the persistence of anti-HBc, the appearance of anti-HBs, and often of anti-HBe indicate: A. Early acute HBV hepatitis B. Early convalescent phase HBV hepatitis C. Recovery phase of acute HBV hepatitis D. Carrier state of acute HBV hepatitis

C. Recovery phase of acute HBV hepatitis

A bacterial protein used to bind human immunoglobulins is: A. HAV antibody, IgA type B. Escherichia coli protein C C. Staphylococcal protein A D. HAV antibody, IgG type

C. Staphylococcal protein A

Which IgG subclass is most efficient at crossing the placenta? A. IgG1 B. IgG2 C. IgG3 D. IgG4

A. IgG1

Treatment of IgG with papain results in how many fragments from each immunoglobulin molecule? A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5

B. 3

Patients suffering from Waldenstrom macroglobulinemia demonstrate excessively increased concentrations of which of the following? A. IgG B. IgA C. IgM D. IgD

C. IgM

IgM antibodies are frequently hemolytic because of: A. Their dimeric structure B. The molecule’s 5 antigen binding sites C. Their sedimentation coefficient of 7 to 15s D. Their efficient ability to fix complement

D. Their efficient ability to fix complement

MINIMUM precentrifugation time for specimens drawn in serum separator tubes is: A. 10 minutes B. 15 minutes C. 20 minutes D. 30 minutes

D. 30 minutes

According to CLSI, the MAXIMUM time limit for separating serum or plasma from cells is: A. 15 minutes from the time of collection B. 30 minutes from the time of collection C. 1 hour from the time of collection D. 2 hours from the time of collection

D. 2 hours from the time of collection

Smallest platelets seen: A. Alport syndrome B. Bernard-Soulier syndrome C. May-Hegglin anomaly D. Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome

D. Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome

Largest platelets seen: A. Alport syndrome B. Bernard-Soulier syndrome C. May-Hegglin anomaly D. Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome

B. Bernard-Soulier syndrome

May-Hegglin anomaly is characyerized by: A. Giant platelets B. Smallest platelets seen C. Large platelets D. Absence of platelets

C. Large platelets

Bernard-Soulier syndrome is characterize by: A. Giant platelets B. Smallest platelets seen C. Large platelets D. Absence of platelets

A. Giant platelets

EDTA is used in concentrations of __ of blood. A. 0.5 mg/1 mL of whole blood B. 1.5 mg/1 mL of whole blood C. 2.5 mg/1 mL of whole blood D. 3.5 mg/1 mL of whole blood

B. 1.5 mg/1 mL of whole blood

Sodium citrate in the concentration of a _____ solution has been adopted as the appropriate concentration by the ICSH and the International Society for Thrombosis and Hemostasis for coagulation studies. A. 1.5% B. 15% C. 3.2% D. 3.8%

C. 3.2%

Which of the following are all anticoagulants that remove calcium from the specimen by forming insoluble calcium salts and therefore preventing coagulation? A. EDTA, lithium heparin, citrate B. NaF, sodium heparin, EDTA C. Oxalate, SPS, sodium heparin D. Sodium citrate, EDTA, oxalate

D. Sodium citrate, EDTA, oxalate

An inpatient vehemently refuses to allow you to collect a blood specimen. What should you do? A. Convince the patient to cooperate and collect the sample anyway. B. Have the nurse physically restrain the patient and draw the specimen. C. Notify the patient’s nurse and document the patient’s refusal. D. Return to the lab, cancel the test request, and inform the physician.

C. Notify the patient’s nurse and document the patient’s refusal.

Your inpatient is asleep when you arrive to draw blood. What do you do? A. Call out the patient’s name softly and shake the bed gently. B. Cancel the test and ask the nurse to resubmit the requisition. C. Check back every 15 minutes until the patient has awakened. D. Fill out a form stating that the specimen was not obtained and why.

A. Call out the patient’s name softly and shake the bed gently.

Your patient is not wearing an ID band. You see that the ID band is taped to the nightstand. The information matches your requisition. What do you do? A. Ask the patient to state her name; if it matches the requisition, continue. B. Ask the patient’s nurse to attach an ID band and proceed when it is attached. C. Go to the nurses’ station, get an ID bracelet, attach it, and then proceed. D. Tell the nurse that you will not collect the specimen and return to the lab.

B. Ask the patient’s nurse to attach an ID band and proceed when it is attached.

A solution used to clean the site before routine venipuncture is: A. 5.25% sodium hypochlorite. B. 70% isopropyl alcohol. C. 70% methanol. D. Povidone–iodine.

B. 70% isopropyl alcohol.

This antiseptic has been traditionally used to obtain the high degree of skin antisepsis required when BLOOD CULTURES are being collected: A. 70% Ethyl alcohol B. 70% Isopropanol C. Hydrogen peroxide D. Povidone–iodine

D. Povidone–iodine

When drawing a blood alcohol specimen, it is acceptable to clean the arm with: A. Benzalkonium chloride B. Isopropyl alcohol C. Methanol prep. D. Tincture of iodine

A. Benzalkonium chloride

Which organ is the site of sequestration of platelets? A. Liver B. Thymus C. Spleen D. Bone marrow

C. Spleen

Which of the following is the preferable site for bone marrow aspiration and biopsy in an adult? A. Iliac crest B. Sternum C. Tibia D. Spinous processes of a vertebra

A. Iliac crest

The appropriate dilution of bleach to be used in laboratory disinfection is: A. 1:2 B. 1:5 C. 1:10 D. 1:100

C. 1:10

Select the needle most commonly used in standard venipuncture in an adult: A. One inch, 18 gauge B. One inch, 21 gauge C. One-half inch, 23 gauge D. One-half inch, 25 gauge

B. One inch, 21 gauge

The vein of choice for performing a venipuncture is the: A. Basilic, because it is the most prominent vein in the antecubital fossa B. Cephalic or accessory cephalic, because it is the least painful site C. Median or median cubital, because it has the lowest risk of damaging nerves in the arm D. One of the hand veins, because they are most superficial and easily accessed

C. Median or median cubital, because it has the lowest risk of damaging nerves in the arm

Most coagulation factors are synthesized in: A. The liver B. Monocytes C. Endothelial cells D. Megakaryocytes

A. The liver

What coagulation plasma protein should be assayed when platelets fail to aggregate properly? A. Factor VIII B. Fibrinogen C. Thrombin D. Factor X

B. Fibrinogen

If a patient has anatomic soft tissue bleeding and poor wound healing, but the PT, PTT, thrombin time, platelet count, and platelet functional assay results are normal, what factor deficiency is indicated? A. Fibrinogen B. Prothrombin C. Factor XII D. Factor XIII

D. Factor XIII

A defect in primary hemostasis (platelet response to an injury) often results in: A. Musculoskeletal bleeding B. Mucosal bleeding C. Hemarthroses D. None of the above

B. Mucosal bleeding

The clinical presentation of platelet-related bleeding may include all of the following except: A. Bruising B. Nose bleeds C. Gastrointestinal bleeding D. Bleeding into the joints (hemarthroses)

D. Bleeding into the joints (hemarthroses)

A defect in GP IIb/IIIa causes: A. Glanzmann thrombasthenia B. Bernard-Soulier syndrome C. Gray platelet syndrome D. Storage pool disease

A. Glanzmann thrombasthenia

Most coagulation testing must be performed on PPP, which is plasma with a platelet count less than: A. 1000/uL B. 10,000/uL C. 100,000/uL D. 1,000,000/uL

B. 10,000/uL

Deficiency of which single factor is likely when the PT result is prolonged and the PTT result is normal? A. Factor V B. Factor VII C. Factor VIII D. Prothrombin

B. Factor VII

Mercuric chloride pigment may be removed from tissue by: A. An iodine-sodium thiosulfate sequence B. Washing in running water for 1 to 24 hours C. Washing in 50% or 70% alcohol D. Alcoholic dehydration step in processing

A. An iodine-sodium thiosulfate sequence

Formalin fixes tissue by: A. Causing a loss of color B. Forming cross links C. Forming formic acid D. Facilitating numerous staining techniques

B. Forming cross links

Acetone is recommended for the fixation of: A. Pheochromocytomas B. Fluorescent antibody techniques C. Muscle enzyme histochemistry D. Brain tissue for the diagnosis of rabies

D. Brain tissue for the diagnosis of rabies

To prevent the formation of formalin pigment in tissues, formalin should be: A. Heated B. Cooled C. Buffered D. Acidified

C. Buffered

The preferred fixative for tissue to be stained for simple fats is: A. Zenker B. Helly C. Schaudinn D. 10% neutral buffered formalin

D. 10% neutral buffered formalin

This organ is usually suspended whole in 10% buffered formalin for 2 to 3 weeks to ensure fixation and some hardening prior to sectioning. A. Lungs B. Liver C. Brain D. Amputated foot

C. Brain

Which of the following organs should not be dissected before they are fixed? A. Eyes B. Lungs C. Heart D. Liver

A. Eyes

For good fixation it is recommended that the tissue be no larger than: A. 2 cm square and 1-2 mm thick B. 2 cm square and 3-4 mm thick C. 3 cm square and 1-2 mm thick D. 3 cm square and 3-4 mm thick

B. 2 cm square and 3-4 mm thick

Zenker fluid contains all of the following EXCEPT: A. Mercuric chloride B. Potassium dichromate C. 37%-40% formaldehyde D. Glacial acetic acid

C. 37%-40% formaldehyde

The best fixative for blood smears is: A. Bouin solution B. Carnoy solution C. B-5 D. Methanol

D. Methanol

An unknown pigment in a tissue section that can be bleached with a saturated alcoholic solution of picric acid is most likely: A. Melanin pigment B. Hemosiderin C. Formalin pigment D. Mercury pigment

C. Formalin pigment

Fires involving wood and paper are considered: A. Class A fires B. Class B fires C. Class C fires D. Class D fires

A. Class A fires

Lubricants used during knife sharpening are usually composed of: A. Acid B. Agar C. Gelatin D. Oil

D. Oil

Routine paraffin sections are cut at what micrometer (um) setting? A. 1 to 3 B. 4 to 6 C. 7 to 9 D. 10 to 15

B. 4 to 6

The odor of garlic may be on the breath, and a metallic taste in the patient’s mouth: A. Arsenic B. Cyanide C. Iron D. Mercury

A. Arsenic

A comatose 27-year-old woman is brought to the emergency room by paramedics, and the strong odor of bitter almonds is present. The differential diagnosis must include the possibility of poisoning by: A. Ethylene glycol B. Carbon monoxide C. Carbon tetrachloride D. Cyanide E. Arsenic

D. Cyanide

In the Henderson-Hasselbalch equation, the numerator denotes _____ functions. A. Brain B. Pituitary C. Lung D. Kidney

D. Kidney

In the Henderson-Hasselbalch equation, the denominator denotes _____ functions. A. Brain B. Pituitary C. Lung D. Kidney

C. Lung

Main estrogen found in nonpregnant women: A.Estrone B.Estradiol C.Estriol D.Dehydroepiandrosterone

B.Estradiol

Main estrogen found in pregnant women: A.Estrone B.Estradiol C.Estriol D.Dehydroepiandrosterone

C.Estriol

A complete deficiency of hypoxanthine guanine phosphoribosyltransferase results in which disease? A. Lesch-Nyhan syndrome B. Modification of diet in renal disease C. Maple syrup urine disease D. Reye’s syndrome E. Megaloblastic anemia

A. Lesch-Nyhan syndrome

Major structural protein in VLDL and LDL: A.Apo-A1 B.Apo-A2 C.Apo-B48 D.Apo-B100

D.Apo-B100

Structural protein in chylomicrons: A.Apo-A1 B.Apo-A2 C.Apo-B48 D. Apo-B100

C.Apo-B48

A method for the estimation of glucose in body fluids; glucose in the protein-free filtrate reduces cupric ion to cuprous ion. The cuprous ion then reduces PHOSPHOMOLYBDIC ACID to molybdenum blue which can be estimated colorimetrically. A. Dubowski method B. Folin-Wu C. Nelson-Somogyi D. Neocuproine

B. Folin-Wu

Main (predominant) hormone produced by the thyroid: A. T3 B. T4 C. Calcitonin D. None of these

B. T4

In terms of biologic activity, what is the most potent thyroid hormone? A. T3 B. T4 C. Calcitonin D. None of these

A. T3

Microtome for cutting paraffin embedded tissues, and is the MOST COMMON type used for routine work: A. Rocking microtome B. Rotary microtome C. Sliding microtome D. Freezing microtome

B. Rotary microtome

Microtome for cutting serial sections of large blocks of paraffin embedded tissues, SIMPLEST TYPE among the different types of microtome: A. Rocking microtome B. Rotary microtome C. Sliding microtome D. Freezing microtome

A. Rocking microtome

Excessive exposure to this clearing agent may be extremely toxic to man and may become carcinogenic or it may damage the bone marrow resulting in aplastic anemia. A. Benzene B. Toluene C. Xylene (xylol) D. Chloroform

A. Benzene

Which of the tubules is impermeable to water? A. Proximal convoluted tubule B. Descending loop of Henle C. Ascending loop of Henle D. Distal convoluted tubule

C. Ascending loop of Henle

Which part of the renal tubule is HIGHLY PERMEABLE to water and does not reabsorb sodium and chloride? A. Proximal convoluted tubule B. Descending loop of Henle C. Ascending loop of Henle D. Distal convoluted tubule

B. Descending loop of Henle

In chronic active hepatitis, high titers of which of the following antibodies are seen? A. Antimitochondrial B. Anti-DNA C. Anti-smooth muscle D. Anti-parietal cell

C. Anti-smooth muscle

In primary biliary cirrhosis, which of the following antibodies is seen in high titers? A. Antimitochondrial B. Anti-smooth muscle C. Anti-DNA D. Anti-parietal cell

A. Antimitochondrial

All of the following bacterial cell walls contains mycolic acid, EXCEPT: A. Nocardia B. Rhodococcus C. Streptomyces D. Corynebacterium

C. Streptomyces

A suspension of the test organism for use in broth dilution and disk diffusion testing is adjusted to match the turbidity of a: A. #0.5 McFarland standard B. #1.0 McFarland standard C. #2.0 McFarland standard D. #3.0 McFarland standard

A. #0.5 McFarland standard

McFarland turbidity standard is prepared by mixing _________ to obtain a solution with a specific optical density. A. 1% hydrochloric acid and 1.175% barium chloride B. 2% hydrochoric acid and 2.175% barium chloride C. 1% sulfuric acid and 1.175% barium chloride D. 2% sulfuric acid and 2.175% barium chloride

C. 1% sulfuric acid and 1.175% barium chloride

The steam autoclave method of sterilization: A. Uses 15 lbs of pressure for 15 minutes B. Utilizes dry heat for 20 minutes C. Produces a maximum temperature of 100ºC D. Requires a source of ethylene oxide

A. Uses 15 lbs of pressure for 15 minutes

SAFEST method to ensure that NO INFECTIVE MATERIALS REMAIN in samples or containers when disposed: A. Autoclave B. Incineration C. Pasteurization D. Filtration

B. Incineration

On a Gram stain, these organisms appear as thin, poorly staining gram-negative bacilli. It is better to use 0.1% BASIC FUCHSIN as the counter stain instead of safranin: A. Escherichia coli B. Vibrio cholerae C. Campylobacter coli D. Legionella spp.

D. Legionella spp.

Sulfur granules in a clinical specimen indicate the presence of: A. Clostridium spp. B. Fusobacterium spp. C. Actinomyces spp. D. Peptostreptococcus spp.

C. Actinomyces spp.

When streaking a throat culture on 5% sheep blood agar, stabbing the agar plate provides enhanced detection for: A. Bile solubility B. Bile esculin hydrolysis C. DNase activity D. Streptolysin O E. Streptolysin S

D. Streptolysin O

Which organism exhibits end-over-end tumbling motility when incubated in nutrient broth at room temperature for 1 to 2 hours A. C. diphtheriae B. C. jeikeium C. Arthrobacter sp. D. L. monocytogenes

D. L. monocytogenes

Bartonella quintana has been known to cause: A. Carrion’s disease B. Trench fever C. Cat-scratch disease D. Lyme disease

B. Trench fever

Which organisms are plump coccobacilli that may resist decolorization and may be mistaken for Neisseria spp? A. Acinetobacter spp. B. Bordetella spp. C. Stenotrophomonas sp. D. Burkholderia sp.

A. Acinetobacter spp.

Enterobacteriaceae are typically gram negative and: A. Non–glucose fermenters B. Capable of reducing nitrates to nitrites C. Catalase negative D. Oxidase positive

B. Capable of reducing nitrates to nitrites

Which of the following is the only catalase-negative, gram-positive, non-spore-forming rod that produces H2S on TSI? A. Gardnerella sp. B. Erysipelothrix sp. C. Lactobacillus sp. D. Arcanobacterium sp.

B. Erysipelothrix sp.

Loeffler’s agar slant is a special culture medium used to recover which organism? A. Streptococcus pyogenes B. Corynebacterium diphtheriae C. Bordetella pertussis D. Neisseria meningitidis

B. Corynebacterium diphtheriae

Dark-field microscopy is used for the microscopic examination of what types of bacteria? A. Gram-positive cocci such as Staphylococcus aureus B. Yeast such as Candida tropicalis C. Gram-negative bacilli such as Escherichia coli D. Spirochetes such as Treponema pallidum

D. Spirochetes such as Treponema pallidum

Campylobacter species should be grown at what optimum temperature? A. 25° C B. 37° C C. 42° C D. None of the above

C. 42° C

Which encapsulated type of H. influenzae is most common? A. Type a B. Type b C. Type c D. Type d

B. Type b

The two cations known to influence the activity of aminoglycosides are: A. Sodium and potassium B. Calcium and potassium C. Calcium and magnesium D. Sodium and magnesium

C. Calcium and magnesium

Incubation of which organism at 25°C produces a characteristic yellow pigment? A. Cronobacter (Enterobacter) sakazakii B. Plesiomonas shigelloides C. Enterobacter aerogenes D. Hafnia alvei

A. Cronobacter (Enterobacter) sakazakii

Which of the following lipoproteins is the smallest of all the lipoproteins and is composed of 50% protein? A. HDL B. Chylomicrons C. LDL D. Triglycerides

A. HDL

Which of the following blood samples would serve best to assay lipoproteins because this anticoagulant acts to preserve lipoproteins? A. EDTA plasma sample B. Heparin plasma sample C. Citrate plasma sample D. Fluoride plasma sample

A. EDTA plasma sample

A patient sample is assayed for fasting triglycerides and a triglyceride value of 1036 mg/dL. This value is of immediate concern because of its association with which of the following conditions? A. Coronary heart disease B. Diabetes C. Pancreatitis D. Gout

C. Pancreatitis

Which of the following laboratory tests is the best marker to detect patients with diabetes who are at risk for developing diabetic nephropathy? A. Creatinine B. BUN C. Microalbuminuria test D. Glucose

C. Microalbuminuria test

In which of the following disease states would you see an elevation in total bilirubin and conjugated bilirubin only? A. Biliary obstruction B. Hemolysis C. Neonatal jaundice D. Hepatitis

A. Biliary obstruction

Which of the following liver conditions shows an increase in both conjugated bilirubin and ALP, manifests with anti-mitochondrial antibodies, and shows a characteristic lipoprotein X on electrophoresis? A. Hemochromatosis B. Primary biliary cirrhosis C. Alcoholic fatty liver D. Hepatic tumors

B. Primary biliary cirrhosis

A patient with emphysema who has fluid accumulation in the alveolar sacs (causing decreased ventilation) is likely to be in which of the following acid-base clinical states? A. Respiratory alkalosis B. Respiratory acidosis C. Metabolic acidosis D. Metabolic alkalosis

B. Respiratory acidosis

To maintain electrical neutrality in the red blood cell, bicarbonate leaves the red blood cell and enters the plasma through an exchange mechanism with which of the following? A. TCO2 B. Sodium C. Chloride D. Phosphate

C. Chloride

What is the normal ratio of bicarbonate to dissolved carbon dioxide in arterial blood? A. 1:10 B. 10:1 C. 20:1 D. 1:20

C. 20:1

100

Which of the following blood gas disorders is most commonly associated with an abnormal anion gap? A. Metabolic acidosis B. Metabolic alkalosis C. Respiratory acidosis D. Respiratory alkalosis

A. Metabolic acidosis

other names parasitology

Yves Laure Pimentel · 70問 · 2年前

other names parasitology