SUMMATIVE EXAM #8

100問 • 1年前

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Involved in the dilation and constriction of blood vessels and modulation of inflammation: A. Dopamine B. Acetylcholine C. Prostaglandin D. None of these

C. Prostaglandin

Essential parts of the microtome: A. Block holder B. Knife carrier and knife C. Pawl, ratchet feed wheel and adjustment screws D. All of the these

D. All of the these

Which of the following red cell antigens is fully and strongly expressed on red blood cells from a term neonate? A. I antigen B. K antigen C. A antigen D. Lea antigen E. P1 antigen

B. K antigen

Which of the following antibodies could be identified using a patient specimen collected in a red top tube (plain glass), but may not be identified if a purple top tube (EDTA anticoagulant) was used for the collection? A. Anti-M B. Anti-E C. Anti-Fya D. Anti-Jka E. Anti-D

D. Anti-Jka

Where is most hematopoietic tissue found in adults? A. Liver B. Lungs C. Spleen D. Long bones

D. Long bones

A decreased osmotic fragility test would be associated with which of the following conditions? A. Sickle cell anemia B. Hereditary spherocytosis C. Hemolytic disease of the newborn D. Acquired hemolytic anemia

A. Sickle cell anemia

Which of the following disorders has an increase in osmotic fragility? A. Iron deficiency anemia B. Hereditary elliptocytosis C. Hereditary stomatocytosis D. Hereditary spherocytosis

D. Hereditary spherocytosis

The FIRST step in the determination of functional antithrombin III (AT III) is to: A. Neutralize plasma antithrombin B. Neutralize thrombin with test plasma C. Incubate plasma with anti-AT III D. Precipitate AT III with plasma

B. Neutralize thrombin with test plasma

The z score measures: A. How many standard deviations a particular number is from the right or left of the mean B. The sum of the squared differences from the mean C. The square root of the variance from the mean D. The expression of the position of each test result to the average

A. How many standard deviations a particular number is from the right or left of the mean

Acceptable limits of a control value must fall: A. Within ±1 standard deviation of the mean B. Between 1 and 2 standard deviations of the mean C. Within ±2 standard deviations of the mean D. Within ±3 standard deviations of the mean

C. Within ±2 standard deviations of the mean

The process by which an agency or organization uses predetermined standards to evaluate and recognize a program of study in an institution is called: A. Regulation B. Licensure C. Accreditation D. Credentialing

C. Accreditation

General term for the formal recognition of professional or technical competence is: A. Regulation B. Licensure C. Accreditation D. Credentialing

D. Credentialing

Test precision is verified by: A. Comparing results from analyzing the same specimens on multiple analyzers over time B. Repeat measurements of samples of multiple concentrations within run and between runs performed over a period of time C. Comparing results to a definitive or reference method for the same analyte D. Comparing results of multiple specimens analyzed by multiple individuals and multiple instruments

A. Comparing results from analyzing the same specimens on multiple analyzers over time

What is the first step that should be taken in response to an out-of-control condition? A. Repeat testing of patient specimens since the previous in control situation B. Periodically review mean, SD and CV to ensure an appropriate target value and SD are used C. Review performance of proficiency testing D. Discontinue patient testing/reporting

The results of "out-of-control" runs should not generally be reported.

Upon completion of a run of cholesterol tests, the technician recognizes that the controls are not within the 2 standard deviations confidence range. What is the appropriate course of action? A. Report the results without any other action B. Run a new set of controls C. Run a new set of controls and repeat specimens D. Recalibrate instrument and run controls

C. Run a new set of controls and repeat specimens

The first procedure to be followed if the blood gas instrument is out-of-control for all parameters is: A. Recalibrate, then repeat control B. Repeat control on the next shift C. Replace electrodes, then repeat control D. Report patient results after duplicate testing

A. Recalibrate, then repeat control

In most circumstances, when two controls within a run are both greater than ±2s from the mean, what action should be taken first? A. Recalibrate, then repeat controls followed by selected patient samples if quality control is acceptable B. Repeat the controls before taking any corrective action C. Change the reagent lot, then recalibrate D. Prepare fresh standards and recalibrate

A. Recalibrate, then repeat controls followed by selected patient samples if quality control is acceptable

Which of the following plots is best for detecting all types of QC errors? A. Levy–Jennings B. Tonks–Youden C. Cusum D. Linear regression

A. Levy–Jennings

Which of the following plots is best for comparison of precision and accuracy among laboratories? A. Levy–Jennings B. Tonks–Youden C. Cusum D. Linear regression

B. Tonks–Youden

Which plot will give the earliest indication of a shift or trend? A. Levy–Jennings B. Tonks–Youden C. Cusum D. Histogram

C. Cusum

Gloves worn in the laboratory for specimen processing must be removed and hands washed when: A. Answering the telephone in the technical work area B. Carrying a specimen outside the technical work area through "clean" areas C. Answering the telephone in a designated "clean" area D. After handling specimens from known isolation precaution patients

C. Answering the telephone in a designated "clean" area

Staphylococcus aureus: A. BSL-1 B. BSL-2 C. BSL-3 D. BSL-4

B. BSL-2

Which of the following bacteria should be considered important pathogens when reading gram-stained smears of soft tissue abscess? A. Streptococcus pneumoniae B. Neisseria gonorrhoeae C. Pseudomonas aeruginosa D. Staphylococcus aureus

D. Staphylococcus aureus

The organism most commonly associated with otitis media infections is associated with which of the following positive test results? A. Coagulase B. VP C. Optochin D. Bacitracin

C. Optochin

Which of the following is the most sensitive method for the diagnosis of Chlamydia trachomatis? A. Cytology B. Culture C. Nucleic acid amplification D. Serologic testing

C. Nucleic acid amplification

Which of the following are appropriate Ascaris lumbricoides prevention and control strategies? A. Proper water treatment B. Appropriate food handling C. Use of insect repellent D. Proper sanitation practices

D. Proper sanitation practices

Ratio of stool specimen to preservative: A. One volume of the stool specimen to one volume of the preservative B. One volume of the stool specimen to two volumes of the preservative C. One volume of the stool specimen to three volumes of the preservative D. Any of these

C. One volume of the stool specimen to three volumes of the preservative

The expected blood gas results for a patient in chronic renal failure would match the pattern of: A. Metabolic acidosis B. Respiratory acidosis C. Metabolic alkalosis D. Respiratory alkalosis

A. Metabolic acidosis

Severe diarrhea causes: A. Metabolic acidosis B. Metabolic alkalosis C. Respiratory acidosis D. Respiratory alkalosis

A. Metabolic acidosis

In salicylate overdose, what is the first acid-base disturbance present? A. Metabolic acidosis B. Metabolic alkalosis C. Respiratory acidosis D. Respiratory alkalosis

D. Respiratory alkalosis

In the urinalysis laboratory the primary source in the chain of infection would be: A. Patients B. Needlesticks C. Specimens D. Biohazardous waste

C. Specimens

Proper handwashing includes all of the following except: A. Using warm water B. Rubbing to create a lather C. Rinsing hands in a downward position D. Turning on the water with a paper towel

D. Turning on the water with a paper towel

Centrifuging an uncapped specimen may produce a biological hazard in the form of: A. Vectors B. Sharps contamination C. Aerosols D. Specimen contamination

C. Aerosols

A technologist splashed a corrosive chemical in his/her eyes. To prevent permanent injury, the first action should be to: A. Bandage the eyes and seek immediate emergency medical assistance B. Flush eyes with a chemical of opposite pH to neutralize the injury C. Use the eyewash station to flush eyes with water for 15 minutes D. Seek immediate emergency medical assistance

C. Use the eyewash station to flush eyes with water for 15 minutes

An employee who accidently spills acid on his arm should immediately: A. Neutralize the acid with a base B. Hold the arm under running water for 15 minutes C. Consult the MSDSs D. Wrap the arm in gauze and go to the emergency room

B. Hold the arm under running water for 15 minutes

The first step to be taken when attempting to repair a piece of electronic equipment is: A. Check all the electronic connections B. Reset all the printed circuit boards C. Turn the instrument off D. Replace all the fuses

C. Turn the instrument off

All of the following are safe to do when removing the source of an electric shock except: A. Pulling the person away from the instrument B. Turning off the circuit breaker C. Using a glass container to move the instrument D. Unplugging the instrument

A. Pulling the person away from the instrument

More than 66% of filtered water, sodium, and chloride and 100% of filtered glucose, amino acids, and proteins are reabsorbed in the: A. Collecting tubules B. Distal tubules C. Loops of Henle D. Proximal tubules

D. Proximal tubules

Water reabsorption occurs throughout the nephron except in the: A. Cortical collecting tubules B. Proximal convoluted tubules C. Ascending limb of the loops of Henle D. Descending limb of the loops of Henle

C. Ascending limb of the loops of Henle

The final concentration of the urine is determined within the: A. Collecting ducts B. Distal convoluted tubules C. Loops of Henle D. Proximal convoluted tubules

A. Collecting ducts

The primary chemical constituents of normal urine are: A. Protein, sodium, and water B. Urea, water, and protein C. Urea, chloride, and water D. Urea, bilirubin, and glucose

C. Urea, chloride, and water

Which renal function is assessed using specific gravity and osmolality measurements? A. Concentrating ability B. Glomerular filtration ability C. Tubular excretion ability D. Tubular secretion ability

A. Concentrating ability

A specimen containing precipitated amorphous urates may have been preserved using: A. Boric acid B. Chloroform C. Formalin D. Refrigeration

D. Refrigeration

For best preservation of urinary sediments, the preservatives of choice are: A. Boric acid and thymol B. Formalin and sodium fluoride C. Toluene and freezing D. Chloroform and refrigeration

A. Boric acid and thymol

Persons taking diuretics can be expected to produce: A. Oliguria B. Polyuria C. Proteinuria D. Pyuria

B. Polyuria

A person exhibiting oliguria would have a daily urine volume of: A. 200–400 mL B. 600–1000 mL C. 1000–1500 mL D. Over 1500 mL

A. 200–400 mL

Specimens from patients receiving treatment for urinary tract infections frequently appear: A. Clear and red B. Viscous and orange C. Dilute and pale yellow D. Cloudy and red

B. Viscous and orange

Urine clarity grading: “few particulates, print easily seen through urine” A. Clear B. Hazy C. Cloudy D. Turbid

B. Hazy

The clarity of a well-mixed urine specimen that has visible particulate matter and through which newsprint can be seen but not read should be described as: A. Cloudy B. Flocculated C. Slightly cloudy D. Turbid

A. Cloudy

Refractive index compares: A. Light velocity in solutions with light velocity in solids B. Light velocity in air with light velocity in solutions C. Light scattering by air with light scattering by solutions D. Light scattering by particles in solution

B. Light velocity in air with light velocity in solutions

The reading of distilled water by the refractometer is 1.003. You should: A. Subtract 1.003 from each specimen reading B. Add 1.003 to each specimen reading C. Use a new refractometer D. Adjust the set screw

D. Adjust the set screw

A strong odor of ammonia in a urine specimen could indicate: A. Ketones B. Normal C. Phenylketonuria D. Urinary tract infection

D. Urinary tract infection 310. Bence Jones protein coagul

Bence Jones protein coagulates at _______ and dissolve at ________. A. 40 to 60oC; 100oC B. 60 to 80oC; 100oCC. 100o C; 40 to 60oC D. 100oC; 60 to 80oC

A. 40 to 60oC; 100oC

1+ in Benedict’s test: A. Blue B. Green C. Orange D. Yellow

B. Green

All are components of the Clinitest tablets, EXCEPT: A. Copper sulfate B. Lactose C. Sodium carbonate D. Sodium hydroxide

B. Lactose

Component of the Acetest tablet: A. Copper sulfate B. Lactose C. Sodium carbonate D. Sodium hydroxide

B. Lactose

Leaving a reagent strip in the specimen for too long will: A. Cause runover between reagent pads B. Alter the color of the specimen C. Cause reagents to leach from the pads D. Not affect the chemical reactions

C. Cause reagents to leach from the pads

Leaving excess urine on the reagent strip after removing it from the specimen will: A. Cause run-over between reagent pads B. Alter the color of the specimen C. Cause reagents to leach from the pads D. Not affect the chemical reactions

A. Cause run-over between reagent pads

Failure to mix a specimen prior to inserting the reagent strip will primarily affect the: A. Glucose reading B. Blood reading C. Nitrite reading D. pH reading

B. Blood reading

Failure to mix a specimen before inserting the reagent strip will primarily affect the: A. Glucose reading B. Blood reading C. Leukocyte reading D. Both B and C

D. Both B and C

Timing of reagent strip readings is especially critical for: A. Diazo compound formation B. Dye-binding reactions C. Enzymatic reactions D. Protein error of indicators

C. Enzymatic reactions

The principle of “protein error of indicators” is based on: A. Protein changing the pH of the specimen B. Protein changing the pKa of the specimen C. Protein accepting hydrogen from the indicator D. Protein giving up hydrogen to the indicator

C. Protein accepting hydrogen from the indicator

All of the following are true for the Micral-Test for microalbumin except: A. It is run on first morning specimens B. It contains an antibody-enzyme conjugate C. Two blue bands are formed on the strip D. Unbound antibody attaches to immobilized albumin

C. Two blue bands are formed on the strip

Purple colors are observed in the positive reactions for: A. Blood and glucose B. Ketone and leukocytes C. Bilirubin and urobilinogen D. Protein and nitrite

B. Ketone and leukocytes

The primary reagent in the reagent strip test for ketones is: A. Glycine B. Lactose C. Sodium hydroxide D. Sodium nitroprusside

D. Sodium nitroprusside

An elevated urine bilirubin with a normal urobilinogen is indicative of: A. Cirrhosis of the liver B. Hemolytic disease C. Hepatitis D. Biliary obstruction

D. Biliary obstruction

Purple colors are observed in the positive reactions for: A. Blood and glucose B. Ketone and leukocytes C. Bilirubin and urobilinogen D. Protein and nitrite

B. Ketone and leukocytes

When using the glass slide and coverslip method, which of the following might be missed if the coverslip is overflowed? A. Casts B. RBCs C. WBCs D. Bacteria

A. Casts

Differentiation among RBCs, yeast, and oil droplets may be accomplished by all of the following except: A. Observation of budding in yeast cells B. Increased refractility of oil droplets C. Lysis of yeast cells by acetic acid D. Lysis of RBCs by acetic acid

C. Lysis of yeast cells by acetic acid

Mononuclear leukocytes are sometimes mistaken for: A. Yeast cells B. Squamous epithelial cells C. Pollen grains D. Renal tubular cells

D. Renal tubular cells

Mononuclear leukocytes are sometimes mistaken for: A. Yeast cells B. Squamous epithelial cells C. Pollen grains D. Renal tubular cells

D. Renal tubular cells

Transitional epithelial cells are sloughed from the: A. Collecting duct B. Vagina C. Bladder D. Proximal convoluted tubule

C. Bladder

The largest cells in the urine sediment are: A. Squamous epithelial cells B. Urothelial epithelial cells C. Cuboidal epithelial cells D. Columnar epithelial cells

A. Squamous epithelial cells

Forms of transitional epithelial cells include all of the following except: A. Spherical B. Caudate C. Convoluted D. Polyhedral

C. Convoluted

A primary characteristic used to identify renal tubular epithelial cells is: A. Elongated structure B. Centrally located nucleus C. Spherical appearance D. Eccentrically located nucleus

D. Eccentrically located nucleus

Following an episode of hemoglobinuria, RTE cells may contain: A. Bilirubin B. Hemosiderin granules C. Porphobilinogen D. Myoglobin

B. Hemosiderin granules

The primary component of urinary mucus is: A. Bence Jones protein B. Microalbumin C. Tamm-Horsfall protein D. Orthostatic protein

C. Tamm-Horsfall protein

The shape of the RTE cell associated with renal tubular epithelial casts is primarily: A. Elongated B. Cuboidal C. Round D. Columnar

C. Round

In what part of the nephron does cast formation NOT take place? A. Collecting tubules B. Distal convoluted tubule C. Distal portion in loop of Henle D. Proximal convoluted tubule

D. Proximal convoluted tubule

The observation of broad casts represents: A. Destruction of tubular walls B. Dehydration and high fever C. Formation in the collecting ducts D. Both A and C

D. Both A and C

Broad and waxy casts are most likely associated with: A. Nephrotic syndrome B. Chronic renal failure C. Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis D. Acute renal failure

B. Chronic renal failure

All of the following contribute to the formation of urinary crystals except: A. Protein concentration B. pH C. Solute concentration D. Temperature

A. Protein concentration

All of the following crystals routinely polarize except: A. Uric acid B. Cholesterol C. Radiographic dye D. Cystine

D. Cystine

A complete deficiency of hypoxanthine guanine phosphoribosyltransferase results in which disease? A. Lesch-Nyhan syndrome B. Modification of diet in renal disease C. Maple syrup urine disease D. Reye’s syndrome E. Megaloblastic anemia

A. Lesch-Nyhan syndrome

Many uric acid crystals in a pediatric urine specimen may indicate: A. Hurler syndrome B. Lesch-Nyhan disease C. Melituria D. Sanfilippo syndrome

B. Lesch-Nyhan disease

Highly refractile spheres, usually with a dimpled center: A. Hair fibers B. Oil droplets C. Pollen grains D. Starch granules

D. Starch granules

The CSF flows through the: A. Choroid plexus B. Pia mater C. Arachnoid space D. Dura mater

C. Arachnoid space

All of the following proteins are normally present in the CSF except: A. Albumin B. Fibrinogen C. Transthyretin D. Transferrin

B. Fibrinogen

The preferred method of performing differential cell counts on body fluids uses: A. An automated cell counter B. Concentration of the specimen by sedimentation C. Stain added to the hemocytometer count D. Cytocentrifugation of the specimen

D. Cytocentrifugation of the specimen

The purpose of adding albumin to CSF before cytocentrifugation is to: A. Increase the cell yield B. Decrease the cellular distortion C. Improve the cellular staining D. Both A and B

D. Both A and B

A patient with a blood glucose of 120 mg/dL would have a normal CSF glucose of: A. 20 mg/dL B. 60 mg/dL C. 80 mg/dL D. 120 mg/dL

C. 80 mg/dL

Prior to performing a Gram stain on CSF, the specimen must be: A. Filtered B. Warmed to 37C C. Centrifuged D. Mixed

C. Centrifuged

Reasons for analyzing amniotic fluid include the following EXCEPT: A. To diagnose genetic and congenital neural tube disorders B. To assess fetal liver maturity C. To assess fetal lung maturity D. To detect fetal distress from hemolytic disease of the newborn

B. To assess fetal liver maturity

The following is true about amniotic fluid specimen collection and handling: A. Fifty milliliters of amniotic fluid is typically collected B. Glass containers are used for cytogenetic studies C. Typical amniotic fluid is colorless to pale yellow and slightly cloudy D. Amniotic fluid is always refrigerated

C. Typical amniotic fluid is colorless to pale yellow and slightly cloudy

The Fern test: A. Distinguishes amniotic fluid from maternal urine B. Is run on the spectrophotometer C. Is a wet mount D. All of these

A. Distinguishes amniotic fluid from maternal urine

The most common cause of death in the premature newborn: A. Hemolytic disease of the newborn B. Neural tube defects C. Respiratory distress syndrome D. Excess lamellar bodies

C. Respiratory distress syndrome

All of these phospholipids have a role in fetal lung maturity EXCEPT: A. Lecithin B. Sphingomyelin C. Phosphatidylglycerol D. Lamellar bodies

B. Sphingomyelin

Enzymes for the coagulation and liquefaction of semen are produced by the: A. Seminal vesicles B. Bulbourethral glands C. Ductus deferens D. Prostate gland

D. Prostate gland

The major component of seminal fluid is: A. Glucose B. Fructose C. Acid phosphatase D. Citric acid

B. Fructose

100

Failure of laboratory personnel to document the time a semen sample is collected primarily affects the interpretation of semen: A. Appearance B. Volume C. pH D. Viscosity

D. Viscosity

other names parasitology

Yves Laure Pimentel · 70問 · 2年前

other names parasitology