AUBF- STRASINGER

93問 • 1年前

問題一覧

Place the appropriate letter in front of the following statements describing transudates and exudates. A. Transudate B. Exudate Malignancy related

B. Exudate

Place the appropriate letter in front of the following statements describing transudates and exudates. A. Transudate B. Exudate Caused by increased capillary permeability

A. Transudate

Place the appropriate letter in front of the following statements describing transudates and exudates. A. Transudate B. Exudate Caused by decreased oncotic pressure

A. Transudate

Place the appropriate letter in front of the following statements describing transudates and exudates. A. Transudate B. Exudate Caused by decreased oncotic pressure

A. Transudate

Place the appropriate letter in front of the following statements describing transudates and exudates. A. Transudate B. Exudate Caused by congestive heart failure

A. Transudate

Place the appropriate letter in front of the following statements describing transudates and exudates. A. Transudate B. Exudate Tuberculosis related

A. Transudate

Place the appropriate letter in front of the following statements describing transudates and exudates. A. Transudate B. Exudate Clear appearance

A. Transudate

Fluid:serum protein and lactic dehydrogenase ratios are performed on serous fluids: A. When malignancy is suspected B. To classify transudates and exudates C. To determine the type of serous fluid D. When a traumatic tap has occurred

B. To classify transudates and exudates

Which of the following requires the most additional testing? A. Transudate B. Exudate

B. Exudate

An additional test performed on pleural fluid to classify the fluid as a transudate or exudate is the: A. WBC count B. RBC count C. Fluid:cholesterol ratio D. Fluid-to-serum protein gradient

C. Fluid:cholesterol ratio

A milky-appearing pleural fluid indicates: A. Thoracic duct leakage B. Chronic inflammation C. Microbial infection D. Both A and B

D. Both A and B

Which of the following best represents a hemothorax? A. Blood HCT: 42 Fluid HCT: 15 B. Blood HCT: 42 Fluid HCT: 10 C. Blood HCT: 30 Fluid HCT: 10 D. Blood HCT: 30 Fluid HCT: 20

D. Blood HCT: 30 Fluid HCT: 20

All of the following are normal cells seen in pleural fluid except: A. Mesothelial cells B. Neutrophils C. Lymphocytes D. Mesothelioma cells

D. Mesothelioma cells

A differential observation of pleural fluid associated with tuberculosis is: A. Increased neutrophils B. Decreased lymphocytes C. Decreased mesothelial cells D. Increased mesothelial cells

C. Decreased mesothelial cells

of the following are characteristics of malignant cells except: A. Cytoplasmic molding B. Absence of nucleoli C. Mucin-containing vacuoles D. Increased nucleus:cytoplasm ratio

B. Absence of nucleoli

A pleural fluid pH of 6.0 indicates: A. Esophageal rupture B. Mesothelioma C. Malignancy D. Rheumatoid effusion

A. Esophageal rupture

Plasma cells seen in pleural fluid indicate: A. Bacterial endocarditis B. Primary malignancy C. Metastatic lung malignancy D. Tuberculosis infection

D. Tuberculosis infection

A significant cell found in pericardial or pleural fluid that should be referred to cytology is a: A. Reactive lymphocyte B. Mesothelioma cell C. Monocyte D. Mesothelial cell

D. Mesothelial cell

Another name for a peritoneal effusion is: A. Peritonitis B. Lavage C. Ascites D. Cirrhosis

C. Ascites

A test performed primarily on peritoneal lavage fluid is a/an: A. WBC count B. RBC count C. Absolute neutrophil count D. Amylase

B. RBC count

The recommended test for determining whether peritoneal fluid is a transudate or an exudate is the: A. Fluid:serum albumin ratio B. Serum ascites albumin gradient C. Fluid:serum lactic dehydrogenase ratio D. Absolute neutrophil count

B. Serum ascites albumin gradient

Given the following results, classify this peritoneal fluid: serum albumin, 2.2 g/dL; serum protein, 6.0 g/dL; fluid albumin, 1.6 g/dL. A. Transudate B. Exudate

B. Exudate

Differentiation between bacterial peritonitis and cirrhosis is done by performing a/an: A. WBC count B. Differential C. Absolute neutrophil count D. Absolute lymphocyte count

C. Absolute neutrophil count

Detection of the CA 125 tumor marker in peritoneal fluid indicates: A. Colon cancer B. Ovarian cancer C. Gastric malignancy D. Prostate cancer

B. Ovarian cancer

Chemical tests primarily performed on peritoneal fluid include all of the following except: A. Lactose dehydrogenase B. Glucose C. Alkaline phosphatase D. Amylase

D. Amylase

Cultures of peritoneal fluid are incubated: A. Aerobically B. Anaerobically C. At 37°C and 42°C D. Both A and B

D. Both A and B

Which of the following is not a function of amniotic fluid? A. Allows movement of the fetus B. Allows carbon dioxide and oxygen exchange C. Protects fetus from extreme temperature changes D. Acts as a protective cushion for the fetus

B. Allows carbon dioxide and oxygen exchange

What is the primary cause of the normal increase in amniotic fluid as a pregnancy progresses? A. Fetal cell metabolism B. Fetal swallowing C. Fetal urine D. Transfer of water across the placenta

C. Fetal urine

Which of the following is not a reason for decreased amounts of amniotic fluid? A. Fetal failure to begin swallowing B. Increased fetal swallowing C. Membrane leakage D. Urinary tract defects

A. Fetal failure to begin swallowing

Why might a creatinine level be requested on an amniotic fluid? A. Detect oligohydramnios B. Detect polyhydramnios C. Differentiate amniotic fluid from

C. Differentiate amniotic fluid from maternal urine

Amniotic fluid specimens are placed in amber-colored tubes prior to sending them to the laboratory to prevent the destruction of: A. Alpha-fetoprotein B. Bilirubin C. Cells for cytogenetics D. Lecithin

B. Bilirubin

How are specimens for FLM testing delivered to and stored in the laboratory? A. Delivered on ice and refrigerated B. Immediately centrifuged C. Kept at room temperature D. Delivered in a vacuum tube

A. Delivered on ice and refrigerated

Why are amniotic specimens for cytogenetic analysis incubated at 37°C prior to analysis? A. To detect the presence of meconium B. To differentiate amniotic fluid from urine C. To prevent photo-oxidation of bilirubin to biliverdin D. To prolong fetal cell viability and integrity

D. To prolong fetal cell viability and integrity

Match the following colors in amniotic fluid with their significance. 1. Fetal death 2. Normal 3. Presence of bilirubin 4. Presence of meconium A. Colorless

2. Normal

Match the following colors in amniotic fluid with their significance. 1. Fetal death 2. Normal 3. Presence of bilirubin 4. Presence of meconium B. Dark green

4. Presence of meconium

Match the following colors in amniotic fluid with their significance. 1. Fetal death 2. Normal 3. Presence of bilirubin 4. Presence of meconium C. Red-brown

1. Fetal death

Match the following colors in amniotic fluid with their significance. 1. Fetal death 2. Normal 3. Presence of bilirubin 4. Presence of meconium D. Yellow

3. Presence of bilirubin

A significant rise in the OD of amniotic fluid at 450 nm indicates the presence of which analyte? A. Bilirubin B. Lecithin C. Oxyhemoglobin

A. Bilirubin

Plotting the amniotic fluid OD on a Liley graph represents the severity of hemolytic disease of the newborn. A value that is plotted in zone II indicates what condition of the fetus? A. No hemolysis B. Mildly affected fetus C. Moderately affected fetus that requires close monitoring D. Severely affected fetus that requires intervention

C. Moderately affected fetus that requires close monitoring

The presence of a fetal neural tube disorder may be detected by: A. Increased amniotic fluid bilirubin B. Increased maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein C. Decreased amniotic fluid phosphatidyl glycerol D. Decreased maternal serum acetylcholinesterase

B. Increased maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein

True or False: An AFP MoM value greater than two times the median value is considered an indication of a neural tube disorder.

TRUE

When severe HDN is present, which of the following tests on the amniotic fluid would the physician not order to determine whether the fetal lungs are mature enough to withstand a premature delivery? A. AFP levels B. Foam stability index C. Lecithin/sphingomyelin ratio D. Phosphatidyl glycerol detection

A. AFP levels

True or False: Prior to 35 weeks’ gestation, the normal L/S ratio is less than 1.6.

TRUE

When performing an L/S ratio by thin-layer chromatography, a mature fetal lung will show: A. Sphingomyelin twice as concentrated as lecithin B. No sphingomyelin C. Lecithin twice as concentrated as sphingomyelin D. Equal concentrations of lecithin and sphingomyelin

C. Lecithin twice as concentrated as sphingomyelin

True or False: Phosphatidyl glycerol is present with an L/S ratio of 1.1.

TRUE

A rapid immunologic test for FLM that does not require performance of thin-layer chromatography is: A. AFP levels B. Amniotic acetylcholinesterase C. Aminostat-FLM D. Bilirubin scan

C. Aminostat-FLM

Does the failure to produce bubbles in the Foam Stability Index indicate increased or decreased lecithin? A. Increased B. Decreased

B. Decreased

The presence of phosphatidyl glycerol in amniotic fluid fetal lung maturity tests must be confirmed when: A. Hemolytic disease of the newborn is present B. The mother has maternal diabetes C. Amniotic fluid is contaminated by hemoglobin D. Neural tube disorder is suspected

B. The mother has maternal diabetes

A lamellar body count of 50,000 correlates with: A. Absent phosphatidyl glycerol and L/S ratio of 1.0 B. L/S ratio of 1.5 and absent phosphatidyl glycerol C. OD at 650 nm of 1.010 and an L/S ratio of 1.1 D. OD at 650 nm of 0.150 and an L/S ratio of 2.0

D. OD at 650 nm of 0.150 and an L/S ratio of 2.0

In what part of the digestive tract do pancreatic enzymes and bile salts contribute to digestion? A. Large intestine B. Liver C. Small intestine D. Stomach

C. Small intestine

Where does the reabsorption of water take place in the primary digestive process? A. Large intestine B. Pancreas C. Small intestine D. Stomach

A. Large intestine

Which of the following tests is not performed to detect osmotic diarrhea? A. Clinitest B. Fecal fats C. Fecal neutrophils D. Muscle fibers

C. Fecal neutrophils

The normal composition of feces includes all of the following except: A. Bacteria B. Blood C. Electrolytes D. Water

B. Blood

What is the fecal test that requires a 3-day specimen? A. Fecal occult blood B. APT test C. Elastase I D. Quantitative fecal fat testing

D. Quantitative fecal fat testing

The normal brown color of the feces is produced by: A. Cellulose B. Pancreatic enzymes C. Undigested foodstuffs D. Urobilin

D. Urobilin

Diarrhea can result from all of the following except: A. Addition of pathogenic organisms to the normal intestinal flora B. Disruption of the normal intestinal bacterial flora C. Increased concentration of fecal electrolytes D. Increased reabsorption of intestinal water and electrolytes

D. Increased reabsorption of intestinal water and electrolytes

Stools from persons with steatorrhea will contain excess amounts of: A. Barium sulfate B. Blood C. Fat D. Mucus

C. Fat

Which of the following pairings of stool appearance and cause does not match? A. Black, tarry: blood B. Pale, frothy: steatorrhea C. Yellow-gray: bile duct obstruction D. Yellow-green: barium sulfate

D. Yellow-green: barium sulfate

Stool specimens that appear ribbon-like are indicative of which condition? A. Bile-duct obstruction B. Colitis C. Intestinal constriction D. Malignancy

C. Intestinal constriction

A black tarry stool is indicative of: A. Upper GI bleeding B. Lower GI bleeding C. Excess fat D. Excess carbohydrates

A. Upper GI bleeding

Chemical screening tests performed on feces include all of the following except: A. APT test B. Clinitest C. Pilocarpine iontophoresis D. Quantitative fecal fats

C. Pilocarpine iontophoresis

Secretory diarrhea is caused by: A. Antibiotic administration B. Lactose intolerance C. Celiac sprue D. Vibrio cholerae

D. Vibrio cholerae

The fecal osmotic gap is elevated in which disorder? A. Dumping syndrome B. Osmotic diarrhea C. Secretory diarrhea D. Steatorrhea

B. Osmotic diarrhea

Microscopic examination of stools provides preliminary information as to the cause of diarrhea because: A. Neutrophils are present in conditions caused by toxin-producing bacteria B. Neutrophils are present in conditions that affect the intestinal wall C. Red and white blood cells are present if the cause is bacterial D. Neutrophils are present if the condition is of nonbacterial etiology

B. Neutrophils are present in conditions that affect the intestinal wall

True or False: The presence of fecal neutrophils would be expected with diarrhea caused by a rotavirus.

FALSE

Large orange-red droplets seen on direct microscopic examination of stools mixed with Sudan III represent: A. Cholesterol B. Fatty acids C. Neutral fats D. Soaps

C. Neutral fats

Microscopic examination of stools mixed with Sudan III and glacial acetic acid and then heated will show small orange-red droplets that represent: A. Fatty acids and soaps B. Fatty acids and neutral fats C. Fatty acids, soaps, and neutral fats

C. Fatty acids, soaps, and neutral fats

When performing a microscopic stool examination for muscle fibers, the structures that should be counted: A. Are coiled and stain blue B. Contain no visible striations C. Have two-dimensional striations D. Have vertical striations and stain red

C. Have two-dimensional striations

A value of 85% fat retention would indicate: A. Dumping syndrome B. Osmotic diarrhea C. Secretory diarrhea D. Steatorrhea

D. Steatorrhea

Which of the following tests would not be indicative of steatorrhea? A. Fecal elastase-I B. Fecal occult blood C. Sudan III

B. Fecal occult blood

The term “occult” blood describes blood that: A. Is produced in the lower GI tract B. Is produced in the upper GI tract C. Is not visibly apparent in the stool specimen D. Produces a black, tarry stool

C. Is not visibly apparent in the stool specimen

What is the recommended number of samples that should be tested to confirm a negative occult blood result? A. One random specimen B. Two samples taken from different parts of three stools C. Three samples taken from the outermost portion of the stool D. Three samples taken from different parts of two stools

B. Two samples taken from different parts of three stools

The immunochemical tests for occult blood: A. Test for human globulin B. Give false-positive reactions with meat hemoglobin C. Can give false-positive reactions with aspirin D. Are inhibited by porphyrin

A. Test for human globulin

Guaiac tests for detecting occult blood rely on the: A. Reaction of hemoglobin with hydrogen peroxide B. Pseudoperoxidase activity of hemoglobin C. Reaction of hemoglobin with ortho-toluidine D. Pseudoperoxidase activity of hydrogen peroxide

B. Pseudoperoxidase activity of hemoglobin

What is the significance of an APT test that remains pink after addition of sodium hydroxide? A. Fecal fat is present. B. Fetal hemoglobin is present. C. Fecal trypsin is present. D. Vitamin C is present.

B. Fetal hemoglobin is present

In the Van de Kamer method for quantitative fecal fat determinations, fecal lipids are: A. Converted to fatty acids prior to titrating with sodium hydroxide B. Homogenized and titrated to a neutral endpoint with sodium hydroxide C. Measured gravimetrically after washing D. Measured by spectrophotometer after addition of Sudan III

A. Converted to fatty acids prior to titrating with

A patient whose stool exhibits increased fats, undigested muscle fibers, and the inability to digest gelatin may have: A. Bacterial dysentery B. A duodenal ulcer C. Cystic fibrosis D. Lactose intolerance

C. Cystic fibrosis

A stool specimen collected from an infant with diarrhea has a pH of 5.0. This result correlates with a: A. Positive APT test B. Negative trypsin test C. Positive Clinitest D. Negative occult blood test

C. Positive Clinitest

Which of the following tests differentiates a malabsorption cause from a maldigestion cause in steatorrhea? A. APT test B. D-xylose test C. Lactose tolerance test D. Occult blood test

B. D-xylose test

Which of the following would not be a reason to collect a vaginal fluid for analysis? A. Vaginitis B. Complications of pregnancy resulting in preterm delivery C. Forensic testing in a sexual assault D. Pregnancy testing

D. Pregnancy testing

Which of the following organisms might not be detected if the specimen for vaginal secretion analysis had been refrigerated? A. Prevotella bivia B. Lactobacillus acidophilus C. Trichomonas vaginalis D. Candida albicans

B. Lactobacillus acidophilus

The appearance of the vaginal discharge in vulvovaginal candidiasis is described as: A. Clear and colorless B. Thin, homogeneous white-to-gray discharge C. White, curd-like D. Yellow-green and frothy

C. White, curd-like

A normal range for a vaginal pH is: A. 3.8 to 4.5 B. 5.0 to 6.0 C. 6.0 to 7.0 D. 7.0 to 7.4

A. 3.8 to 4.5

Which of the following tests differentiates budding yeast cells from RBCs? A. pH B. Saline wet mount C. KOH prep D. Whiff test

C. KOH prep

Which of the following constituents is normal in healthy vaginal fluid secretions? A. Lactobacilli B. Basal cells C. Trichomonas vaginalis D. Pseudohyphae

A. Lactobacilli

Vaginal specimens collected for a saline wet prep should be: A. Refrigerated to preserve motility B. Prepared as soon as possible C. Mailed to a reference laboratory D. Preserved with potassium hydroxide

B. Prepared as soon as possible

A positive amine (Whiff) test is observed in which of the following syndromes? A. Bacterial vaginosis B. Vulvovaginal candidiasis C. Atrophic vaginitis D. Desquamative inflammatory vaginitis

A. Bacterial vaginosis

A squamous epithelial cell covered with coccobacilli that extends beyond the cytoplasm margin is a: A. Basal cell B. Parabasal cell C. Clue cell d. Blastospore

C. Clue cell

All of the following are diagnostic of bacterial vaginosis except: A. Vaginal pH of 3.8 B. Presence of clue cells C. Positive amine (Whiff) test D. Thin, homogeneous white-to-gray vaginal discharge

A. Vaginal pH of 3.8

Which of the following organisms produces lactic acid and hydrogen peroxide to maintain an acid vaginal environment? A. Gardnerella vaginalis B. Mobiluncus spp. C. Lactobacilli spp. D. b -Hemolytic streptococci

C. Lactobacilli spp.

All of the following are diagnostic of vulvovaginal candidiasis except: A. Large numbers of WBCs B. Presence of clue cells C. Positive KOH test D. Vaginal pH of 4.0

B. Presence of clue cells

All of the following are diagnostic of trichomoniasis except: A. Vaginal pH of 6.0 B. Positive amine test C. Positive KOH test D. Motile trichomonads present

C. Positive KOH test

The bacteria associated with desquamative inflammatory vaginitis is: A. b -Hemolytic streptococci B. Trichomonas vaginalis C. Gardnerella vaginalis

A. b -Hemolytic streptococci

other names parasitology

Yves Laure Pimentel · 70問 · 2年前

other names parasitology