CLINICAL CHEMISTRY HARR

100問 • 1年前

問題一覧

Which of the following will shift the O2 dissociation curve to the left? A. Anemia B. Hyperthermia C. Hypercapnia D. Alkalosis

D. Alkalosis

In which circumstance will the reporting of calculated oxygen saturation of hemoglobin based on PO2, PCO2, pH, temperature, and hemoglobin be in error? A. Carbon monoxide poisoning B. Diabetic ketoacidosis C. Patient receiving oxygen therapy D. Assisted ventilation for respiratory failure

A. Carbon monoxide poisoning

Which would be consistent with partially compensated respiratory acidosis?

Which condition results in metabolic acidosis with severe hypokalemia and chronic alkaline urine? A. Diabetic ketoacidosis B. Phenformin-induced acidosis C. Renal tubular acidosis D. Acidosis caused by starvation

C. Renal tubular acidosis

Which of the following mechanisms is responsible for metabolic acidosis? A. Bicarbonate deficiency B. Excessive retention of dissolved CO2 C. Accumulation of volatile acids D. Hyperaldosteronism

A. Bicarbonate deficiency

Which of the following disorders is associated with lactate acidosis? A. Diarrhea B. Renal tubular acidosis C. Hypoaldosteronism D. Alcoholism

D. Alcoholism

Which of the following is the primary mechanism of compensation for metabolic acidosis? A. Hyperventilation B. Release of epinephrine C. Aldosterone release D. Bicarbonate excretion

A. Hyperventilation

The following conditions are all causes of alkalosis. Which condition is associated with respiratory (rather than metabolic) alkalosis? A. Anxiety B. Hypovolemia C. Hyperaldosteronism D. Hypoparathyroidism

A. Anxiety

Which of the following conditions is associated with both metabolic and respiratory alkalosis? A. Hyperchloremia B. Hypernatremia C. Hyperphosphatemia D. Hypokalemia

D. Hypokalemia

In uncompensated metabolic acidosis, which of the following will be normal? A. Plasma bicarbonate B. PCO2 C. p50 D. Total CO2

B. PCO2

Which of the following conditions is classified as normochloremic acidosis? A. Diabetic ketoacidosis B. Chronic pulmonary obstruction C. Uremic acidosis D. Diarrhea

A. Diabetic ketoacidosis

Which PCO2 value would be seen in maximallycompensated metabolic acidosis? A. 15 mm Hg B. 30 mm Hg C. 40 mm Hg D. 60 mm Hg

A. 15 mm Hg

A patient has the following arterial blood gas results: pH = 7.56 PCO2 = 25 mm Hg PO2 = 100 mm Hg HCO3 – = 22 mmol/L These results are most likely the result of which condition? A. Improper specimen collection B. Prolonged storage C. Hyperventilation D. Hypokalemia

C. Hyperventilation

Why are three levels used for quality control of pH and blood gases? A. Systematic errors can be detected earlier than with two controls B. Analytical accuracy needs to be greater than for other analytes C. High, normal, and low ranges must always be evaluated D. A different level is needed for pH, PCO2, and PO2

A. Systematic errors can be detected earlier than with two controls

A single-point calibration is performed between each blood gas sample in order to: A. Correct the electrode slope B. Correct electrode and instrument drift C. Compensate for temperature variance D. Prevent contamination by the previous sample

B. Correct electrode and instrument drift

In which condition would hypochloremia be expected? A. Respiratory alkalosis B. Metabolic acidosis C. Metabolic alkalosis D. All of these options

C. Metabolic alkalosis

Given the following serum electrolyte data, determine the anion gap. Na = 132 mmol/L Cl = 90 mmol/L HCO3–= 22 mmol/L A. 12 mmol/L B. 20 mmol/L C. 64 mmol/L D. Cannot be determined from the information provided

B. 20 mmol/L

Which of the following conditions will cause an increased anion gap? A. Diarrhea B. Hypoaldosteronism C. Hyperkalemia D. Renal failure

D. Renal failure

Alcoholism, liver failure, and hypoxia induce acidosis by causing: A. Depletion of cellular NAD+ B. Increased excretion of bicarbonate C. Increased retention of PCO2 D. Loss of carbonic anhydrase

A. Depletion of cellular NAD+

Which of the following is the primary mechanism causing respiratory alkalosis? A. Hyperventilation B. Deficient alveolar diffusion C. Deficient pulmonary perfusion D. Parasympathetic inhibition

A. Hyperventilation

Which condition can result in acidosis? A. Cystic fibrosis B. Vomiting C. Hyperaldosteronism D. Excessive O2 therapy

D. Excessive O2 therapy

Which of the following conditions is associated with an increase in ionized calcium (Cai ) in the blood? A. Alkalosis B. Hypoparathyroidism C. Hyperalbuminemia D. Malignancy

D. Malignancy

Which of the following conditions is associated with hypophosphatemia? A. Rickets B. Multiple myeloma C. Renal failure D. Hypervitaminosis D

A. Rickets

Which of the following laboratory results is consistent with primary hypoparathyroidism? A. Low calcium; high inorganic phosphorus Pi B. Low calcium; low Pi C. High calcium; high Pi D. High calcium; low Pi

A. Low calcium; high inorganic phosphorus Pi

Which of the following tests is consistently abnormal in osteoporosis? A. High urinary calcium B. High serum Pi C. Low serum calcium D. High urine or serum N-telopeptide of type 1 collagen

D. High urine or serum N-telopeptide of type 1 collagen

Which of the following is a marker for bone formation? A. Osteocalcin B. Tartrate resistant acid phosphatase (TRAP) C. Urinary pyridinoline and deoxypyridinoline D. Urinary C-telopeptide and N-telopeptide crosslinks (CTx and NTx)

A. Osteocalcin

What role do CTx and NTx play in the management of osteoporosis? A. Increased urinary excretion is diagnostic of early stage disease B. Increased levels indicate a low risk of developing osteoporosis C. Decreased urinary excretion indicates a positive response to treatment D. The rate of urinary excretion correlates with the stage of the disease

C. Decreased urinary excretion indicates a positive response to treatment

What role does vitamin D measurement play in the management of osteoporosis? A. Vitamin D deficiency must be demonstrated to establish the diagnosis B. Vitamin D is consistently elevated in osteoporosis C. A normal vitamin D level rules out osteoporosis D. Vitamin D deficiency is a risk factor for developing osteoporosis

D. Vitamin D deficiency is a risk factor for developing osteoporosis

Which statement best describes testing recommendations for vitamin D? A. Vitamin D testing should be reserved only for those persons who demonstrate hypercalcemia of an undetermined cause B. Vitamin D testing should be specific for the 1,25(OH)D3 form C. Testing should be for total vitamin D when screening for deficiency D. Vitamin D testing should not be performed if the patient is receiving a vitamin D supplement

C. Testing should be for total vitamin D when screening for deficiency

The serum level of which of the following laboratory tests is decreased in both VDDR and VDRR? A. Vitamin D B. Calcium C. Pi D. Parathyroid hormone

C. Pi

Which of the following is the most accurate measurement of Pi in serum? A. Rate of unreduced phosphomolybdate formation at 340 nm B. Measurement of phosphomolybdenum blue at 680 nm C. Use of aminonaptholsulfonic acid to reduce phosphomolybdate D. Formation of a complex with malachite green dye

A. Rate of unreduced phosphomolybdate formation at 340 nm

What is the percentage of serum calcium that is ionized (Cai)? A. 30% B. 45% C. 60% D. 80%

B. 45%

Which of the following conditions will cause erroneous Cai results? Assume that the samples are collected and stored anaerobically, kept at 4°C until measurement, and stored for no longer than 1 hour. A. Slight hemolysis during venipuncture B. Assay of whole blood collected in sodium oxalate C. Analysis of serum in a barrier gel tube stored at 4°C until the clot has formed D. Analysis of whole blood collected in sodium heparin, 20 U/mL (low-heparin tube)

B. Assay of whole blood collected in sodium oxalate

Which of the following conditions is associated with a low serum magnesium? A. Addison’s disease B. Hemolytic anemia C. Hyperparathyroidism D. Pancreatitis

D. Pancreatitis

When measuring calcium with the complexometric dye o-cresolphthalein complexone, magnesium is kept from interfering by: A. Using an alkaline pH B. Adding 8-hydroxyquinoline C. Measuring at 450 nm D. Complexing to EDTA

B. Adding 8-hydroxyquinoline

Which electrolyte measurement is least affected by hemolysis? A. Potassium B. Calcium C. Pi D. Magnesium

B. Calcium

Which of the following conditions is associated with hypokalemia? A. Addison’s disease B. Hemolytic anemia C. Digoxin intoxication D. Alkalosis

D. Alkalosis

Which of the following conditions is most likely to produce an elevated plasma potassium? A. Hypoparathyroidism B. Cushing’s syndrome C. Diarrhea D. Digitalis overdose

D. Digitalis overdose

Which of the following values is the threshold critical value (alert or action level) for low plasma potassium? A. 1.5 mmol/L B. 2.0 mmol/L C. 2.5 mmol/L D. 3.5 mmol/L

C. 2.5 mmol/L

Which electrolyte is least likely to be elevated in renal failure? A. Potassium B. Magnesium C. Inorganic phosphorus D. Sodium

D. Sodium

Which of the following is the primary mechanism for vasopressin (ADH) release? A. Hypovolemia B. Hyperosmolar plasma C. Renin release D. Reduced renal blood flow

B. Hyperosmolar plasma

Which of the following conditions is associated with hypernatremia? A. Diabetes insipidus B. Hypoaldosteronism C. Burns D. Diarrhea

A. Diabetes insipidus

Which of the following values is the threshold critical value (alert or action level) for high plasma sodium? A. 150 mmol/L B. 160 mmol/L C. 170 mmol/L D. 180 mmol/L

B. 160 mmol/L

Which of the following conditions is associated with total body sodium excess? A. Renal failure B. Hyperthyroidism C. Hypoparathyroidism D. Diabetic ketoacidosis

A. Renal failure

Which of the following conditions is associated with hyponatremia? A. Diuretic therapy B. Cushing’s syndrome C. Diabetes insipidus D. Nephrotic syndrome

A. Diuretic therapy

Which of the following conditions involving electrolytes is described correctly? A. Pseudohyponatremia occurs only when undiluted samples are measured B. Potassium levels are slightly higher in heparinized plasma than in serum C. Hypoalbuminemia causes low total calcium but does not affect Cai D. Hypercalcemia may be induced by low serum magnesium

C. Hypoalbuminemia causes low total calcium but does not affect Cai

Which of the following laboratory results is usually associated with cystic fibrosis? A. Sweat chloride greater than 60 mmol/L B. Elevated serum sodium and chloride C. Elevated fecal trypsin activity D. Low glucose

A. Sweat chloride greater than 60 mmol/L

When performing a sweat chloride collection, which of the following steps will result in analytical error? A. Using unweighed gauze soaked in pilocarpine nitrate on the inner surface of the forearm to stimulate sweating B. Collecting more than 75 mg of sweat in 30 minutes C. Leaving the preweighed gauze on the inside of the arm exposed to air during collection D. Rinsing the collected sweat from the gauze pad using chloride titrating solution

C. Leaving the preweighed gauze on the inside of the arm exposed to air during collection

Which electrolyte level best correlates with plasma osmolality? A. Sodium B. Chloride C. Bicarbonate D. Calcium

A. Sodium

Which formula is most accurate in predicting plasma osmolality? A. Na + 2(Cl) + BUN + glucose B. 2(Na) + 2(Cl) + glucose + urea C. 2(Na) + (glucose ÷ 18) + (BUN ÷ 2.8) D. Na + Cl + K + HCO3

C. 2(Na) + (glucose ÷ 18) + (BUN ÷ 2.8)

Which of the following biochemical processes is promoted by insulin? A. Glycogenolysis B. Gluconeogenesis C. Lipolysis D. Uptake of glucose by cells

D. Uptake of glucose by cells

Which of the following hormones promotes hyperglycemia? A. Calcitonin B. Growth hormone C. Aldosterone D. Renin

B. Growth hormone

Which of the following is characteristic of type 1 diabetes mellitus? A. Requires an oral glucose tolerance test for diagnosis B. Is the most common form of diabetes mellitus C. Usually occurs after age 40 D. Requires insulin replacement to prevent ketosis

D. Requires insulin replacement to prevent ketosis

Which of the following is characteristic of type 2 diabetes mellitus? A. Insulin levels are consistently low B. Most cases require a 3-hour oral glucose tolerance test to diagnose C. Hyperglycemia is often controlled without insulin replacement D. The condition is associated with unexplained weight loss

C. Hyperglycemia is often controlled without insulin replacement

Which of the following results falls within the diagnostic criteria for diabetes mellitus? A. Fasting plasma glucose of 120 mg/dL B. Two-hour postprandial plasma glucose of 160 mg/dL C. Two-hour plasma glucose of 180 mg/dL following a 75 g oral glucose challenge D. Random plasma glucose of 250 mg/dL and presence of symptoms

D. Random plasma glucose of 250 mg/dL and presence of symptoms

Select the most appropriate adult reference range for fasting blood glucose. A. 40–105 mg/dL (2.22–5.82 mmol/L) B. 60–140 mg/dL (3.33–7.77 mmol/L) C. 65–99 mg/dL (3.61–5.50 mmol/L) D. 75–150 mg/dL (4.16–8.32 mmol/L)

C. 65–99 mg/dL (3.61–5.50 mmol/L)

When preparing a patient for an oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT), which of the following conditions will lead to erroneous results? A. The patient remains ambulatory for 3 days prior to the test B. Carbohydrate intake is restricted to below 150 g/day for 3 days prior to test C. No food, coffee, tea, or smoking is allowed 8 hours before and during the test D. Administration of 75 g of glucose is given to an adult patient following a 10–12-hour fast

B. Carbohydrate intake is restricted to below 150 g/day for 3 days prior to test

Which of the following 2-hour glucose challenge results would be classified as impaired glucose tolerance (IGT)? Two-hour serum glucose: A. 130 mg/dL B. 135 mg/dL C. 150 mg/dL D. 204 mg/dL

C. 150 mg/dL

Which statement regarding gestational diabetes mellitus (GDM) is correct? A. Is diagnosed using the same oral glucose tolerance criteria as in nonpregnancy B. Converts to diabetes mellitus after pregnancy in 60%–75% of cases C. Presents no increased health risk to the fetus D. Is defined as glucose intolerance originating during pregnancy

D. Is defined as glucose intolerance originating during pregnancy

Which of the following findings is characteristic of all forms of clinical hypoglycemia? A. A fasting blood glucose value below 55 mg/dL B. High fasting insulin levels C. Neuroglycopenic symptoms at the time of low blood sugar D. Decreased serum C peptide

C. Neuroglycopenic symptoms at the time of low blood sugar

Which statement regarding glycated (glycosylated) Hgb (G-Hgb) is true? A. Has a sugar attached to the C-terminal end of the β chain B. Is a highly reversible aminoglycan C. Reflects the extent of glucose regulation in the 8- to 12-week interval prior to sampling D. Will be abnormal within 4 days following an episode of hyperglycemia

Reflects the extent of glucose regulation in the 8- to 12-week interval prior to sampling

What is the American Diabetes Association recommended cutoff value for adequate control of blood glucose in diabetics as measured by glycated hemoglobin? A. 5% B. 6.5% C. 9.5% D. 11%

B. 6.5%

Which statement regarding measurement of Hgb A1c is true? A. Levels do not need to be done fasting B. Both the labile and stable Hgb A1c fractions are measured C. Samples should be measured within 2 hours of collection D. The assay must be done by chromatography

A. Levels do not need to be done fasting

Which stationary phase is used for the measurement of hemoglobin A1c by high performance liquid chromatography? A. Octadecylsilane (C18) B. Cation exchanger C. Anion exchanger D. Polystyrene divinylbenzene

B. Cation exchanger

Evaluate the following chromatogram of a whole-blood hemolysate, and identify the cause and best course of action. A. Result is not reportable because hemoglobin F is present and interferes B. The result is not reportable because hemoglobin C is present and interferes C. The result is not reportable because labile hemoglobin A1c is present D. The result is reportable; neither hemoglobin F or C interfere

D. The result is reportable; neither hemoglobin F or C interfere

Which statement best describes the use of the Hgb A1C test? A. Should be used for monitoring glucose control only B. May be used for both diagnosis and monitoring C. Should be used only to monitor persons with type 1 diabetes D. May be used only to monitor persons with type 2 diabetes

B. May be used for both diagnosis and monitoring

According to American Diabetes Association criteria, which result is consistent with a diagnosis of impaired fasting glucose? A. 99 mg/dL B. 117 mg/dL C. 126 mg/dL D. 135 mg/dL

B. 117 mg/dL

What is the recommended cutoff for the early detection of chronic kidney disease in diabetics using the test for microalbuminuria? A. >30 mg/g creatinine B. >80 mg/g creatinine C. >200 mg/g creatinine D. >80 mg/L

A. >30 mg/g creatinine

In addition to measuring blood glucose, Hgb A1c, and microalbumin, which test should be done on diabetic persons once per year? A. Urine glucose B. Urine ketones C. Plasma fructosamines D. Estimated glomerular filtration rate

D. Estimated glomerular filtration rate

Which testing situation is appropriate for the use of point-of-care whole-blood glucose methods? A. Screening for type 2 diabetes mellitus B. Diagnosis of diabetes mellitus C. Monitoring of blood glucose control in type 1 and type 2 diabetics D. Monitoring diabetics for hyperglycemic episodes only

C. Monitoring of blood glucose control in type 1 and type 2 diabetics

Which of the following is the reference method for measuring serum glucose? A. Somogyi–Nelson B. Hexokinase C. Glucose oxidase D. Glucose dehydrogenase

B. Hexokinase

Polarographic methods for glucose analysis are based upon which principle of measurement? A. Nonenzymatic oxidation of glucose B. The rate of O2 depletion C. Chemiluminescence caused by formation of adenosine triphosphate (ATP) D. The change in electrical potential as glucose is oxidized

B. The rate of O2 depletion

In addition to polarography, what other electrochemical method can be used to measure glucose in plasma? A. Conductivity B. Potentiometry C. Anodic stripping voltammetry D. Amperometry

D. Amperometry

Select the enzyme that is most specific for β-D-glucose. A. Hexokinase B. G-6-PD C. Phosphohexisomerase D. Glucose oxidase

D. Glucose oxidase

Which glucose method is subject to falsely low results caused by ascorbate? A. Hexokinase B. Glucose dehydrogenase C. Trinder glucose oxidase D. Polarography

C. Trinder glucose oxidase

Which of the following is a potential source of error in the hexokinase method? A. Galactosemia B. Hemolysis C. Sample collected in fluoride D. Ascorbic acid

B. Hemolysis

Which statement about glucose in cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) is correct? A. Levels below 40 mg/dL occur in septic meningitis, cancer, and multiple sclerosis B. CSF glucose is normally the same as the plasma glucose level C. Hyperglycorrhachia is caused by dehydration D. In some clinical conditions, the CSF glucose can be greater than the plasma glucose

A. Levels below 40 mg/dL occur in septic meningitis, cancer, and multiple sclerosis

In peroxidase-coupled glucose methods, which reagent complexes with the chromogen? A. Nitroprusside B. Phenol C. Tartrate D. Hydroxide

B. Phenol

Point-of-care-tests (POCTs) for whole-blood glucose monitoring are based mainly on the use of: A. Glucose oxidase as the enzyme B. Amperometric detection C. Immunochromatography D. Peroxidase coupling reactions

B. Amperometric detection

What effect does hematocrit have on POCT tests for whole-blood glucose monitoring? A. Low hematocrit decreases glucose readings on all devices B. High hematocrit raises glucose readings on all devices C. The effect is variable and dependent on the enzyme/coenzyme system D. Low hematocrit raises readings and high hematocrit lowers readings unless corrected

D. Low hematocrit raises readings and high hematocrit lowers readings unless corrected

Which of the following is classified as a mucopolysaccharide storage disease? A. Pompe’s disease B. von Gierke disease C. Hers’ disease D. Hurler’s syndrome

D. Hurler’s syndrome

Identify the enzyme deficiency responsible for type 1 glycogen storage disease (von Gierke’s disease). A. Glucose-6-phosphatase B. Glycogen phosphorylase C. Glycogen synthetase D. ß-Glucosidase

A. Glucose-6-phosphatase

Which of the following abnormal laboratory results is found in von Gierke’s disease? A. Hyperglycemia B. Increased glucose response to epinephrine administration C. Metabolic alkalosis D. Hyperlipidemia

D. Hyperlipidemia

The D-xylose absorption test is used for the differential diagnosis of which two diseases? A. Pancreatic insufficiency from malabsorption B. Primary from secondary disorders of glycogen synthesis C. Type 1 and type 2 diabetes mellitus D. Generalized from specific carbohydrate intolerance

A. Pancreatic insufficiency from malabsorption

Which of the following statements about carbohydrate intolerance is true? A. Galactosemia results from deficiency of galactose-1-phosphate (galactose-1-PO4) uridine diphosphate transferase B. Galactosemia results in a positive glucose oxidase test for glucose in urine C. Urinary galactose is seen in both galactosemia and lactase deficiency D. A galactose tolerance test is used to confirm a diagnosis of galactosemia

A. Galactosemia results from deficiency of galactose-1-phosphate (galactose-1-PO4) uridine diphosphate transferase

Which of the following statements regarding iron metabolism is correct? A. Iron absorption is decreased by alcohol ingestion B. Normally, 40%–50% of ingested iron is absorbed C. The daily requirement is higher for pregnant and menstruating women D. Absorption increases with the amount of iron in the body stores

C. The daily requirement is higher for pregnant and menstruating women

Which of the following processes occurs when iron is in the oxidized (Fe3+) state? A. Absorption by intestinal epithelium B. Binding to transferrin and incorporation into ferritin C. Incorporation into protoporphyrin IX to form functional heme D. Reaction with chromogens in colorimetric assays

B. Binding to transferrin and incorporation into ferritin

Which of the following is associated with low serum iron and high total iron-binding capacity (TIBC)? A. Iron deficiency anemia B. Hepatitis C. Nephrosis D. Noniron deficiency anemias

A. Iron deficiency anemia

Which condition is associated with the lowest percent saturation of transferrin? A. Hemochromatosis B. Anemia of chronic infection C. Iron deficiency anemia D. Noniron deficiency anemia

C. Iron deficiency anemia

Which condition is most often associated with a high serum iron level? A. Nephrosis B. Chronic infection or inflammation C. Polycythemia vera D. Noniron deficiency anemias

D. Noniron deficiency anemias

Which of the following is likely to occur first in iron deficiency anemia? A. Decreased serum iron B. Increased TIBC C. Decreased serum ferritin D. Increased transferrin

C. Decreased serum ferritin

Which formula provides the best estimate of serum TIBC? A. Serum transferrin in mg/dL × 0.70 = TIBC (μg/dL) B. Serum transferrin in mg/dL × 1.43 = TIBC (μg/dL) C. Serum iron (μg/dL)/1.2 + 0.06 = TIBC (μg/dL) D. Serum Fe (μg/dL) × 1.25 = TIBC (μg/dL)

B. Serum transferrin in mg/dL × 1.43 = TIBC (μg/dL)

Which statement regarding the diagnosis of iron deficiency is correct? A. Serum iron levels are always higher at night than during the day B. Serum iron levels begin to fall before the body stores become depleted C. A normal level of serum ferritin rules out iron deficiency D. A low serum ferritin is diagnostic of iron deficiency

D. A low serum ferritin is diagnostic of iron deficiency

Which statement about iron methods is true? A. Interference from Hgb can be corrected by a serum blank B. Colorimetric methods measure binding of Fe2+ to a ligand such as ferrozine C. Atomic absorption is the method of choice for measurement of serum iron D. Serum iron can be measured by potentiometry

B. Colorimetric methods measure binding of Fe2+ to a ligand such as ferrozine

Which of the following statements regarding the TIBC assay is correct? A. All TIBC methods require addition of excess iron to saturate transferrin B. All methods require the removal of unbound iron C. Measurement of TIBC is specific for transferrinbound iron D. The chromogen used must be different from the one used for measuring serum iron

A. All TIBC methods require addition of excess iron to saturate transferrin

Which of the following statements regarding the metabolism of bilirubin is true? A. It is formed by hydrolysis of the α methene bridge of urobilinogen B. It is reduced to biliverdin prior to excretion C. It is a by-product of porphyrin production D. It is produced from the destruction of RBCs

D. It is produced from the destruction of RBCs

Bilirubin is transported from reticuloendothelial cells to the liver by: A. Albumin B. Bilirubin-binding globulin C. Haptoglobin D. Transferrin

A. Albumin

. In the liver, bilirubin is conjugated by addition of: A. Vinyl groups B. Methyl groups C. Hydroxyl groups D. Glucuronyl groups

D. Glucuronyl groups

Which enzyme is responsible for the conjugation of bilirubin? A. β-Glucuronidase B. UDP-glucuronyl transferase C. Bilirubin oxidase D. Biliverdin reductase

B. UDP-glucuronyl transferase

100

The term d-bilirubin refers to: A. Water-soluble bilirubin B. Free unconjugated bilirubin C. Bilirubin tightly bound to albumin D. Direct-reacting bilirubin

C. Bilirubin tightly bound to albumin

other names parasitology

Yves Laure Pimentel · 70問 · 2年前

other names parasitology