BLOOD BANKING

40問 • 1年前

問題一覧

Which of the following techniques uses restriction enzymes, electrophoresis, and then transfer of DNA fragments onto a solid matrix, followed by probing with labeled probes? a. Dot-blot b. Southern blot c. Western blot d. LCR

b. Southern blot

The most serious HTRs are due to which incompatibility: a. ABO b. Rh c. MN d. Duffy

a. ABO

What corrective action should be taken when rouleaux causes positive test results? a. Perform a saline replacement technique b. Perform an autoabsorption c. Run a panel d. Perform an elution

a. Perform a saline replacement technique

A major crossmatch and screening cells are 2+ at IS, 1+ at 37°C, and negative at the IAT phase. Identify the most likely problem. a. Combination of antibodies b. Cold alloantibody c. Rouleaux d. Test error

b. Cold alloantibody

An antibody screen is reactive at IAT phase of testing using a three-cell screen and the autocontrol is negative. What is a possible explanation for these results? a. A cold alloantibody b. High-frequency alloantibody or a mixture of alloantibodies c. A warm autoantibody d. A cold and warm alloantibody

b. High-frequency alloantibody or a mixture of alloantibodies

All of the following are routinely performed on a cord blood sample except: a. Forward ABO typing b. Antibody screen c. Rh typing d. DAT

b. Antibody screen

What ABO types may donate to any other ABO type? a. A negative, B negative, AB negative, O negative b. O negative c. A negative, B negative d. AB negative, A negative, B negative

b. O negative

What should be done when a woman who is 24 weeks pregnant has a positive antibody screen? a. Perform an antibody identification panel; titer if necessary b. No need to do anything until 30 weeks gestation c. Administer Rh immune globulin (RhIg) d. Adsorb the antibody onto antigen-positive cells

a. Perform an antibody identification panel; titer if necessary

The k (Cellano) antigen is ahigh-frequency antigen and is found on most RBCs. How often would one expect to find the corresponding antibody? a. Often b. Rarely c. Depends on the population d. Impossible to determine

b. Rarely

What is the most common parasitic complication of transfusion? a. Babesia microti b. Trypanosoma cruzi c. Plasmodium species d. Toxoplasma gondii

c. Plasmodium species

Blood serum of anti-A and anti-B is prepared from? a. AB b. O c. AB d. B

b. O

Mother with cancer, gets blood from her daughter. What type of transfusion? a. Direct b. Apheresis c. Plasmapheresis d. Replacement

a. Direct

Which of the following characteristically gives a refractile mixed-field appearance? a. Anti-K b. Anti-Dia c. Anti-Sda d. Anti-s

c. Anti-Sda

Which of the following antigens has served as a useful tool in anthropologic studies of Mongolian ancestry? a. Dia b. Lea c. Xg d. Doa

a. Dia

The prevalence of this antigen in Northern Europeans is 1% but is higher in the Mennonite population. a. Sc1 b. Sc2 c. Xg d. None of the above

b. Sc2

A donor bag is half filled during donation when the blood flow stops. Select the correct course of action. a. Closely observe the bag for at least 3 minutes; if blood flow does not resume, withdraw the needle b. Remove the needle immediately and discontinue the donation c. Check and reposition the needle if necessary; if blood flow does not resume, withdraw the needle d. Withdraw the needle and perform a second venipuncture in the other arm

c. Check and reposition the needle if necessary; if blood flow does not resume, withdraw the needle

AHG control cells: a. Positive control for anti-C3 reagents b. Only for IAT c. Coated only with IgG antibody d. Must be used to confirm all positive antiglobulin reactions.

c. Coated only with IgG antibody

An EIA screening test for HTLV I/II was performed on a whole-blood donor. The results of the EIA were repeatedly reactive but the confirmatory test was negative. On the next donation, the screening test was negative by two different EIA tests. The donor should be: a. Accepted b. Deferred c. Told that only plasma can be made from his donation d. Told to come back in 6 months

a. Accepted

Cryoprecipitate may be used to treat all of the following, except: a. von Willebrand’s disease b. Hypofibrinogenemia c. Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) d. Factor XIII deficiency

c. Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP)

A 10% red cell suspension in saline is used in a compatibility test. Which of the following would most likely occur? a. False-positive due to antigen excess b. False-positive due to prozone c. False-negative due to prozone d. False-negative due to antigen excess

d. False-negative due to antigen excess

What is the component of choice for a patient with chronic granulomatous disease (CGD)? a. FFP b. Granulocytes c. Cryoprecipitate d. RBCs

b. Granulocytes

What does a minor crossmatch consist of? a. Recipient plasma and recipient RBCs b. Recipient plasma and donor RBCs c. Recipient RBCs and donor plasma d. Donor plasma and donor RBCs

c. Recipient RBCs and donor plasma

SITUATION: A cancer patient recently developed a severe infection. The patient’s hemoglobin is 8 g/dL owing to chemotherapy with a drug known to cause bone marrow depression and immunodeficiency. Which blood products are indicated for this patient? a. Liquid plasma and cryoprecipitate b. Crossmatched platelets and washed RBCs c. Factor IX concentrates and FFP d. Irradiated RBCs, platelets, and granulocytes

d. Irradiated RBCs, platelets, and granulocytes

When may an IS crossmatch be performed? a. When a patient is being massively transfused b. When there is no history of antibodies and the current antibody screen is negative c. When blood is being emergency released d. When a patient has not been transfused in the past 3 months

b. When there is no history of antibodies and the current antibody screen is negative

You CANNOT take aspirin for _____ before you donate platelets, because aspirin reduces the potency and performance of your platelets. a. 24 hours b. 48 hours c. 14 days d. 21 days

b. 48 hours

Cryoprecipitate must be transfused within what period of time following thawing and pooling? a. 4 hours b. 8 hours c. 12 hours d. 24 hours

a. 4 hours

Which drug can cause PERMANENT DEFERRAL? a. Soriatane b. Avodart c. Propecia d. Tegison

d. Tegison

Which of the following is not a requirement for the electronic crossmatch? a. The computer system contains logic to prevent assignment and release of ABO incompatible blood b. There are concordant results of at least two determinations of the recipient’s ABO type on record, one of which is from the current sample c. Critical elements of the system have been validated on site d. There are concordant results of at least one determination of the recipient’s ABO type on file

d. There are concordant results of at least one determination of the recipient’s ABO type on file

Reagent used to detect Rh antibodies except: a. IgM anti-D b. Anti-D c. IgE anti-D d. IgG anti-D

c. IgE anti-D

How is an individual with genotype Dce/dce classified? a. Rh positive b. Rh negative c. Rhnull d. Total Rh

a. Rh positive

If a patient has a positive direct antiglobulin test, should you perform a weak D test on the cells? a. No, the cells are already coated with antibody b. No, the cells are Rhnull c. Yes, the immunoglobulin will not interfere with the test d. Yes, Rh reagents are enhanced in protein media

a. No, the cells are already coated with antibody

All of the following are reasons for performing an adsorption, except: a. Separation of mixtures of antibodies b. Removal of interfering substances c. Confirmation of weak antigens on RBCs d. Identification of antibodies causing a positive DAT

d. Identification of antibodies causing a positive DAT

Which blood group has the least amount of H antigen? A. A1B B. A2 C. B D. A1

A. A1B

What can be done if HDFN is caused by maternal anti-K? a. Give Kell immune globulin b. Monitor the mother’s antibody level c. Prevent formation of K-positive cells in the fetus d. Not a problem; anti-K not known to cause HDFN

b. Monitor the mother’s antibody level

ISBT number 30: a. John Milton Hagen b. Globoside c. Gill d. Rh-associated glycoprotein (RhAG)

d. Rh-associated glycoprotein (RhAG)

Which situation is not a cause of indefinite or permanent deferral of a donor? a. History of Creutzfeld-Jacob disease b. Male currently on Tegison. c. Donor tested reactive for HBV by nucleic acid testing (NAT) d. Accidental needlestick 1 year ago; negative for infectious disease.

d. Accidental needlestick 1 year ago; negative for infectious disease.

Which vaccination does not need deferral? a. HPV b. Varicella c. Measles d. Smallpox

a. HPV

Vaccination for MMR would result in a temporary deferral for: a. 4 weeks b. 2 weeks c. 8 weeks d. 16 weeks

c. 8 weeks

Who is the best candidate for a predeposit autologous donation? a. A 45-year-old man who is having elective surgery in 2 weeks; he has alloanti-k b. A 23-year-old female leukemia patient with a hemoglobin of 10 g/dL c. A 12-year-old boy who has hemophilia d. A 53-year-old woman who has septicemia

a. A 45-year-old man who is having elective surgery in 2 weeks; he has alloanti-k

CPDA-1 prolongs shelf life by: a. 21 days b. 35 days c. 42 days d. 2 days

b. 35 days

other names parasitology

Yves Laure Pimentel · 70問 · 2年前

other names parasitology