HEMATOLOGY

100問 • 1年前

問題一覧

You validate a new assay using linear regression to compare assay calibrator results with the distributor’s published calibrator results. The slope is 0.99 and the y intercept is +10%. What type of error is present? * 0/1 a. No error b. Random error c. Constant systematic error d. Proportional systematic error

c. Constant systematic error

You purchase a preserved whole blood specimen from a distributor who provides the mean values for several complete blood count analytes. What is this specimen called? * 1/1 a. Normal specimen b. Calibrator c. Control d. Blank

c. Control

You require your laboratory staff to annually perform manual lupus anticoagulant profiles on a set of plasmas with known values. This exercise is known as: * 1/1 a. Assay validation b. Proficiency testing c. External quality assessment d. Pre-pre analytical variable assay

b. Proficiency testing

The shape of a cell is maintained by which of the following? * 1/1 a. Microtubules b. Spindle fibers c. Ribosomes d. Centrioles

a. Microtubules

The energy source for cells is the: * 0/1 a. Golgi apparatus b. Endoplasmic reticulum c. Nucleolus d. Mitochondrion

d. Mitochondrion

The transition from the G1 to S stage of the cell cycle is regulated by: * 0/1 a. Cyclin B/CDK1 complex b. Cyclin A/CDK2 complex c. Cyclin D1 d. Cyclin E/CDK2 complex

d. Cyclin E/CDK2 complex

Regulation of the hematopoietic microenvironment is provided by the: * 0/1 a. Stromal cells and growth factors b. Hematopoietic stem cells c. Liver and spleen d. Cyclins and caspases

a. Stromal cells and growth factors

Apoptosis is morphologically identified by: * 0/1 a. Cellular swelling b. nuclear condensation c. Rupture of the cytoplasm d. Rupture of the nucleus

b. nuclear condensation

A WBC count control has a mean value of 6000/µL and an SD of 300/µL. What is the 95.5% confidence interval? * 0/1 a. 3000 to 9000/µL b. 5400 to 6600/µL c. 5500 to 6500/µL d. 5700 to 6300/µL

b. 5400 to 6600/µL

What agency provides external quality assurance (proficiency) surveys and laboratory accreditation? * 1/1 a. Clinical Laboratory Improvement Advisory Committee (CLIAC) b. Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS) c. College of American Pathologists (CAP) d. The Joint Commission

c. College of American Pathologists (CAP)

Functions of the cell membrane include all of the following except: * 1/1 a. Regulation of molecules entering or leaving the cell b. Receptor recognition of extracellular signals c. Maintenance of electrochemical gradients d. Lipid production and oxidation

d. Lipid production and oxidation

Which one of the following statements is FALSE concerning cellular signal transduction? * 1/1 a. Membrane-permeable ligands can directly bind to intracellular receptors. b. A transmembrane receptor can transmit a signal into the cell through its intracellular domain when ligand binds its extracellular domain. c. The binding of membrane receptors to fixed ligands such as extracellular matrix can transmit intracellular signals. d. The binding of soluble ligands to membrane receptors is not able to induce changes in gene expression.

d. The binding of soluble ligands to membrane receptors is not able to induce changes in gene expression.

The process of formation and development of blood cells is termed: * 1/1 a. Hematopoiesis b. Hematemesis c. Hematocytometry d. Hematorrhea

a. Hematopoiesis

Physiologic programmed cell death is termed: * 1/1 a. Angiogenesis b. Apoptosis c. Aneurysm d. Apohematics

b. Apoptosis

Which one of the following morphologic changes occurs during normal blood cell maturation? * 0/1 a. Increase in cell diameter b. Development of cytoplasm basophilia c. Condensation of nuclear chromatin d. Appearance of nucleoli

c. Condensation of nuclear chromatin

When a patient has severe anemia and the bone marrow is unable to effectively produce red blood cells to meet the increased demand, one of the body’s responses is: * 0/1 a. Extramedullary hematopoiesis in the liver and spleen b. Decreased production of erythropoietin by the kidney c. Increased apoptosis of erythrocyte progenitor cells d. Increased proportion of yellow marrow in the long bones

a. Extramedullary hematopoiesis in the liver and spleen

Hematopoietic stem cells produce all lineages of blood cells in sufficient quantities over the lifetime of an individual because they: * 0/1 a. Are unipotent b. Have the ability of self-renewal by asymmetric division c. Are present in large numbers in the bone marrow niches d. Have a low mitotic potential in response to growth factors

b. Have the ability of self-renewal by asymmetric division

Hypoxia stimulates RBC production by: * 0/1 a. Inducing more pluripotent stem cells into the erythroid lineage b. Stimulating EPO production by the kidney c. Increasing the number of RBC mitoses d. Stimulating the production of fibronectin by macrophages of the bone

b. Stimulating EPO production by the kidney

What erythroid precursor can be described as follows: The cell is of medium size compared with other normoblasts, with an N:C ratio of nearly 1:1. The nuclear chromatin is condensed and chunky throughout the nucleus. No nucleoli are seen. The cytoplasm is gray-blue. * 0/1 a. Reticulocyte b. Pronormoblast c. Orthochromic normoblast d. Polychromatic normoblast

d. Polychromatic normoblast

Erythropoietin can increase the production of RBCS by: * 0/1 a. Promoting apoptosis of erythroid progenitors b. Decreasing intravascular hemolysis c. Increasing EPO receptor sites d. Promoting early release of reticulocytes from bone marrow

d. Promoting early release of reticulocytes from bone marrow

Which of the following determines the timing of egress of RBCs from the bone marrow? * 0/1 a. Stromal cells decrease production of adhesive molecules over time as RBCs mature. b. Endothelial cells of the venous sinus form pores at specified intervals of time, allowing egress of free cells. c. Periodic apoptosis of pronormoblasts in the marrow cords occurs. d. Maturing normoblasts slowly lose receptors for adhesive molecules that bind them to stromal cells

d. Maturing normoblasts slowly lose receptors for adhesive molecules that bind them to stromal cells.

Which RBC process does not require energy? * 0/1 a. Cytoskeletal protein deformability b. Maintaining cytoplasm cationic electrochemical gradients c. Oxygen transport d. Preventing the peroxidation of proteins and lipids

c. Oxygen transport

Which of the following helps maintain RBC shape? * 0/1 a. Cytoskeletal proteins b. Glycocalyx c. GPI anchor d. Membrane phospholipids

a. Cytoskeletal proteins

In the bone marrow, erythroid precursors are located: * 1/1 a. Surrounding macrophages in erythroid islands b. Adjacent to megakaryocytes along the adventitial cell lining c. Surrounding fat cells in apoptotic islands d. In the center of the hematopoietic cords

a. Surrounding macrophages in erythroid islands

What pathway anaerobically generates energy in the form of ATP? * 1/1 a. 2,3-BPG pathway b. Embden-Meyerhof pathway c. Hexose monophosphate pathway d. Rapoport-Luebering pathway

b. Embden-Meyerhof pathway

Hemoglobin iron may become oxidized to Fe3+ by several pathologic mechanisms. What portion of the Embden-Meyerhof pathway reduces iron to Fe2+? * 1/1 a. Hexose monophosphate pathway b. Methemoglobin reductase pathway c. Rapoport-Luebering pathway d. 2,3-BPG shunt

b. Methemoglobin reductase pathway

RBC membrane phospholipids are arranged: * 0/1 a. In a hexagonal lattice b. In chains beneath a protein cytoskeleton c. In two layers whose composition is asymmetric d. So that hydrophobic portions are facing the plasma

c. In two layers whose composition is asymmetric

Which is true concerning 2,3-BPG? * 0/1 a. Enhances O2 release from hemoglobin b. Source of RBC ATP c. Source of RBC glucose d. The least abundant of RBC organophosphates

a. Enhances O2 release from hemoglobin

A hemoglobin molecule is composed of: * 1/1 a. One heme molecule and four globin chains b. Ferrous iron, protoporphyrin IX, and a globin chain c. Protoporphyrin IX and four globin chains d. Four heme molecules and four globin chains

d. Four heme molecules and four globin chains

The predominant hemoglobin found in a healthy newborn is: * 1/1 a. Gower-1 b. Gower-2 c. A d. F

d. F

Which of the following is a description of the structure of oxidized hemoglobin? * 0/1 a. Hemoglobin carrying oxygen on heme; synonymous with oxygenated hemoglobin b. Hemoglobin with iron in the ferric state (methemoglobin) and not able to carry oxygen c. Hemoglobin with iron in the ferric state so that carbon dioxide replaces oxygen in the heme structure d. Hemoglobin carrying carbon monoxide; hence oxidized refers to the single oxygen

b. Hemoglobin with iron in the ferric state (methemoglobin) and not able to carry oxygen

How are the globin chain genes arranged? * 0/1 a. With a genes and ß genes on the same chromosome, including two a genes and two beta genes b. With a genes and ß genes on separate chromosomes, including two a genes on one chromosome and one ß gene on a different chromosome c. With a genes and ß genes on the same chromosome, including four a genes and four ß genes d. With a genes and ß genes on separate chromosomes, including four a genes on one chromosome and two ß genes on a different chromosome

With a genes and ß genes on separate chromosomes, including two a genes on one chromosome and one ß gene on a different chromosome

Normal adult Hb A contains which polypeptide chains? * 1/1 a. α and β b. α and δ c. α and γ d. α and ε

a. α and β

Following are several of the many steps in the process from absorption and transport of iron to incorporation into heme. Place them in proper order. i. Transferrin picks up ferric iron. ii. Iron is transferred to the mitochondria. iii. DMT1 transports ferrous iron into the enterocyte. iv. Ferroportin transports iron from enterocyte to plasma. v. The transferrin receptor transports iron into the cell. * 0/1 a. v, iv, i, ii, iii b. iii, ii, iv, i, v c. ii, i, v, iii, iv d. iii, iv, i, v, ii

d. iii, iv, i, v, ii

The following is unique to both B and T lymphocytes and occurs during their early development: * 0/1 a. Expression of surface antigens CD4 and CD8 b. Maturation in the thymus c. Synthesis of immunoglobulins d. Rearrangement of antigen receptor genes

d. Rearrangement of antigen receptor genes

What is the normal distribution of hemoglobins in healthy adults? * 0/1 a. 80% to 90% Hb A, 5% to 10% Hb A2, 1% to 5% Hb F b. 80% to 90% Hb A2, 5% to 10% Hb A, 1% to 5% Hb F c. >95% Hb A, <3.5% Hb A2, 1% to 2% Hb F d. >90% Hb A, 5% Hb F, <5% Hb A2

c. >95% Hb A, <3.5% Hb A2, 1% to 2% Hb F

White clots: * 0/1 a. Occur primarily in the deep veins of the leg b. Are characteristic of the secondary hemostatic process c. Are largely composed of platelets and von Willebrand factor d. Form normally in response to vascular injury and are completely harmless

c. Are largely composed of platelets and von Willebrand factor

A laboratory science student consistently makes wedge-technique blood films that are too long and thin. What change in technique would improve the films? * 1/1 a. Increasing the downward pressure on the pusher slide b. Decreasing the acute angle of the pusher slide c. Placing the drop of blood closer to the center of the slide d. Increasing the acute angle of the pusher slide

d. Increasing the acute angle of the pusher slide

In the quaternary structure of hemoglobin, the globin chains associate into: * 0/1 a. α tetramers in some cells and β tetramers in others b. A mixture of α tetramers and β tetramers c. α Dimers and β dimers d. Two αβ dimers

d. Two αβ dimers

What is the fate of the transferrin receptor when it has completed its role in the delivery of iron into a cell? * 0/1 a. It is recycled to the plasma membrane and released into the plasma. b. It is recycled to the plasma membrane, where it can bind its ligand again. c. It is catabolized and the amino acids are returned to the metabolic pool. d. It is retained in the endosome for the life span of the cell

b. It is recycled to the plasma membrane, where it can bind its ligand again.

The term calibration means * 0/1 a. a known value in a specimen similar to a patient specimen b. closeness to the true value c. the process of monitoring accuracy d. comparison to a known physical constant

d. comparison to a known physical constant

The appropriate vein for performing a routine venipuncture are the * 1/1 a. cephalic, basilic, and median cubital b. subclavian, iliac, and femoral c. brachiocephalic, jugular, and popliteal d. saphenous, suprarenal, and tibia

a. cephalic, basilic, and median cubital

Appropriate bone marrow aspiration sites in an adult are * 1/1 a. the anterior and posterior iliac crest b. the sternum and posterior iliac crest c. the tibia and sternum d. both A and B

d. both A and B

The appropriate function of centrioles is * 1/1 a. protein production b. concentration of secretory granules c. lipid synthesis d. points of attachment of the spindle fibers

d. points of attachment of the spindle fibers

The overall function of DNA is * 1/1 a. protein and enzyme production b. control of cellular function and transmission of genetic information c. control of heterochromatin and euchromatin synthesis d. production of cellular energy and transmission of genetic information

b. control of cellular function and transmission of genetic information

The National Patient Safety Goals include * 0/1 a. Use of the patient identifiers b. Use of proper evacuated collection tube anticoagulants c. Proper disinfection of laboratory counter tops d. Proper donning of latex gloves

a. Use of the patient identifiers

Apoptosis is described as * 0/1 a. active cell growth b. active cell death c. passive cell growth d. passive cell death

b. active cell death

Relative polycythemia exists when * 0/1 a. increased erythropoietin is produced b. the total blood volume is expanded c. the plasma volume is increased d. the plasma volume is decreased

d. the plasma volume is decreased

After a molecule of hemoglobin gains the first two oxygen molecules, the molecule * 0/1 a. expels 2,3-DPG b. has decreased oxygen affinity c. becomes saturated with oxygen d. adds a molecule of oxygen to an alpha chain

a. expels 2,3-DPG

Why would a patient have Heinz bodies in her red blood cells? * 0/1 a. reduced amounts of glutathione b. Decreased hemoglobin-oxygen affinity c. Increased glycolysis d. Decreased levels of ATP

a. reduced amounts of glutathione

A hematoma can form if: * 1/1 a. improper pressure is applied to a site after the venipuncture b. the patient suddenly moves and the needle comes out of the vein c. the needle punctures both walls of the vein d. all of the above

d. all of the above

As the erythrocyte ages, * 1/1 a. the membrane becomes more flexible with loss of cell membrane b. cellular hemoglobin decreases c. enzyme activity, particularly glycolysis, decreases d. the cell maintains the ability move through the capillary circulation

c. enzyme activity, particularly glycolysis, decreases

Hemoglobin A consists of * 1/1 a. two alpha and two delta chains b. zeta chains and either epsilon or gamma chains c. two alpha and two beta chains d. two alpha and two gamma chains

c. two alpha and two beta chains

The child’s medical history and the appearance of dense, dark-staining particles in some of the red blood cells on a peripheral blood smear suggest a diagnosis of * 0/1 a. iron deficiency anemia b. malaria c. ingestion of lead d. sickle cell disease

c. ingestion of lead

The nucleus of the cell contains * 0/1 a. chromatin, nucleoli, and nucleoplasm b. chromatin, nucleoli, and ribosomes c. DNA, RNA, and ribosomes d. DNA, RNA, and mitochondri

a. chromatin, nucleoli, and nucleoplasm

Hemoglobin A consists of * 1/1 a. two alpha and two delta chains b. zeta chains and either epsilon or gamma chains c. two alpha and two beta chains d. two alpha and two gamma chains

c. two alpha and two beta chains

Hemoglobin F consists of * 0/1 a. two alpha and two delta chains b. zeta chains and either epsilon or gamma chains c. two alpha and two beta chains d. two alpha and two gamma chains

d. two alpha and two gamma chains

Heinz bodies are associated with * 1/1 a. hemoglobin F b. hemoglobin A c. sulfhemoglobin d. carboxyhemoglobin

c. sulfhemoglobin

Altered solubility of the hemoglobin S molecule is due to * 0/1 a. substitution of a nonpolar amino acid residue for a polar residue near the surface of the chain b. substitution of a polar amino acid residue for a nonpolar residue near the surface of the chain c. replacement of glutamic acid amino acid residue at the sixth position on the ß-globin chain by a lysine amino acid residue d. replacement of lysine amino acid residue at the sixth position on the ß-globin chain by a glutamic acid amino acid residue

a. substitution of a nonpolar amino acid residue for a polar residue near the surface of the chain

The likelihood of infection after exposure to HBV-infected or HIV infected blood or body fluids depends the least on the * 1/1 a. Source (anatomical site) of the blood or fluid b. Concentration of the virus c. Duration of the contact d. Presence of nonintact skin

a. Source (anatomical site) of the blood or fluid

If a defect in the oxidative pathway (hexose monophosphate shunt) occurs, what will result? * 0/1 a. Insufficient amounts of reduced glutathione b. Denaturation of globin c. Precipitation of Heinz bodies d. All of the above

d. All of the above

Hemoglobin A2 consists of * 1/1 a. two alpha and two delta chains b. zeta chains and either epsilon or gamma chains c. two alpha and two beta chains d. two alpha and two gamma chains

a. two alpha and two delta chains

Macrocytes may be associated with the clinical condition of * 1/1 a. iron deficiency anemia b. abetalipoproteinemia c. pernicious anemia d. no related disease state

c. pernicious anemia

A morphological description of echinocytes is * 1/1 a. short, scalloped, or spike-like projections that are regularly distributed around the cell b. fragments of erythrocytes c. the scooped-out part of an erythrocyte that remains after a blister cell ruptures d. compact round shape

a. short, scalloped, or spike-like projections that are regularly distributed around the cell

A morphological description of helmet cells is * 1/1 a. short, scalloped, or spike-like projections that are regularly distributed around the cell b. fragments of erythrocytes c. the scooped-out part of an erythrocyte that remains after a blister cell ruptures d. compact round shape

c. the scooped-out part of an erythrocyte that remains after a blister cell ruptures

The term variance means * 0/1 a. sum of the squared differences from the mean b. square root of the variance from the mean c. standard deviation expressed as a percentage of the mean d. degree to which test data vary about the average

d. degree to which test data vary about the average

Pappenheimer bodies represent * 1/1 a. DNA b. precipitated denatured hemoglobin c. granules composed of ribosomes and RNA d. aggregates of iron, mitochondria, and ribosomes

d. aggregates of iron, mitochondria, and ribosomes

A characteristic of methemoglobin is that it is * 1/1 a. incapable of combining with oxygen b. incapable of combining with carbon dioxide c. susceptible to precipitation as Heinz bodies d. present in normal in vivo concentration of greater than 15%

a. incapable of combining with oxygen

Plasmodium vivax is characterized by * 1/1 a. the schizont contains 6 to 12 merozoites; generally abundant in hematin granules; may contain Ziemann stippling b. the most predominant species worldwide; 12 to 24 merozoites; may contain Schüffner dots or granules c. infected erythrocytes may be enlarged and oval shaped; may contain Schüffner dots; 6 to 14 merozoites in the schizont d. young trophozoites and gametocytes are generally the only stage seen in peripheral blood; gametocytes appear as crescent- or sausage-shaped structures in erythrocytes; Maurer dots may be present

b. the most predominant species worldwide; 12 to 24 merozoites; may contain Schüffner dots or granules

Which of the following is (are) characteristic(s) of megaloblastic maturation? * 1/1 a. Cells of some leukocytic cell lines are smaller than normal. b. Nuclear maturation lags behind cytoplasmic maturation. c. Cytoplasmic maturation lags behind nuclear maturation. d. Erythrocytes are smaller than normal

b. Nuclear maturation lags behind cytoplasmic maturation.

The absolute value of segmented neutrophils can be an unreliable indicator of overwhelming infection because * 1/1 a. it drops in many patients because the circulating granulocytes are mobilized into the tissue site of infection b. the bone marrow reserve becomes exhausted c. the infection suppresses granulocytic production d. all of the above

a. it drops in many patients because the circulating granulocytes are mobilized into the tissue site of infection

Neutrophils function as phagocytic cells in the circulating blood * 0/1 a. to defend the body against viral infections b. during severe allergic reactions c. when bacteria enter the circulation d. to sustain high levels of cellular multiplication

c. when bacteria enter the circulation

The major hemoglobin synthesized in the second trimester fetus is * 0/1 a. A b. F c. A2 d. A1c

b. F

The value of the LAP stain is to * 1/1 a. differentiate malignant disorders from leukemoid reactions b. distinguish myelocytes from monocytes c. assess the quality of enzymatic granules d. identify immature granulocytes

a. differentiate malignant disorders from leukemoid reactions

Rieder’s cells are associated with * 1/1 a. Niemann-Pick disease and Burkitt’s lymphoma b. CLL c. leukosarcoma d. Natural artifact

b. CLL

In the G2 phase of mitotic activity, ________. * 0/1 a. DNA replication occurs b. a protracted state of mitotic inactivity occurs c. immediately precedes actual mitotic division d. protein synthesis and cellular metabolism are active

c. immediately precedes actual mitotic division

The function of the entire leukocytic system is to * 0/1 a. defend the body against disease b. synthesis of antibodies c. protect against allergic reactions d. secrete enzymes

a. defend the body against disease

Antibody-independent roles for B cells in immune responses include * 1/1 a. production of antibody b. production of cytokines to shape type and strength of immune response c. blocking of cellular activation and recruitment of other immune cells d. blocking of T-reg lymphocyte expansion

b. production of cytokines to shape type and strength of immune response

Embryonic hemoglobin consists of * 0/1 a. two alpha and two delta chains b. zeta chains and either epsilon or gamma chains c. two alpha and two beta chains d. two alpha and two gamma chains

b. zeta chains and either epsilon or gamma chains

Heinz bodies represent * 1/1 a. DNA b. precipitated denatured hemoglobin c. granules composed of ribosomes and RNA d. aggregates of iron, mitochondria, and ribosomes

b. precipitated denatured hemoglobin

A correction is necessary for WBC counts when nucleated RBCs are seen on the peripheral smear because: * 1/1 A. The WBC count would be falsely lower B. The RBC count is too low C. Nucleated RBCs are counted as leukocytes D. Nucleated RBCs are confused with giant platelet

C. Nucleated RBCs are counted as leukocytes

Congenital dyserythropoietic anemias (CDAs) are characterized by: * 1/1 A. Bizarre multinucleated erythroblasts B. Cytogenetic disorders C. Megaloblastic erythropoiesis D. An elevated M:E ratio

A. Bizarre multinucleated erythroblasts

All of the following are characteristic findings in a patient with iron deficiency anemia except: * 0/1 A. Microcytic, hypochromic red cell morphology B. Decreased serum iron and ferritin levels C. Decreased total iron-binding capacity (TIBC) D. Increased RBC protoporphyrin

C. Decreased total iron-binding capacity (TIBC)

Which of the following are most characteristic of the red cell indices associated with megaloblastic anemias? * 0/1 A. MCV 99 fl, MCH 28 pg, MCHC 31% B. MCV 62 fL, MCH 27 pg, MCHC 30% C. MCV 125 fL, MCH 36 pg, MCHC 34% D. MCV 78 fL, MCH 23 pg, MCHC 30%

C. MCV 125 fL, MCH 36 pg, MCHC 34%

The familial condition of Pelger–Huët anomaly is important to recognize because this disorder must be differentiated from: * 0/1 A. Infectious mononucleosis B. May–Hegglin anomaly C. A shift-to-the-left increase in immature granulocytes D. G6PD deficiency

C. A shift-to-the-left increase in immature granulocytes

Which type of anemia is usually present in a patient with acute leukemia? * 1/1 A. Microcytic, hyperchromic B. Microcytic, hypochromic C. Normocytic, normochromic D. Macrocytic, normochromic

C. Normocytic, normochromic

In leukemia, which term describes a peripheral blood finding of leukocytosis with a shift to the left, accompanied by nucleated red cells? * 1/1 A. Myelophthisis B. Dysplasia C. Leukoerythroblastosis D. Megaloblastosis

C. Leukoerythroblastosis

SITUATION: The following laboratory values are seen: WBCs = 6.0 × 109/L Hgb = 6.0 g/dL RBCs = 1.90 × 1012/L Hct = 18.5% Platelets = 130 × 109/L Serum vitamin B12 and folic acid: normal These results are most characteristic of: A. Pernicious anemia B. Acute myeloid leukemia without maturation C. Acute erythroid leukemia D. Acute myelomonocytic leukemia

C. Acute erythroid leukemia

The erythrocytosis seen in relative polycythemia occurs because of: * 0/1 A. Decreased arterial oxygen saturation B. Decreased plasma volume of circulating blood C. Increased erythropoietin levels D. Increased erythropoiesis in the bone marrow

B. Decreased plasma volume of circulating blood

Given the following values, which set of red blood cell indices suggests spherocytosis? * 1/1 A. MCV 76 μm3 MCH 19.9 pg MCHC 28.5% B. MCV 90 μm3 MCH 30.5 pg MCHC 32.5% C. MCV 80 μm3 MCH 36.5 pg MCHC 39.0% D. MCV 81 μm3 MCH 29.0 pg MCHC 34.8%

C. MCV 80 μm3 MCH 36.5 pg MCHC 39.0%

Bite cells” are usually seen in patients with: * 1/1 A. Rh null trait B. Chronic granulomatous disease C. G6PD deficiency D. PK deficiency

C. G6PD deficiency

CML is distinguished from leukemoid reaction by which of the following? * 1/1 A. CML: low LAP; leukemoid: high LAP B. CML: high LAP; leukemoid: low LAP C. CML: high WBC; leukemoid: normal WBC D. CML: high WBC; leukemoid: higher WBC

A. CML: low LAP; leukemoid: high LAP

Multiple myeloma is most difficult to distinguish from: * 0/1 A. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia B. Acute myelogenous leukemia C. Benign monoclonal gammopathy D. Benign adenoma

C. Benign monoclonal gammopathy

Which ratio of anticoagulant-to-blood is correct for coagulation procedures? * 1/1 A. 1:4 B. 1:5 C. 1:9 D. 1:10

C. 1:9

Which of the following characterizes vitamin K? * 0/1 A. It is required for biological activity of fibrinolysis B. Its activity is enhanced by heparin therapy C. It is required for carboxylation of glutamate residues of some coagulation factors D. It is made by the endothelial cells

C. It is required for carboxylation of glutamate residues of some coagulation factors

Which of the following antibodies is used in the D-dimer assay? * 0/1 A. Polyclonal directed against X and Y fragments B. Polyclonal directed against D-dimer C. Monoclonal against D and E fragments D. Monoclonal against D-dimer

D. Monoclonal against D-dimer

Hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS) is associated with: * 0/1 A. Fever, thrombocytosis, anemia, and renal failure B. Fever, granulocytosis, and thrombocytosis C. Escherichia coli 0157:H7 D. Leukocytosis and thrombocytosis

C. Escherichia coli 0157:H7

Which test result would be normal in a patient with dysfibrinogenemia? * 1/1 A. Thrombin time B. APTT C. PT D. Immunologic fibrinogen level

D. Immunologic fibrinogen level

Which of the following statements is correct regarding the D-dimer test? * 0/1 A. Levels are decreased in DIC B. Test detects polypeptides A and B C. Test detects fragments D and E D. Test has a negative predictive value

D. Test has a negative predictive value

100

Iron deficiency anemia is characterized by: * 1/1 A. Decreased plasma iron, decreased % saturation, increased total iron-binding capacity (TIBC) B. Decreased plasma iron, decreased plasma ferritin, normal RBC porphyrin C. Decreased plasma iron, decreased % saturation, decreased TIBC D. Decreased plasma iron, increased % saturation, decreased TIBC

A. Decreased plasma iron, decreased % saturation, increased total iron-binding capacity (TIBC)

other names parasitology

Yves Laure Pimentel · 70問 · 2年前

other names parasitology