ISBB PROGRESS EXAM PART 2

100問 • 1年前

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Constituents of granules include histamine, cytokines, growth factors, and a small amount of heparin, all of which have an important function in inducing and maintaining allergic reactions: * 1/1 Monocyte Neutrophil Eosinophil Basophil

Basophil

One distinguishing feature is an irregularly folded or horseshoe-shaped nucleus that occupies almost one-half of the entire cell’s volume. The abundant cytoplasm stains a dull grayish blue and has a ground-glass appearance because of the presence of fine dust-like granules. What is the cell described? 1/1 Monocyte Neutrophil Eosinophil Basophil

Monocyte

The normal ratio of CD8+ to CD4+ cells is approximately ___ in peripheral blood. * 1/1 1:2 1:3 2:1 3:1

1:2

Described as large granular lymphocytes, these cells make up 10% to 15% of the circulating lymphoid pool and are found mainly in the liver, spleen, and peripheral blood. * 1/1 B cells T cells NK cells Plasma cells

NK cells

Cells that are involved in the innate immune response and are actively phagocytic include: 1. Neutrophils 2. Monocytes, macrophages 3. Dendritic cells 4. Lymphocytes * 1/1 1 and 2 2 and 3 1, 2 and 3 1, 2, 3 and 4

1, 2 and 3

MHC molecules are found on all nucleated cells; these molecules associate with foreign antigens, such as viral proteins, synthesized within a host cell. This is known as the endogenous pathway for antigen presentation. * 1/1 Class I MHC Class II MHC Class III MHC None of these

Class I MHC

MHC molecules are found on the APCs that include B lymphocytes, monocytes, macrophages, dendritic cells, and thymic epithelium: * 1/1 Class I MHC Class II MHC Class III MHC None of these

Class II MHC

An increased level of this APR has been shown to be a significant risk factor for myocardial infarction, ischemic stroke, and peripheral vascular disease in men and women who have no previous history of cardiovascular disease: * 1/1 Ceruloplasmin C-reactive protein Haptoglobin Serum amyloid A

C-reactive protein

These cells recognize and lyse antibody-coated cells through a process called antibody-dependent cell cytotoxicity (ADCC). * 1/1 T cells B cells Plasma cells NK cells

NK cells

Marker to identify memory cells because they are similar in appearance to mature B cells: * 0/1 CD 16 CD 27 CD 34 CD 40

CD 27

Complement activation pathway triggered by bacterial and fungal cell walls, yeast, viruses, tumor cells, and certain parasites: * 1/1 Classical pathway Alternative pathway Lectin pathway All of these

Alternative pathway

Reactions involves combining soluble antigen with soluble antibody to produce insoluble complexes that are visible. * 1/1 Agglutination Complement fixation Neutralization Precipitation

Precipitation

Antibody is being tested for against a standard concentration of antigen, antibody is in excess and precipitation or agglutination cannot be detected. 0/1 Post-zone Prozone Zone of equivalence None of these

Prozone

In radial immunodiffusion, ______ is incorporated in a gel. * 0/1 Antigen Antibody Complement Enzyme label

Antibody

In EIA, antigen or antibody is typically bound to: * 1/1 Liquid phase Semi-solid phase Solid-phase Any of these

Solid-phase

In EIA, which of the following can be used qualitatively to determine the presence of an antigen or antibody or quantitatively to determine the actual concentration of an analyte in an unknown specimen? * 1/1 Antibody Antigen Enzyme label Solid-phase

Enzyme label

The preferred method of screening for allergies is an _______, in which very small amounts of potential allergens are injected under the skin. A positive test produces a wheal-and-flare reaction within 20 minutes. * 0/1 RIST RAST In vivo skin prick test Patch test

In vivo skin prick test

To determine if a patient is allergic to rye grass, the best test to perform is the: * 1/1 Total IgE test Skin prick test Direct AHG test Complement Fixation

Skin prick test

All of the following are systemic autoimmune disease, except: * 1/1 Granulomatosis with polyangiitis (Wegener’s granulomatosis) Hashimoto’s thyroiditis Rheumatoid arthritis Systemic lupus erythematosus

Hashimoto’s thyroiditis

Marker for familial medullary thyroid carcinoma: * 0/1 AFP Beta2-microglobulin Calcitonin Thyroglobulin (TG)

Calcitonin

It reflects thyroid mass, injury and TSH levels. * 1/1 ER/PR PTH TG Calcitonin

Gold standard for the serological diagnosis of Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever (RMSF): * 1/1 Weil-Felix reaction Fluorescent antibody to membrane antigen (FAMA) Direct immunofluorescence assay (DFA) Indirect immunofluorescence assay (IFA)

Indirect immunofluorescence assay (IFA)

Antibodies produced in patients with rickettsialinfections were detected by an agglutination test known as the WEIL-FELIX TEST, which was based on cross-reactivity of the patient’s antibodies with polysaccharide antigens present on the _______ strain(s) of Proteus vulgaris and the ______ strain (s) of Proteus mirabilis. * 1/1 OX-K strain of P. vulgaris and OX-19 and OX-2 strains of P. mirabilis OX-K strain of P. vulgaris and OX-19 and OX-12 strains of P. mirabilis OX-19 and OX-2 strains of P. vulgaris and OX-K strain of P. mirabilis OX-19 and OX-12 strains of P. vulgaris and OX-K strain of P. mirabilis

OX-19 and OX-2 strains of P. vulgaris and OX-K strain of P. mirabilis

COMPLEMENT FIXATION (CF) is the most widely used quantitative serodiagnostic method for identifying Coccidioides immitis infections. Cross-reactions in patients with ______ will occur as false-positive reactions. * 0/1 Histoplasmosis Moniliasis Syphilis Tuberculosis

Histoplasmosis

Isolation of the CMV in culture is the traditional method of direct viral detection. In this method, _____________ cell lines are inoculated with CMV-infected specimens, most commonly urine, respiratory secretions, or anticoagulated whole blood. * 0/1 African green monkey kidney cell line HeLa cell line Human epithelial cell line Human fibroblast cell line

Human fibroblast cell line

The T-cell antigen receptor is similar to immunoglobulin molecules in that it: * 1/1 Remains bound to the cell surface and is never secreted Contains V and C regions on each of its chains Binds complement Can cross the placenta and provide protection to a fetus

Contains V and C regions on each of its chains

Toll-like receptors are found on which cells? * 1/1 T cells Dendritic cells B cells Large granular lymphocytes

Dendritic cells

A superantigen, such as toxic shock syndrome toxin-1 (TSST-1), bypasses the normal antigen processing stage by binding to and cross linking: * 1/1 A portion of an immunoglobulin molecule and complement component C1 Toll-like receptors and an MHC class 1 molecule A portion of an immunoglobulin and a portion of a T-cell receptor A portion of a T-cell receptor and an MHC class II molecule

A portion of a T-cell receptor and an MHC class II molecule

Why is a chemiluminescent immunoassay (CIA) or enzyme immunoassay (EIA) the method of choice for detection of certain analytes, such as hormones, normally found in low concentrations? * 1/1 Because of low cross reactivity Because of high specificity Because of high sensitivity Because test systems may be designed as both competitive and noncompetitive assays

Because of high sensitivity

Interpret the following results for HIV infection: HIV 1,2 ELISA: positive HIV-1 Western blot: indeterminate HIV-1 p24 antigen: negative * 0/1 Positive for antibodies to human immunodeficiency virus, HIV-1 Positive for antibodies to human immunodeficiency virus, HIV-2 Cross reaction; biological false-positive result Additional testing required

Additional testing required

What is the most likely explanation when antibody tests for HIV are negative but a polymerase chain reaction test performed 1 week later is positive? * 1/1 Probably not HIV infection Patient is in the “window phase” before antibody production Tests were performed incorrectly Clinical signs may be misinterpreted

Patient is in the “window phase” before antibody production

What is the most likely cause when a Western blot or ELISA is positive for all controls and samples? * 1/1 Improper pipetting Improper washing Improper addition of sample Improper reading

Improper washing

Which of the following statements regarding infection with hepatitis D virus is true? * 1/1 Occurs in patients with HIV infection Does not progress to chronic hepatitis Occurs in patients with hepatitis B Is not spread through blood or sexual contact

Occurs in patients with hepatitis B

What is the most likely explanation when a patient has clinical signs of viral hepatitis but tests negative for hepatitis A IgM, hepatitis B surface antigen, and hepatitis C Ab? * 1/1 Tests were performed improperly The patient does not have hepatitis The patient may be in the “core window” Clinical evaluation was performed improperly

The patient may be in the “core window”

What type of antibodies is represented by the solid or homogeneous pattern in the immunofluorescence test for antinuclear antibodies? * 0/1 Antihistone antibodies Anticentromere antibodies Anti-ENA (anti-Sm and anti-RNP) antibodies Anti-RNA antibodies

Antihistone antibodies

A patient who is blood group O is accidentally transfused with group A blood and develops a reaction during the transfusion. What antibody is involved in this type II reaction? * 1/1 IgM IgE IgG and IgE IgG

IgM

What screening test should be performed first in a young patient suspected of having an immune dysfunction disorder? * 1/1 Complete blood count (CBC) and white cell differential Chemotaxis assay Complement levels Bone marrow biopsy

Complete blood count (CBC) and white cell differential

Which test should be performed when a patient has a reaction to transfused plasma products? * 1/1 Immunoglobulin levels T-cell count Hemoglobin levels D. Red cell enzymes Red cell enzymes

Immunoglobulin levels

A child suspected of having an inherited humoral immunodeficiency disease is given diphtheria/ tetanus vaccine. Two weeks after the immunization, his level of antibody to the specific antigens is measured. Which result is expected for this patient if he/she indeed has a humoral deficiency? * 0/1 Increased levels of specific antibody No change in the level of specific antibody An increase in IgG-specific antibody but not IgM-specific antibody Increased levels of nonspecific antibody

No change in the level of specific antibody

What is the correct procedure upon receipt of a test request for human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) on the serum from a 60-year-old man? * 1/1 Return the request; hCG is not performed on men Perform a qualitative hCG test to see if hCG is present Perform the test; hCG may be increased in testicular tumors Perform the test but use different standards and controls

Perform the test; hCG may be increased in testicular tumors

Which method, classically used for HLA-D typing, is often used to determine the compatibility between a living organ donor and recipient? * 1/1 Flow cytometry Mixed lymphocyte culture (MLC) Primed lymphocyte test (PLT) Restriction fragment length polymorphism (RFLP)

Mixed lymphocyte culture (MLC)

A patient was tested for syphilis by the RPR method and was reactive. An FTA-ABS test was performed and the result was negative. Subsequent testing showed the patient to have a high titer of anticardiolipin antibodies (ACAs) by the ELISA method. Which routine laboratory test is most likely to be abnormal for this patient? * 0/1 Activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT) Antismooth muscle antibodies Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) C3 assay by immunonephelometry

Activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT)

Inflammation involves a variety of biochemical and cellular mediators. Which of the following may be increased within 72 hours after an initial infection? * 0/1 Neutrophils, macrophages, antibody, complement, α1-antitrypsin Macrophages, T cells, antibody, haptoglobin, fibrinogen Neutrophils, macrophages, complement, fibrinogen, C-reactive protein Macrophages, T cells, B cells, ceruloplasmin, complement

Neutrophils, macrophages, complement, fibrinogen, C-reactive protein

A patient received 5 units of fresh frozen plasma (FFP) and developed a severe anaphylactic reaction. He has a history of respiratory and gastrointestinal infections. Post-transfusion studies showed all 5 units to be ABO-compatible. What immunologic test would help to determine the cause of this transfusion reaction? * 0/1 Complement levels, particularly C3 and C4 Flow cytometry for T-cell counts Measurement of immunoglobulins NBT test for phagocytic function

Measurement of immunoglobulins

A pregnant woman came to her physician with a maculopapular rash on her face and neck. Her temperature was 37.7°C (100°F). Rubella tests for both IgG and IgM antibody were positive. What positive test(s) would reveal a diagnosis of congenital rubella syndrome in her baby after birth? * 0/1 Positive rubella tests for both IgG and IgM antibody Positive rubella test for IgM Positive rubella test for IgG No positive test is revealed in congenital rubella syndrome

Positive rubella test for IgM

A woman who has been pregnant for 12 weeks is tested for toxoplasmosis. Her IgM ELISA titer is 2.6 (reference range < 1.6), and her IgG ELISA value is 66 (reference range < 8). The physician asks you if these results indicated an infection during the past 12 weeks. Which of the following tests would you recommend to determine if the woman was infected during her pregnancy? * 0/1 Toxo PCR on amniotic fluid Toxo IgM on amniotic fluid Toxo IgG avidity Amniotic fluid culture

Toxo IgG avidity

A dialysis patient is positive for both hepatitis B surface antigen and hepatitis B surface antibody. The physician suspects a laboratory error. Do you agree? * 1/1 Yes; the patient should not test positive for both HBsAg and HBsAb No; incomplete dialysis of a patient in the core window phase of hepatitis B infection will yield this result No; it is likely the patient has recently received a hepatitis B booster vaccination and could have these results Perhaps; a new specimen should be submitted to clear up the confusion

No; it is likely the patient has recently received a hepatitis B booster vaccination and could have these results

A genetic state in which no detectable trait exists is called: * 1/1 Recessive Dominant Incomplete dominance Amorph

Amorph

What blood type is not possible for the offspring of AO and BO parents? * 1/1 A A or B O All are possible

All are possible

Which genes encode for Rh antigens? * 0/1 RHDCE RHD RHCE RHD and RHCE

RHD and RHCE

If a person has the genetic makeup Hh, AO, LeLe, sese, what substance will be found in the secretions? * 1/1 A substance H substance Le^a substance Le^b substance

Le^a substance

Which statement is NOT true concerning anti-Fy^a and anti-Fy^b? * 0/1 Are clinically significant React well with enzyme-treated panel cells Cause hemolytic transfusion reactions Cause a generally mild hemolytic disease of the newborn

React well with enzyme-treated panel cells

A characteristic of the Xg^a antigen: * 1/1 Has a higher frequency in women than in men Has a higher frequency in men than in women Is enhanced by enzymes Is usually a saline reacting antibody

Has a higher frequency in women than in men

A “directed donor” unit of blood is defined as a unit of blood from a person who gives blood for: * 0/1 Relief of polycythemia or other blood disorder His or her specific use only First-degree blood relative Another person he or she has specified

Another person he or she has specified

Before the patient can receive a directed donation unit, the patient requires which of the following tests to be completed? * 1/1 Type and screen only Type and screen and compatibility testing Retype of patient and donor unit No additional testing is required

Type and screen and compatibility testing

An 18-year-old female with a hematocrit of 38%, temperature of 37C, and blood pressure of 175/90 mm Hg presents for whole blood donation. Based on this information, would you accept, permanently defer (PD), or temporarily defer (TD) the donor? * 0/1 Accept TD, blood pressure is too high for a person of her age TD, temperature is too high PD, for all values listed

A 63-year-old man with hemoglobin value of 130 g/dL and pulse of 80 beats/min, who received human pituitary growth hormone (PGH) when he was 10 years old, presents for whole blood donation. Based on this information, would you accept, permanently defer (PD,) or temporarily defer (TD) the donor? * 1/1 Accept the donor TD, because of the human PGH PD, because of the human PGH PD, because of the high hemoglobin value

PD, because of the human PGH

A 38-year-old female weighing 153 lb, who received the rubella vaccine 2 months previously, presents to donate whole blood. She also received 2 units of packed cells after the delivery of her eighth child 8 weeks ago. Based on this information, would you accept, permanently defer (PD), or temporarily defer (TD) the donor? * 0/1 Accept the donor TD because of the packed cells 8 weeks ago PD because of receiving blood products TD because of the rubella vaccine

TD because of the packed cells 8 weeks ago

A 22-year-old female with a cousin with AIDS who had taken aspirin the day before and with needle marks on both arms presents to donate whole blood. Based on this information, would you accept, permanently defer (PD), or temporarily defer (TD) the donor? * 1/1 PD, needle marks on both arms TD, needle marks on both arms PD, cousin with AIDS TD, because of the aspirin

PD, needle marks on both arms

An IgA-deficient patient with clinically significant anti-IgA requires which of the following? * 1/1 Leukocyte-reduced fresh frozen plasma CMV-seronegative RBCs Irradiated RBCs and platelets Washed RBCs

Washed RBCs

Acute transfusion reaction with signs or symptoms presenting: * 0/1 During or within 4 hours During or within 24 hours After 24 hours After 72 hours

During or within 24 hours

Transfusion reaction can range from minor urticarial effects to fulminant anaphylactic shock and death. The more common, milder reactions consist of wheals, hives, erythema, or pruritus. * 0/1 ALTR FNHTR TACO TRALI

ALTR

An acute complication of transfusion presenting with at least a 1°C increase in body temperature that can be accompanied by chills, nausea or vomiting, tachycardia, increase in blood pressure, and tachypnea. Occasionally, shaking CHILLS is the only initial presenting symptom, followed by an increase in body temperature up to 30 minutes after discontinuing the transfusion. * 1/1 FNHTR TACO TAS TRALI

FNHTR

Acute nonimmune transfusion reaction presenting with body temperatures usually 2°C or more above normal and rigors that can be accompanied by hypotension: * 0/1 FNHTR TACO TAS TRALI

TAS

An acute, nonimmune complication of transfusion presenting with respiratory distress and hypoxemia that can be accompanied by cough, headache, chest tightness, hypertension, jugular vein distention, elevated central venous pressure, and elevated pulmonary wedge pressure during or after transfusion. It occurs when the patient’s cardiovascular system’s ability to handle additional workload is exceeded, manifesting as CONGESTIVE HEART FAILURE. * 1/1 ALTR TACO TAS TRALI

TACO

A complication of massive transfusion resulting in hypocalcemia and can cause symptoms such as tingling, shivering, light-headedness, tetany, and hyperventilation: * 1/1 Hemodilution Hypothermia Diffuse intravascular coagulopathy Citrate toxicity

Citrate toxicity

The presenting reaction with a maculopapular rash, fever, watery diarrhea, elevated liver function tests, and pancytopenia occurs between 3 and 30 days post-transfusion: * 0/1 DHTR PTP TA-GVHD Iron overload

TA-GVHD

IRON OVERLOAD is a delayed, nonimmune complication of transfusion, presenting with multiorgan (liver, heart, endocrine organs) damage secondary to excessive iron accumulation. Each unit of red blood cells contains approximately ____ mg of iron. * 0/1 100 mg of iron 150 mg of iron 250 mg of iron 300 mg of iron

250 mg of iron

Reason why tests for HDV are not require for blood donors: * 1/1 Hepatitis D virus cannot be transmitted by blood transfusion Hepatitis D virus infection can easily be treated and managed Tests for HDV are very expensive Tests for HBV will eliminate any infections with HDV

Tests for HBV will eliminate any infections with HDV

Blood and blood components are not universally screened for CMV because of the generally benign course of this disease and the high percentage of virus carriers. To prevent CMV transmission, __________ or blood from seronegative donors may be used. * 1/1 Packed RBCs Frozen RBCs Irradiated blood component Leukocyte-reduced blood

Leukocyte-reduced blood

This component is prepared from FFP that is thawed at 1° to 6°C, which prevents resuspension of cold-insoluble clotting factor proteins. The thawed plasma is centrifuged at 4°C at a hard-spin setting. * 1/1 Random donor platelets Single donor platelets Cryoprecipitate Rhogam

Cryoprecipitate

Cryo-poor plasma (CPP) is most often used for transfusion or plasma exchange in patients with _______ who have been initially treated using FFP without an adequate response. * 1/1 Fibrinogen deficiency Hemophilia A Von Willebrand’s disease Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP)

Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP)

It is used in the treatment of BURN patients to replace colloid pressure: * 1/1 Frozen RBCs Washed RBCs Prothrombin complex Albumin

Albumin

Albumin RhIg contains predominantly: * 0/1 IgM anti-c IgG anti-c IgM anti-D IgG anti-D

IgG anti-D

Shelf-life of RhIg at 1 to 6 C: * 1/1 24 hours 1 year 2 years 10 years

2 years

Blood components should then be infused as quickly as tolerated or, at most, within: * 0/1 Within 4 hours Within 8 hours Within 12 hours Within 24 hours

Within 4 hours

The most serious hemolytic transfusion reactions are due to incompatibility in which of the following blood group systems? * 1/1 ABO Rh MN Duffy

ABO

Deferral for prospective donors who have been diagnosed with malaria after becoming asymptomatic irrespective of the receipt of antimalarial prophylaxis and individuals who have lived longer than 5 consecutive years in countries considered malaria-endemic (Harmening): * 0/1 4 weeks 6 weeks 12 months 3 years

3 years

Individuals who have TRAVELED to an area where malaria is endemic are deferred for _____ after departure from the malaria-endemic area. * 1/1 4 weeks 6 weeks 12 months 3 years

12 months

Which of the following enhancement mediums decreases the zeta potential, allowing antibody and antigen to come closer together? * 1/1 LISS Polyethylene glycol Polybrene ZZAP

LISS

What type RBCs can be transfused to an A2 person with anti-A1? * 1/1 A only A or O B AB

A or O

A patient tests positive for weak D but also appears to have anti-D in his serum. What may be the problem? * 1/1 Mixup of samples or testing error Most weak D individuals make anti-D The problem could be due to a disease state A D mosaic may make antibodies to missing antigen parts

A D mosaic may make antibodies to missing antigen parts

Why is testing a pregnant woman for weak D not required? * 0/1 An Rh-negative fetus may yield false positive results in a fetal maternal bleed An Rh-positive fetus may yield false positive results in a fetal maternal bleed D antigen strength decreases during pregnancy D antigen strength increases during pregnancy

An Rh-positive fetus may yield false positive results in a fetal maternal bleed

A patient types as AB and appears to be Rh positive on slide typing. What additional tests should be performed for tube typing? * 0/1 Rh negative control Direct antiglobulin test (DAT) Low-protein Rh antisera No additional testing is needed

Rh negative control

An antibody shows strong reactions in all test phases. All screen and panel cells are positive. The serum is then tested with a cord cell and the reaction is negative. What antibody is suspected? * 1/1 Anti-I Anti-i Anti-H Anti-p

Anti-I

Can crossmatching be performed on October 14th using a patient sample drawn on October 12th? * 1/1 Yes, a new sample would not be needed Yes, but only if the previous sample has no alloantibodies No, a new sample is needed because the 2-day limit has expired No, a new sample is needed for each testing

Yes, a new sample would not be needed

A patient showed positive results with screening cells and 4 donor units. The patient autocontrol was negative. What is the most likely antibody? * 1/1 Anti-H Anti-S Anti-Kp^a Anti-k

Anti-k

A panel study has revealed the presence of patient alloantibodies. What is the first step in a major crossmatch? * 1/1 Perform a DAT on patient cells and donor units Antigen type patient cells and any donor cells to be crossmatched Adsorb any antibodies from the patient serum Obtain a different enhancement medium for testing

Antigen type patient cells and any donor cells to be crossmatched

What is the disposition of a donor red blood cell unit that contains an antibody? * 1/1 The unit must be discarded Only the plasma may be used to make components The antibody must be adsorbed from the unit The unit may be labeled indicating it contains antibody and released into inventory

The unit may be labeled indicating it contains antibody and released into inventory

Six units are crossmatched. Five units are compatible, one unit is incompatible, and the recipient’s antibody screen is negative. Identify the problem: * 0/1 Patient may have an alloantibody to a high-frequency antigen Patient may have an abnormal protein Donor unit may have a positive DAT Donor may have a high-frequency antigen

Donor unit may have a positive DAT

An incompatible donor unit is found to have a positive DAT. What should be done with the donor unit? * 0/1 Discard the unit Antigen type the unit for high-frequency antigens Wash the donor cells and use the washed cells for testing Perform a panel on the incompatible unit

Discard the unit

What is the crossmatching protocol for platelets and/or plasma? * 0/1 Perform a reverse grouping on donor plasma No testing is required Perform a reverse grouping on recipient plasma Platelets must be HLA compatible

No testing is required

All of the following statements regarding FFP are true, except: * 1/1 FFP must be prepared within 24 hours of collection After thawing, FFP must be transfused within 24 hours Storage temperature for FFP with a 1-year shelf-life is -18C or colder When thawed, FFP must be stored between 1 to 6C

FFP must be prepared within 24 hours of collection

Which of the following individuals is acceptable as a blood donor? * 1/1 29-year-old man who received the hepatitis B vaccine last week A 21-year-old woman who had her nose pierced last week A 30-year-old man who lived in Zambia for 3 years and returned last month A 54-year-old man who tested positive for hepatitis C last year, but has no active symptoms of disease

29-year-old man who received the hepatitis B vaccine last week

Who is the best candidate for a predeposit autologous donation? * 1/1 A 45-year-old man who is having elective surgery in 2 weeks; he has alloanti-k A 23-year-old female leukemia patient with a hemoglobin of 10 g/dL A 12-year-old boy who has hemophilia A 53-year-old woman who has septicemia

A 45-year-old man who is having elective surgery in 2 weeks; he has alloanti-k

All of the following are reasons for a positive DAT on cord blood cells of a newborn except: * 1/1 High concentrations of Wharton’s jelly on cord cells Immune anti-A from an O mother on the cells of an A baby Immune anti-D from an Rh negative mother on the cells of an Rh-positive baby Immune anti-K from an K-negative mother on the cells of a K-negative baby

Immune anti-K from an K-negative mother on the cells of a K-negative baby

All of the following are interventions for fetal distress caused by maternal antibodies attacking fetal cells except: * 1/1 Intrauterine transfusion Plasmapheresis on the mother Transfusion of antigen-positive cells to the mother Early induction of labor

Transfusion of antigen-positive cells to the mother

The following results were obtained on a 51-year-old male with hepatitis C: Anti-A: 4+ Anti-B: 4+ Anti-D: 3+ A1 cells: 0 B cells: 0 What should be done next? * 0/1 Retype the patient’s sample to confirm group AB positive Repeat the Rh typing Run a saline control in forward grouping Report the patient as group AB, Rh positive

Run a saline control in forward grouping

Global standard for the identification, labeling, and information transfer of medical products of human origin (MPHO) across international borders and disparate health care systems: * 0/1 ISBT 001 ISBT 030 ISBT 128 ISBT 156

ISBT 128

100

Small regions of newly replicated DNA are: * 0/1 Leading strand Okazaki fragments Codons Histones

Okazaki fragments

other names parasitology

Yves Laure Pimentel · 70問 · 2年前

other names parasitology