POPCORN

100問 • 1年前

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Lazy leukocyte syndrome: A. Monocyte-macrophage series B. Neutrophilic series C. Lymphocytic series D. Erythrocytic series

B. Neutrophilic series

What is the most common glycolytic enzyme deficiency associated with the aerobic pathway (HMS) of erythrocyte metabolism? A. Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) B. Pyruvate kinase (PK) C. Methemoglobin reductase deficiency

A. Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD)

What is the most common glycolytic enzyme defciency associated with the anaerobic pathway (EMP) of erythrocyte metabolism? A. Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) B. Pyruvate kinase (PK) C. Methemoglobin reductase deficiency D. Hexokinase deficiency

B. Pyruvate kinase (PK)

PT prolonged APTT prolonged APTT + fresh plasma = corrected APTT + adsorbed plasma = not corrected APTT + aged serum = not corrected Most likely coagulation factor deficient: A. Factor I B. Factor V C. Factor X D. Factor II

D. Factor II

Patient with severe bleeding PT normal APTT prolonged APTT + fresh plasma = corrected APTT + adsorbed plasma = corrected APTT + aged serum = corrected Most likely coagulation factor deficient: A. Factor VIII B. Factor IX C. Factor XI D. Factor XII

C. Factor XI

Patient with no bleeding tendency PT normal APTT prolonged APTT + fresh plasma = corrected APTT + adsorbed plasma = corrected APTT + aged serum = corrected Most likely coagulation factor deficient: A. Factor VIII B. Factor IX C. Factor XI D. Factor XII

D. Factor XII

PT normal APTT prolonged APTT + fresh plasma = corrected APTT + adsorbed plasma = corrected APTT + aged serum = not corrected Most likely coagulation factor deficient: A. Factor I B. Factor VII C. Factor VIII D. Factor IX

C. Factor VIII

PT normal APTT prolonged APTT + fresh plasma = corrected APTT + adsorbed plasma = not corrected APTT + aged serum = corrected A. Factor I B. Factor VII C. Factor VIII D. Factor IX

D. Factor IX

Acknowledgement in a Research Paper: A. Before Title Page B. After Title Page C. Table of Contents D. End of the Research Paper

B. After Title Page

Which of the following is not a basic component of a QA program? A. Calibration B. Preventive maintenance C. Viral marker testing D. Record keeping

C. Viral marker testing

All blood banks as mandated by law must have a: A. Water fountain B. Written laboratory safety program C. BSC D. Foot-operated hand wash

B. Written laboratory safety program

One of the best ways to protect employees and keep a safe laboratory environment is to provide employees with: A. Health insurance B. Safety education C. Rest breaks D. Fluid-repellent laboratory coats

B. Safety education

Infants do not require crossmatching during: A. The first 4 months B. The first 6 months C. The first year D. An indefinite period if a parent’s blood is used

A. The first 4 months

The minimum amount of fibrinogen in 1 unit of Cryoprecipitated AHF is: A. 150 mg B. 250 mg C. 80 IU D. 1000 mg

A. 150 mg

In preparing platelets from a unit of whole blood, the correct order of centrifugation is: A. Hard spin followed by hard spin B. hard spin followed by light spin C. Light spin followed by light spin D. Light spin followed by hard spin

D. Light spin followed by hard spin

Eight units of platelets were pooled without a sterile connecting device. The new expiration is: A. 2 hours B. 4 hours C. 6 hours D. 24 hours

B. 4 hours

Although ABO compatibility is preferred, ABO incompatibility is acceptable for which of the following components? A. PF24 B. Cryoprecipitated AHF C. Apheresis Granulocytes D. Apheresis Platelets

B. Cryoprecipitated AHF

Platelets collected by apheresis must contain a minimum of how many platelets to be acceptable? A. 5.5 × 10^10 B. 5.0 × 10^11 C. 3.3 × 10^11 D. 3.0 × 10^11

D. 3.0 × 10^11

A donor who is positive for HBsAg is: A. Temporarily deferred B. Permanently deferred C. Deferred if the antibody to HBc is also present D. Deferred if ALT is elevated

B. Permanently deferred

Which of the following was a surrogate test for hepatitis that is no longer required? A. ALT B. anti-HBc C. CMV D. HBsAg

A. ALT

Which disease has the highest potential for transmission through a transfusion? A. AIDS B. CMV C. Syphilis D. Hepatitis

D. Hepatitis

RhIG should be administered within how many hours of delivery? A. 6 B. 48 C. 72 D. 96

C. 72

The greatest danger to the fetus (before delivery) affected by HDFN is: A. Kernicterus B. Anemia C. Hyperbilirubinemia D. Hypertension

B. Anemia

The greatest danger to the newborn affected by HDFN is: A. Kernicterus B. conjugated bilirubin C. anemia D. Low L/S ratio

A. Kernicterus

Which of the following is not a characteristic of ABO HDFN? A. May occur in first pregnancy B. Usually treated with phototherapy C. Strongly positive DAT D. Most frequent in babies born to group O mothers

C. Strongly positive DAT

Which of the following tests is not necessary when testing a cord blood sample? A. ABO B. D C. DAT D. Antibody screen

D. Antibody screen

What plasma protein functions to bind hemoglobin following intravascular hemolysis? A. Albumin B. Haptoglobin C. Transferrin D. C-reactive protein

B. Haptoglobin

The use of plasma from only male donors for transfusion is a preventive method for which type of transfusion reaction: A. Febrile B. TRALI C. Allergic D. TACO

B. TRALI

What antibodies are detected in the immediate-spin crossmatch A. Rh antibodies B. High-titer, low-avidity antibodies C. ABO antibodies D. Kell antibodies

C. ABO antibodies

The removal of an antibody from serum or plasma using the individual’s own red cells is: A. Autoadsorption B. Neutralization C. Differential adsorption D. Elution

A. Autoadsorption

The procedure that removes intact antibodies from the red cell membranes is: A. Autoadsorption B. Enzyme pretreatment C. Neutralization D. Elution

D. Elution

Which of the following antigens is poorly expressed on cord blood cells? A. K B. M C. Le^b D. D

C. Le^b

Which of the following antibodies can be neutralized by pooled human urine? A. Anti-Cs^a B. Anti-Sd^a C. Anti-Ch D. Anti-Vel

B. Anti-Sd^a

Which two organs are considered the primary lymphoid organs in which immunocompetent cells originate and mature? A. Thyroid and Peyer’s patches B. Thymus and bone marrow C. Spleen and mucosal-associated lymphoid tissue(MALT) D. Lymph nodes and thoracic duct

B. Thymus and bone marrow

All of the following are immunologic functions of complement except: A. Induction of an antiviral state B. Opsonization C. Chemotaxis D. Anaphylatoxin formation

A. Induction of an antiviral state

Which of the following cell surface molecules is classified as an MHC class II antigen? A. HLA-A B. HLA-B C. HLA-C D. HLA-DR

D. HLA-DR

What molecule on the surface of most T cells recognizes antigen? A. IgT B. MHC protein C. CD3 D. TcR

D. TcR

What substance is detected by the rapid plasma reagin (RPR) and Venereal Disease Research Laboratory (VDRL) tests for syphilis? A. Cardiolipin B. Anticardiolipin antibody C. Anti-T. pallidum antibody D. Treponema pallidum

B. Anticardiolipin antibody

What type of antigen is used in the RPR card test? A. Live treponemal organisms B. Killed suspension of treponemal organisms C. Cardiolipin D. Tanned sheep cells

C. Cardiolipin

Which of the following is the most sensitive test to detect congenital syphilis? A. VDRL B. RPR C. Microhemagglutinin test for T. pallidum (MHA-TP) D. Polymerase chain reaction (PCR)

D. Polymerase chain reaction (PCR)

Which specimen is the sample of choice to evaluate latent or tertiary syphilis? A. Serum sample B. Chancre fluid C. CSF D. Joint fluid

C. CSF

What is the main difficulty associated with the development of an HIV vaccine? A. The virus has been difficult to culture; antigen extraction and concentration are extremely laborious B. Human trials cannot be performed C. Different strains of the virus are genetically diverse D. Anti-idiotype antibodies cannot be developed

C. Different strains of the virus are genetically diverse

Which method is used to test for HIV infection in infants who are born to HIV-positive mothers? A. ELISA B. Western blot test C. Polymerase chain reaction D. Viral culture

C. Polymerase chain reaction

Which hepatitis B marker is the best indicator of early acute infection? A. HBsAg B. HBeAg C. Anti-HBc D. Anti-HBs

A. HBsAg

Which is the first antibody detected in serum after infection with hepatitis B virus (HBV)? A. Anti-HBs B. Anti-HBc IgM C. Anti-HBe D. All are detectable at the same time

B. Anti-HBc IgM

A newborn is to be tested for a vertically transmitted HIV infection. Which of the following tests is most useful? A. HIV PCR B. CD4 count C. Rapid HIV antibody test D. HIV IgM antibody test

A. HIV PCR

What disease is indicated by a high titer of anti-Sm (anti-Smith) antibody? A. Mixed connective tissue disease (MCTD) B. RA C. SLE D. Scleroderma

C. SLE

A patient with joint swelling and pain tested negative for serum RF by both latex agglutination and ELISA methods. What other test would help establish a diagnosis of RA in this patient? A. Anti-CCP B. ANA testing C. Flow cytometry D. Complement levels

A. Anti-CCP

Which disease may be expected to show an IgM spike on an electrophoretic pattern? A. Hypogammaglobulinemia B. Multicystic kidney disease C. Waldenström’s macroglobulinemia D. Wiskott–Aldrich syndrome

C. Waldenström’s macroglobulinemia

Which disease might be indicated by antibodies to smooth muscle? A. Atrophic gastritis B. Autoimmune hepatitis C. Myasthenia gravis D. Sjögren’s syndrome

B. Autoimmune hepatitis

What immune elements are involved in a positive skin test for tuberculosis? A. IgE antibodies B. T cells and macrophages C. NK cells and IgG antibody D. B cells and IgM antibody

B. T cells and macrophages

A 22-year-old female with a cousin with AIDS who had taken aspirin the day before and with needle marks on both arms presents to donate WHOLE BLOOD. Based on this information, would you accept, permanently defer (PD), or temporarily defer (TD) the donor? A. PD, needle marks on both arms B. TD, needle marks on both arms C. PD, cousin with AIDS D. TD, because of the aspirin

A. PD, needle marks on both arms

A 63-year-old man with a hemoglobin value of 130 g/L (13 g/dL) and pulse of 80 beats/min, who received human pituitary growth hormone (PGH) when he was 10 years old, presents for whole blood donation. Based on this information, would you accept, permanently defer (PD,) or temporarily defer (TD) the donor? A. Accept the donor B. TD, because of the human PGH C. PD, because of the human PGH D. PD, because of the high hemoglobin value

C. PD, because of the human PGH

A 38-year-old female weighing 153 lbs, who received the rubella vaccine 2 months previously, presents to donate whole blood. She also received 2 units of packed cells after the delivery of her eighth child 8 weeks ago. Based on this information, would you accept, permanently defer (PD), or temporarily defer (TD) the donor? A. Accept the donor B. TD because of the packed cells 8 weeks ago C. PD because of receiving blood products D. TD because of the rubella vaccine

B. TD because of the packed cells 8 weeks ago

C. PD, because of the human PGH

An 18-year-old female with a hematocrit of 38%, temperature of 37C, and blood pressure of 175/ 90 mm Hg presents for whole blood donation. Based on this information, would you accept, permanently defer (PD), or temporarily defer (TD) the donor? A. Accept B. TD, blood pressure is too high for a person ofher age C. TD, temperature is too high D. PD, for all values listed

A. Accept

Which of the following tumor markers is used to monitor persons with breast cancer for recurrence of disease? A. Cathepsin-D B. CA-15-3 C. Retinoblastoma gene D. Estrogen receptor (ER)

B. CA-15-3

Which tumor marker is used to determine the usefulness of TRASTUZUMAB (HERCEPTIN) therapy for breast cancer? A. PR B. CEA C. HER-2/neu D. Myc

C. HER-2/neu

Which of the following tests when used together are helpful in monitoring treatment and identifying recurrence of testicular cancer? A. AFP and CEA B. AFP and HCG C. CEA and HCG D. CA 125 and CA 19-9

B. AFP and HCG

A tumor marker for the diagnosis of urinary bladder cancer: A. CA 19-9 B. HER-2/neu C. Calcitonin D. NMP

D. NMP

In EDTA–anti-coagulated blood, platelets undergo a change in shape. This alteration (swelling) causes the MPV to increase approximately ___ % during the first hour. A. 5% B. 10% C. 15% D. 20%

D. 20%

MPV values should be based on specimens that are between ______ old. A. 1 and 4 hours old B. 5 and 8 hours old C. 8 and 12 hours old D. 12 and 15 hours old

A. 1 and 4 hours old

Normal PDW is: A. Less than 5% B. Less than 10% C. Less than 15% D. Less than 20%

D. Less than 20%

A measure of the uniformity of platelet size in a blood specimen: A. MCV B. MPV C. PDW D. RDW

C. PDW

Which one of the following constitutes permanent deferral status of a donor? A. Tattoo 5 months previously B. Recent close contact with a patient with viral hepatitis C. 2 units of blood transfused 4 months previously D. Confirmed positive test for HBsAg 10 years previously

D. Confirmed positive test for HBsAg 10 years previously

In order to be a plateletpheresis donor, the platelet count must be at least: A. 150,000/μL B. 200,000/μL C. 250,000/μL D. 300,000/μL

A. 150,000/μL

A unit of Red Blood Cells that expires in 32 days has just been irradiated. The expiration date of this unit will: A. Remain the same B. Be reduced by 4 days C. Be reduced by 14 days D. Be increased by 2 days

B. Be reduced by 4 days

An important determinant of platelet viability during storage is: A. Plasma potassium concentration B. Plasma pH C. Prothrombin time D. Activated partial thromboplastin time

B. Plasma pH

In a quality assurance program, Cryoprecipitated AHF must contain a minimum of how many international units of Factor VIII? A. 60 B. 70 C. 80 D. 90

C. 80

Most blood group system genes and their resulting genetic traits display what type of inheritance? A. Sex-linked dominant B. Sex-linked recessive C. Autosomal recessive D. Autosomal codominant

D. Autosomal codominant

Antibodies from which of the following blood group systems are notorious for causing delayed hemolytic transfusion reactions? A. Rh B. KEL C. FY D. JK

D. JK

The K (KEL1) antigen is: A. Absent from the red cells of neonates B. Strongly immunogenic C. Destroyed by enzymes D. Has a frequency of 50% in the random population

B. Strongly immunogenic

Which of the following immunoglobulins is most efficient at activating complement via the classical pathway? A. lgG2 B. lgG4 C. lgM D. lgA

C. lgM

Many enhancement media used in the blood bank promote hemagglutination in the presence of lgG antibodies by reducing which of the following? A. Hydrophilic forces B. Low ionic potential C. van der Waals forces D. Zeta potential

D. Zeta potential

Transfusion of which of the following is needed to help correct hypofibrinogenemia due to DIC? A. Whole Blood B. Fresh Frozen Plasma C. Cryoprecipitated AHF D. Platelets

C. Cryoprecipitated AHF

A newborn demonstrates petechiae, ecchymosis and mucosal bleeding. The preferred blood component for this infant would be: A. Red Blood Cells B. Fresh Frozen Plasma C. Platelets D. Cryoprecipitated AHF

C. Platelets

Which of the following is the preferable site for bone marrow aspiration and biopsy in an adult? A. Iliac crest B. Sternum C. Tibia D. Spinous processes of a vertebra

A. Iliac crest

Cycloserine–cefoxitin-fructose agar (CCFA) is used for the recovery of: A. Yersinia enterocolitica B. Yersinia intermedia C. Clostridium perfringens D. Clostridium difficile

D. Clostridium difficile

Deoxycholate agar (DCA) is useful for the isolation of: A. Enterobacteriaceae B. Enterococcus spp. C. Staphylococcus spp. D. Neisseria spp.

A. Enterobacteriaceae

Xylose lysine deoxycholate (XLD) agar is a highly selective medium used for the recovery of which bacteria? A. Staphylococcus spp. from normal flora B. Yersinia spp. that do not grow on Hektoen agar C. Enterobacteriaceae from gastrointestinalspecimens D. Streptococcus spp. from stool cultures

C. Enterobacteriaceae from gastrointestinalspecimens

Specimens for virus culture should be transported in media containing: A. Antibiotics and 5% sheep blood B. Saline and 5% sheep blood C. 22% bovine albumin D. Antibiotics and nutrient

D. Antibiotics and nutrient

According to the Kirby–Bauer standard antimicrobial susceptibility testing method, what should be done when interpreting the zone size of a motile, swarming organism such as a Proteus species? A. The swarming area should be ignored B. The results of the disk diffusion method are invalid C. The swarming area should be measured as the growth boundary D. The isolate should be retested after diluting to a 0.05 McFarland standard

A. The swarming area should be ignored

The exchange of cellular DNA between two livingbacterial cells that involves an intercellular bridge is which of the following processes? A. Transformation B. Transduction C. Plasmidization D. Conjugation

D. Conjugation

Which of the following bacteria should be consideredimportant pathogens when reading gram-stained smears of soft tissue abscess? A. Streptococcus pneumoniae B. Neisseria gonorrhoeae C. Pseudomonas aeruginosa D. Staphylococcus aureus

D. Staphylococcus aureus

Which of the following specimens would be best for identifying Bacillus cereus as the cause of an outbreak of food poisoning? A. Blood B. Rectal swabs C. Stool samples D. Food

D. Food

Profuse watery diarrhea (“rice water stools”), leading to dramatic fluid loss, severe dehydration, and hypotension that frequently leads to death, is the hallmark of which toxin activity? A. Cholera toxin B. Enteric endotoxin C. Shiga toxin D. Toxin A

A. Cholera toxin

Which of the following is the most sensitive method for the diagnosis of Chlamydia trachomatis? A. Cytology B. Culture C. Nucleic acid amplification D. Serologic testing

C. Nucleic acid amplification

Lecithinase production, double zone hemolysis onsheep blood agar, and gram-stained morphology are all useful criteria in the identification of which of the following? A. Clostridium perfringens B. Streptococcus agalactiae C. Escherichia coli D. Clostridium tetani

A. Clostridium perfringens

In a clinical specimen, the presence of sulfur granules strongly indicates the presence of which anaerobic bacterium? A. Bacteroides fragilis B. Actinomyces spp. C. Fusobacterium nucleatum D. Clostridium tetani

B. Actinomyces spp

The organism most commonly associated with otitis media infections is associated with which of the following positive test results? A. Coagulase B. VP C. Optochin D. Bacitracin

C. Optochin

The culture of which sample routinely uses quantitation or the counting of bacterial cells present to assist in the interpretation? A. Blood B. Sputum C. Urine D. Abscess

C. Urine

Which of the following is an example of an inappropriate specimen or condition that would warrant rejection for microbiology culture? A. A nonsterile container for a stool culture B. A swab of a skin and soft tissue infection C. A tissue sample for anaerobic culture D. A 24-hour urine sample for bacteriology culture

D. A 24-hour urine sample for bacteriology culture

What is the bacterial count in CFU/mL when compared to 0.5 M Mcfarland? A. 1.5 x 10^8 CFU/mL B. 1.8 x 10^5 CFU/mL C. 0.5 x 10^8 CFU/mL D. 0.8 x 10^5 CFU/mL

A. 1.5 x 10^8 CFU/mL

1. Temperature for viral specimen storage: A. 4 degrees Celsius B. -4 degrees Celsius C. -70 degrees Celsius D. 70 degrees Celsius

A. 4 degrees Celsius

2. Temperature for viral specimen transport: A. 4 degrees Celsius B. -4 degrees Celsius C. -70 degrees Celsius D. 70 degrees Celsius

C. -70 degrees Celsius

Actinomyces: A. Gram negative cocci B. Gram positive bacilli, facultative anaerobe C. Gram negative bacilli, facultative anaerobe D. Gram positive cocci

B. Gram positive bacilli, facultative anaerobe

What is the best time to collect specimen for E. vermicularis? A. Evening B. Night after showering C. Morning after waking up D. Noon

C. Morning after waking up

It is the most common form of autoimmune hemolytic anemia which involves IgG autoantibodies with optimal reactivity at 37 degrees Celsius. A. WAIHA B. Aplastic anemia C. CAIHA D. MAHA

A. WAIHA

It refers to the ability of a single cytokine to alter the expression of several genes. A. Redundancy B. Autocrine stimulation C. Paracrine stimulation D. Pleiotropy

D. Pleiotropy

100

Transcription is: A. Producing DNA from DNA B. Producing proteins from RNA C. Creating chromosomes from DNA and histone proteins D. Producing RNA from DNA

D. Producing RNA from DNA

other names parasitology

Yves Laure Pimentel · 70問 · 2年前

other names parasitology