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100問 • 1年前

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Antinuclear antibody tests are performed to help diagnose: a acute leukemia b lupus erythematosus c hemolytic anemia d Crohn disease

b lupus erythematosus

‘In the anti-double-stranded DNA procedure, the antigen most commonly utilized is: a rat stomach tissue b mouse kidney tissue ¢ Crithidia luciliae d Toxoplasma gondii

¢ Crithidia luciliae

Refer to the following illustration: Which of the ANA patterns shown above would be associated with high titers of antibodies to the Sm antigen? diagram A diagram B diagram C diagram D

diagram C

Sera to be tested for IFA-ANA 6 days after drawing is best stored at: a room temperature b 5°C#2°C c -70°C in a constant temperature freezer d ~20°C in a frost-free self-defrosting freezer

c -70°C in a constant temperature freezer

Antibodies directed at native DNA are most frequently associated with which pattern of fluorescence in the IFA-ANA test? a rim b diffuse c speckled d centromere

a rim

The technologist observes apparent homogenous staining of the nucleus of interphase cells while performing an IFA-ANA, as well as staining of the chromosomes in mitotic cells. This result is: a indicative of 2 antibodies, which should be separately reported after titration b expected for anti-DNA antibodies c inconsistent; the test should be reported with new reagent d_ expected for anti-centromere antibodies

b expected for anti-DNA antibodies

The result of an anti-nuclear antibody test was a titer of 1:320 with a peripheral pattern. Which of the following sets of results best correlate with these results? anti-dsDNA titer 1:80, and a high titer of antibodies to Sm antimitochondrial antibody titer 1:160, and antibodies to RNP anti-Scl-70, and antibodies to single-stranded DNA high titers of anti-SS-A and anti-SS-B

anti-dsDNA titer 1:80, and a high titer of antibodies to Sm

Systemic lupus erythematosus patients often have which of the following test results? high titers of DNA antibody decreased serum immunoglobulin levels high titers of anti-srmooth muscle antibodies high titers of antimitochondrial antibody

high titers of DNA antibody

Systemic lupus erythematosus patients with active disease often have which of the following test results? a high titers of antimicrosomal antibodies b high titers of anti-smooth muscle antibodies c marked decrease in serum CH50 d decreased serum immunoglobulin levels

c marked decrease in serum CH50

Which of the following is decreased in serum during the active stages of systemic lupus erythematosus? anti-nuclear antibody immune complexes complement (C3) anti-DNA

complement (C3)

A positive ANA with the pattern of anticentromere antibodies is mest frequently seen in patients with: rheumatoid arthritis systemic lupus erythematosus CREST syndrome Sjégren syndrome

CREST syndrome

Inthe indirect fluorescent anti-nuclear antibody test, a homogenous pattern indicates the presence of antibody to: RNP Sm RNA DNA

DNA

In the indirect fluorescent anti-nuclear antibody test, a speckled pattern may indicate the presence of antibody to: a histone b Sm c RNA d DNA

b Sm

A patient has the following test results: ANA ASO Gomplement RA +, 1:320 50 Todd units decreased + The above results could be seen in patients with: a rheumatic fever b rheumatoid arthritis c lupus erythematosus d glomerulonephritis

c lupus erythematosus

Autoantibodies in the absence of Sm are found in patients with: a mixed connective tissue disease b systemic lupus erythematosus c Crohn disease d multiple myeloma

a mixed connective tissue disease

To make a presumptive diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis, which of the following qualitative methods is most sensitive? a latex agglutination b immunoelectrophoresis c RID d ELISA

a latex agglutination

Rheumatoid factor reacts with: a inert substances such as latex b Rh-positive erythrocytes c kinetoplasts of Crithidia luciliae d gamma globulin-coated particles

d gamma globulin-coated particles

A consistently and repeatedly negative IFA-ANA is: strong evidence against untreated SLE associated with active SLE characteristic of SLE with renal involvement associated with lupus inhibitor

strong evidence against untreated SLE

Positive rheumatoid factor is generally associated with: a hyperglobulinemia b anemia c decreased erythrocyte sedimentation rate d azotemia

a hyperglobulinemia

The following results are from a rubella titer performed on acute and convalescent sera using a 2-fold serial dilution: Date tested: 1/23/04 Acute serum titer: 1:8 Convalescent serum titer: 1:32 After evaluating the above results, the best interpretation is: a results are consistent with active infection with rubella b variation in the acute serum titers invalidates these results c test should be repeated by a different technologist d patient was not infected with rubella

a results are consistent with active infection with rubella

Rheumatoid factors are immunoglobulins with specificity for allotypic determinants located on the: a Fc fragment of IgG b Fab fragment of lgG c J chain of IgM d secretory of component of IgA

a Fc fragment of IgG

Rheumatoid factor in a patient’s serum may cause a false: positive test for the detection of IgM class antibodies negative test for the detection of IgM class antibodies positive test for the detection of IgG class antibodies negative test for the detection of IgG class antibodies

positive test for the detection of IgM class antibodies

Rheumatoid factors are defined as: antigens found in the sera of patients with rheumatoid arthritis identical to the rheumatoid arthritis precipitin autoantibodies with specificity for the Fc portion of the immunoglobulin (IgG) molecule capable of forming circulating immune complexes only when IgM-type autoantibody is present

autoantibodies with specificity for the Fc portion of the immunoglobulin (IgG) molecule

Tissue injury in systemic rheumatic disorders such as systemic lupus erythematosus is thought to be caused by: a cytotoxic T cells b IgE activity c deposition of immune complexes d cytolytic antibodies

c deposition of immune complexes

False-positive rheumatoid factor in agglutination and nephelometric methods can be due to elevated levels of: cryoglobulin histidine-rich-glycoprotein aspartame Clq

Clq

An acute phase protein that binds to the membrane of certain microorganisms and activates the complement system is: a C-reactive protein b tumor necrosis factor alpha ¢ neutrophils d kinins

a C-reactive protein

High titers of antimicrosomal antibodies are most often found in: rheumatoid arthritis systemic lupus erythematosus chronic hepatitis thyroid disease

thyroid disease

Which of the following is an organ-specific autoimmune disease? a myasthenia gravis rheumatoid arthritis Addison disease progressive systemic sclerosis

Addison disease

Inchronic active hepatitis, high titers of which of the following antibodies are seen? antimitochondrial anti-smooth muscle anti-DNA anti-parietal cell

anti-smooth muscle

In primary biliary cirrhosis, which of the following antibodies is seen in high titers? a antimitochondrial anti-smooth muscle anti-DNA anti-parietal cell

a antimitochondrial

Anti-RNA antibodies are often present in individuals having an anti-nuclear antibody immunofluorescent pattern that is: a speckled b rim c diffuse d nucleolar

d nucleolar

Anti-extractable nuclear antigens are most likely associated with which of the following anti-nuclear antibody immunofluorescent patterns? speckled rim diffuse nucleolar

speckled

In an anti-nuclear antibody indirect immunofluorescence test, a sample of patient serum shows a positive, speckled pattern. Which would be the most appropriate additional test to perform? antimitochondrial antibody immunoglobulin quantitation screen for Sm and RNP antibodies anti-DNA antibody using C luciliae

screen for Sm and RNP antibodies

Anti-glomerular basement membrane antibody is most often associated with this condition: a systemic lupus erythematosus b celiac disease c chronic active hepatitis d Goodpasture disease

d Goodpasture disease

A 25-year-old woman is seen by a physician because of Raynaud phenomenon, myalgias, arthralgias and difficulty in swallowing. There is no evidence of renal disease. An ANA titer is 1:5120 with a speckled pattern with mitotic. Which of the following are also likely to be found in this patient? a high-level nDNA antibody and a low CHs, level b high-level Sm antibody c high-titer rheumatoid factor d high-level ribonucleoprotein (RNP) antibody

d high-level ribonucleoprotein (RNP) antibody

In pernicious anemia, which of the following antibodies is characteristically detected? a antimitochondrial anti-smooth muscle anti-DNA anti-parietal cell

anti-parietal cell

Anti-phospholipid antibodies associated with autoimmune disorders tend to have immunoglobulin (IgG) that belongs to which of the following subclasses? IgG1 and IgG3 IgG2 and IgG4 IgG1 and IgG4 IgG2 and IgG3

IgG2 and IgG4

The IIF staining pattern on ethanol-fixed leukocytes slides shows a perinuclear or nuclear staining pattern. This pattern is typically is due to: a C-ANCA b LKM c P-ANCA d GBM

c P-ANCA

The specificity of an immunoassay is determined by the: a label used on the antigen b method used to separate the bound from free antigen c antibody used in the assay d concentration of unlabeled antigen

c antibody used in the assay

In assessing the usefulness of a new laboratory test, sensitivity is defined as the percentage of: a positive specimens correctly identified b false-positive specimens c negative specimens correctly identified d false-negative specimens

a positive specimens correctly identified

Inthe indirect immunofluorescence method of antibody detection, the labeled antibody is: human anti-goat immunoglobulin rheumatoid factor goat anti-human immunoglobulin complement

human anti-goat immunoglobulin

Which of the following describes an antigen-antibody reaction? the reaction is reversible the reaction is the same as a chemical reaction a lattice is formed at prozone a lattice is formed at postzone

the reaction is reversible

The most common label in direct fluorescent antibody technique (DFA) is: alkaline phosphatase horseradish peroxidase fluorescein isothiocyanate calcofluor white

fluorescein isothiocyanate

A substrate is first exposed to a patient’s serum, then after washing, anti-human immunoglobulin labeled with a fluorochrome is added. The procedure described is: fluorescent quenching direct fluorescence indirect fluorescence fluorescence inhibition

indirect fluorescence

Avidity may be defined as the: a degree of hemolysis b titer of an antigen c dilution of an antibody d strength of a reacting antibody

d strength of a reacting antibody

In the interpretation of agglutination tests for febrile diseases, which of the following is of the greatest diagnostic importance? a anamnestic reactions caused by heterologous antigens b rise in titer of the patient’s serum c history of previous vaccination d naturally occurring antibodies prevalent where the disease is endemic

b rise in titer of the patient’s serum

Cholesterol is added to the antigen used in flocculation tests for syphilis to: a destroy tissue impurities present in the alcoholic beef heart extract b sensitize the sheep RBCs c decrease specificity of the antigen d increase sensitivity of the antigen

d increase sensitivity of the antigen

The strength of a visible reaction is known as: prozone reaction absorption avidity elution

avidity

Which of the following describes an antigen-antibody precipitation reaction of non-identity? a precipitin lines cross, forming double spurs b precipitin lines fuse, forming a single spur c no precipitin lines are formed d precipitin lines fuse, forming a single arc

a precipitin lines cross, forming double spurs

Which test has the greatest sensitivity for antigen detection? precipitin agglutination ELISA complement fixation

ELISA

Excess antigen in precipitation gel reactions will: have no effect on the precipitate reaction not dissolve precipitate after formation enhance the precipitate reaction dissolve the precipitate after formation

dissolve the precipitate after formation

Soluble immune complexes are formed under the condition of: antigen deficiency antigen excess antibody excess complement

antigen excess

The visible serological reaction between soluble antigen and its specific antibody is: sensitization precipitation agglutination opsonization

precipitation

The curve below was obtained by adding increasing amounts of a soluble antigen to fixed volumes of monospecific antiserum: The area on the curve for equivalence precipitate is: a A b B c C d D

c C

The curve below was obtained by adding increasing amounts of a soluble antigen to fixed volumes of monospecific antiserum: The area on the curve where no precipitate formed due to antigen excess is: a A b B c C d D

b B

The curve below was obtained by adding increasing amounts of a soluble antigen to fixed volumes of monospecific antiserum: The area on the curve for prozone is: a A b B c C d D

a A

The curve below was obtained by adding increasing amounts of a soluble antigen to fixed volumes of monospecific antiserum: The area on the curve for prozone is: a A b B c C d D

a A

The curve below was obtained by adding increasing amounts of a soluble antigen to fixed volumes of monospecific antiserum: The area on the curve where soluble antigen-antibody complexes have begun to form is: a A b B c C d D

d D

The curve below was obtained by adding increasing amounts of a soluble antigen to fixed volumes of monospecific antiserum: The area in which the addition of more antibody would result in the formation of additional precipitate is: a A b B c C d D

b B

Refer to the following illustration: Which of the above figures demonstrates a reaction pattern of identity? a Figure #1 b Figure #2 c Figure #3 d Figure #4

a Figure #1

Refer to the following illustration: Which of the above figures demonstrates a reaction pattern of nonidentity? a Figure #1 b Figure #2 c Figure #3 d Figure #4

b Figure #2

Refer to the following illustration: Which of the above figures demonstrates a reaction pattern showing 2 different antigenic molecular species? a Figure #1 b Figure #2 c Figure #3 d Figure #4

c Figure #3

Refer to the following illustration: A nonspecific precipitin reaction is demonstrated in: a Figure #1 b Figure #2 c Figure #3 d Figure #4

d Figure #4

Aseries of 8 tubes are set-up with 0.79 mL of diluent in each. A serial dilution is performed by adding 10 pL of serum to the first tube and then transferring 10 pL through each remaining tube. What is the serum dilution of tube 7? a 1:2.431 x 1014 b 1:2.621 x 101! c 1:1.920x 1038 d 1:2.097 x 1038

d 1:2.097 x 1038

the enzyme control tube in an ASO hemolytic assay exhibits no cell lysis. What is the most likely explanation for this? incorrect pH of buffer low ionic strength buffer oxidation of the enzyme reduction of the enzyme

oxidation of the enzyme

The following pattern of agglutination was observed in an antibody titration: Tube 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 1+ 2+ 4+ 4+ 3+ 6+ 2+ 1+ 1+ 0 0 This set of reactions most likely resulted from: a faulty pipetting technique b postzoning c prozoning d the presence of a high-titer, low-avidity antibody

c prozoning

In a positive anti-streptolysin “O” enzyme inhibition test, the patient's: a streptolysin “O” enzyme in the patient serum neutralizes the anti-streptolysin “O” reagent, resulting in no hemolysis b red blood cells are hemolyzed by the streptolysin “O” enzyme in the reagent ¢ anti-streptolysin “O” neutralizes the streptolysin “O” reagent, resulting in hemolysis d anti-streptolysin “O” inhibits the reagent streptolysin “O”’s, resulting in no hemolysis

d anti-streptolysin “O” inhibits the reagent streptolysin “O”’s, resulting in no hemolysis

Blood is drawn from a patient for serological tests for a viral disease at the time of onset and again 4 weeks later. The results of the tests are considered diagnostic if the: a first antibody titer is 2x the second b first and second antibody titers are equal c first antibody is 4x the second d second antibody titer is at least 4x the first

d second antibody titer is at least 4x the first

Which of the following is most useful in establishing a diagnosis in the convalescence phase of a viral infection? slide culture serological techniques shell vial culture on McCoy media

serological techniques

The best method to detect infections due to rubella, Epstein-Barr and human immunodeficiency viruses is: a antigen detection by EIA b cell culture c antigen detection by Western blot d antibody detection by EIA

d antibody detection by EIA

Immunoassays are based on the principle of: a separation of bound and free analyte b antibody recognition of homologous antigen c protein binding to isotopes d production of antibodies against drugs

b antibody recognition of homologous antigen

A DPT vaccination is an example of: active humoral-mediated immunity passive humoral-mediated immunity cell-mediated immunity immediate hypersensitivity

active humoral-mediated immunity

Cells known to be actively phagocytic include: neutrophils, monocytes, basophils neutrophils, eosinophils, monocytes monocytes, lymphocytes, neutrophils lymphocytes, eosinophils, monocytes

neutrophils, eosinophils, monocytes

‘The presence of HbsAg, anti-HBc and often HbeAg is characteristic of: a early acute phase HBV hepatitis b early convalescent phase HBV hepatitis c recovery phase of acute HBV hepatitis d past HBV infection

a early acute phase HBV hepatitis

Refer to the following data: From the test results above, it can be concluded that patient #3 has: a recent acute hepatitis A b acute hepatitis B c acute hepatitis C (non-A/non-B hepatitis) d chronic hepatitis B

b acute hepatitis B

‘The disappearance of HBsAg and HBeAg, the persistence of anti-HBc, the appearance of anti-HBs, and often of anti-HBe indicate: early acute HBV hepatitis early convalescent phase HBV hepatitis recovery phase of acute HBV hepatitis carrier state of acute HBV hepatitis

recovery phase of acute HBV hepatitis

An example of an organ specific disease with autoimmune antibodies is: a Wegener granulomatosus b rheumatoid arthritis c Hashimoto thyroiditis d systemic lupus erythematosus

c Hashimoto thyroiditis

When testing a patient for HIV antibody, which of the following is used to confirm a positive screening test? a radioimmunoassay b Western blot c immunofluorescence d ELISA

b Western blot

Anexample of a live attenuated vaccine used for human immunization is: a rabies tetanus hepatitis B measles

measles

Acold agglutinin titer end point is 1:16 after incubating overnight in the refrigerator and remains MLS onty 1:16 after warming. The best course of action is to: a report the titer as negative b report the titer as positive, 1:16 c repeat the titer with a fresh sample d test for antibody specificity

d test for antibody specificity

w hat kind of antigen-antibody reaction would be expected if soluble antigen is added to homologous antibody? precipitation agglutination complement fixation hemagglutination

precipitation

The Rapid Plasma Reagin test: a is useful in screening for syphilis b is useful in diagnosing syphilis c does not give false-positives d uses heated plasma

a is useful in screening for syphilis

Flocculation tests for syphilis detect the presence of: a reagin antibody b antigen c hemolysin d Forssman antigen

a reagin antibody

Inthe cold agglutinin test, the tubes containing the serum and erythrocytes are allowed to stand overnight in the refrigerator, and the results are read the next morning. If a disk of the erythrocytes floats up from the bottom of the tube with only the flick of finger, this is read as a: a 4+ reaction b 2+ reaction c 1+ reaction d negative reaction

a 4+ reaction

Flocculation tests for syphilis use antigen composed of: Treponema pallidum reagin cardiolipin and lecithin charcoal

cardiolipin and lecithin

The following cold agglutinin titer results are observed: The best interpretation is: positive, 1:128 negative invalid because 37°C reading is negative repeat the 4°C readings

positive, 1:128

AVDRL serum sample is heat inactivated, then placed in a refrigerator for overnight storage. Before being tested, the serum must be: kept colder than 10°C allowed to equilibrate to room temperature warmed to 37°C reheated to 56°C for 10 minutes

reheated to 56°C for 10 minutes

Substances that are antigenic only when coupled to a protein carrier are: a opsonins b haptens c adjuvants d allergens

b haptens

A haptenic determinant will react with: a both T cells and antibody b T cells but not antibody c neither T cells nor antibody d antibody but not T cells

d antibody but not T cells

serological test for syphilis that depends upon the detection of cardiolipin-lecithin-cholesterol antigen is: a FTA-ABS b RPR c MHA-TP d TPI

b RPR

The most important use of a nontreponemal antibody (NTA) test alone is in: a establishing the diagnosis of acute active syphilis b establishing the diagnosis of chronic syphilis c evaluating the success of therapy d determining the prevalence of disease in the general population

c evaluating the success of therapy

The serological test for syphilis recommended for detecting antibody in cerebrospinal fluid is: a nontreponemal antibody b CSF-VDRL c FTA-ABS d MHA-TP

b CSF-VDRL

In the direct fluorescent antibody test for primary syphilis, spirochetes are detected by addition Of labeled antibody to? a Treponema pallidum b cardiolipin ¢ human immunoglobulin d nonpathogenic treponemes

a Treponema pallidum

In the FTA-ABS test, the presence of a beaded pattern of fluorescence along the treponeme indicates: a positive identification of Treponema pallidum b presumptive diagnosis of active syphilis c presence of nontreponemal antibody (NTA) d false-positive reaction

d false-positive reaction

A16-year-old boy with infectious mononucleosis has a cold agglutinin titer of 1:2000, An important consideration of this antibody’s clinical relevance is the: a thermal range b titer at 4°C c specificity d light chain type

a thermal range

The FTA-ABS test for the serological diagnosis of syphilis is: a less sensitive and specific than the VDRL if properly performed b likely to remain positive after adequate antibiotic therapy c currently recommended for testing cerebrospinal fluid d preferred over darkfield microscopy for diagnosing primary syphilis

b likely to remain positive after adequate antibiotic therapy

What assay would confirm the immune status to hepatitis B virus? a HBsAg b anti-HBs c IgM anti-HBcAg d hepatitis C Ag

b anti-HBs

The following procedure has been routinely used for detection of hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg) because of its high level of sensitivity: hemagglutination counterimmunoelectrophoresis radial immunodiffusion ELISA

ELISA

In an indirect ELISA method designed to detect antibody to the rubella virus in patient serum, the conjugate used should be: anti-human IgG conjugated to an enzyme anti-rubella antibody conjugated to an enzyme rubella antigen conjugated to an enzyme anti-rubella antibody conjugated to a substrate

anti-human IgG conjugated to an enzyme

100

A request is received in the laboratory for assistance in selecting the appropriate test(s) for detecting Lyme disease. Which of the following would be suggested? a Stool culture should be done to isolate the causative organism. b ‘The organism is difficult to isolate, and antibody titers will provide the most help. c Borrelia burgdorferi is easily isolated from routine blood cultures. d This is an immunologic syndrome, and cultures are not indicated.

b ‘The organism is difficult to isolate, and antibody titers will provide the most help.

other names parasitology

Yves Laure Pimentel · 70問 · 2年前

other names parasitology