CLINICAL MICROSCOPY PROGRESS EXAM PART 2

100問 • 1年前

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Picture of the process mapping out each individual step so that each group member can understand how it works: * 1/1 Cause-and-effect diagram Flowchart Histogram Pareto chart

Flowchart

It is also known as the FISHBONE diagram; it determines the cause of a problem and identify the different elements that contribute to the problem. It relates the interaction between equipment, methods, and customers. 1/1 Cause-and-effect diagram Flowchart Histogram Pareto chart

Cause-and-effect diagram

Based on the principle which states that 80% of the trouble comes from 20% of the problems; this chart is used to mainly identify the problems. The information in this type of graph displays the major contributors to a problem in descending order of importance. * 0/1 Cause-and-effect diagram Flowchart Histogram Pareto chart

Pareto chart

Red diamond or fire hazard, classified according to Flash Point: * 1/1 A to C A to D 1 to 10 0 to 4

0 to 4

Type of extinguisher for flammable organic chemicals: * 0/1 Class A Class B Class C Class D

Class B

Carbon dioxide fire extinguishers: * 1/1 Class A fire Class B and C fires Class C and D fires Class D and K fires

Class B and C fires

Three-dimensional images of high contrast and resolution are obtained, without haloing: * 1/1 Bright-field microscopy Polarizing microscopy Phase-contrast microscopy Interference contrast microscopy

Interference contrast microscopy

Converting a brightfield microscope for polarizing microscopy requires: * 1/1 Two polarizing filters—one placed below the condenser and one placed between the objective and the eyepiece A special condenser, two polarizing filters, and a Wollaston prism between the objective and the eyepiece An annular diaphragm in the condenser and a phase-shifting element in the objective A slit aperture below the condenser, a polarizing filter, and a modulator

Two polarizing filters—one placed below the condenser and one placed between the objective and the eyepiece

It corrects renal blood flow in the following ways: causing VASODILATION OF THE AFFERENT ARTERIOLES and CONSTRICTION OF THE EFFERENT ARTERIOLES, stimulating reabsorption of sodium and water in the proximal convoluted tubules, and triggering the release of the sodium-retaining hormone aldosterone by the adrenal cortex and antidiuretic hormone by the hypothalamus: * 0/1 Renin Angiotensin I Angiotensin II Aldosterone

Angiotensin II

A FRESH BROWN URINE may indicate: * 0/1 Acute pyelonephritis Cystitis Glomerular bleeding Nephrotic syndrome

Glomerular bleeding

Refractive index: * 0/1 Comparison of the velocity of light in water with the velocity of light in a solution Comparison of the velocity of light in air with the velocity of light in a solution Measurement of soundwave frequency Measurement of the intensity of the color

Comparison of the velocity of light in air with the velocity of light in a solution

Refractometer results are valid up to _______; specimen with greater than this SG should be diluted and remeasured. * 1/1 1.020 1.030 1.035 1.050

1.035

The refractometer provides the distinct advantage of determining specific gravity using ____ urine. * 1/1 1 or 2 drops urine 1 to 2 mL urine 10 mL urine 15 mL urine

1 or 2 drops urine

Volume of urine for urinometry: * 1/1 1 to 2 drops 1 to 2 mL 3 to 5 mL 10 to 15 mL

10 to 15 mL

For specific gravity reagent pad: highly buffered alkaline urine may cause low readings, and 0.005 may be added to readings from urines with pH of ___ or greater. * 0/1 5.0 6.0 6.5 7.0

6.5

Which of the following tests is affected LEAST by standing or improperly stored urine? * 1/1 Glucose Protein pH Bilirubin

Protein

Incorporation of the indicator bromthymol blue on the reagent pad MEASURES THE CHANGE IN pH. * 0/1 Ketone Protein Specific gravity Urobilinogen

Specific gravity

Indicators change color even though the pH of the reagent REMAINS CONSTANT: * 0/1 pH Specific gravity Protein None of these

Protein

Daily loss of protein in urine normally does not exceed: * 1/1 30 mg 50 mg 100 mg 150 mg

150 mg

Which of the following is least likely to cause a false-positive result with turbidimetric protein tests? * 1/1 Tolbutamide X-ray contrast media Penicillin or sulfa antibiotics Ascorbic acid

Ascorbic acid

Glucose oxidase-peroxidase reagent strip and Clinitest result in galactosuria: * 0/1 Negative reagent strip and Clinitest Positive reagent strip and Clinitest Negative reagent strip, positive Clinitest Positive reagent strip, negative Clinitest

Negative reagent strip, positive Clinitest

A speckled pattern on the blood pad of the reagent strip indicates: * 1/1 Hematuria Hemoglobinuria Myoglobinuria All of the above

Hematuria

Uniform blue color on the blood pad of the reagent strip: 1.Hematuria 2.Hemoglobinuria 3.Myoglobinuria 1 only 1 and 2 2 and 3 1, 2 and 3

2 and 3

Medication associated with myoglobinuria: * 0/1 Aspirin Paracetamol Statin Prednisone

Statin

Positive result for Ictotest: * 1/1 Blue to purple mat Green mat Pink mat Red mat

Blue to purple mat

Urobilinogen is ______ and labile. 0/1 Colorless Yellow Green Brown

Colorless

One (1) Ehrlich unit is equivalent to: * 0/1 1 mg/mL 1 mg/dL 10 mg/dL 10 g/dL

1 mg/dL

Urine preserved with formalin: * 0/1 False positive urobilinogen False negative urobilinogen Variable Unaffected

False negative urobilinogen

Hoesch reagent: * 0/1 Ehrlich reagent dissolved in 3 M HCl Ehrlich reagent dissolved in 6 M HCl Ehrlich reagent dissolved in 3 M NaOH Ehrlich reagent dissolved in 6 M NaOH

Ehrlich reagent dissolved in 6 M HCl

Nitrite in a urine specimen suggests the presence of: * 1/1 White blood cells Gram positive bacteria Gram negative bacteria Yeasts

Gram negative bacteria

Positive Greiss reaction: * 1/1 Staphylococcus saprophyticus Streptococcus pyogenes Neisseria gonorrhoeae Escherichia coli

Escherichia coli

High urine specific gravity: * 0/1 False positive nitrite False negative nitrite False positive blood None of these

False negative nitrite

Purple colors are observed in the positive reactions for: * 1/1 Blood and glucose Ketone and leukocytes Bilirubin and protein Protein and nitrite

Ketone and leukocytes

Principle of the Micral test: * 0/1 Agglutination Enzyme immunoassay Immunofluorescence Precipitation

Enzyme immunoassay

Significant Albumin Excretion Rate (AER): * 0/1 10 to 20 µg/min 30 to 50 µg/min Less than 20 µg/min 20 to 200 µg/min

20 to 200 µg/min

Abnormal result for the ALBUMIN:CREATININE ratio: * 1/1 1 to 10 mg/g 10 to 20 mg/g 20 to 200 mg/g 30 to 300 mg/g

30 to 300 mg/g

The presence of DYSMORPHIC RED BLOOD CELLS in the urine sediment is indicative of which of the following? * 0/1 Coagulation disorder Menstrual contamination UTI Glomerular bleeding

Glomerular bleeding

Differentiation among RBCs, yeast, and oil droplets may be accomplished by all of the following EXCEPT: * 1/1 Observation of budding in yeast cells Increased refractility of oil droplets Lysis of yeast cells by acetic acid Lysis of RBCs by acetic acid

Lysis of yeast cells by acetic acid

Glitter cells are neutrophils: * 0/1 Exposed to urine with high specific gravity Exposed to urine with low specific gravity Containing lipids Containing non-lipid vacuoles

Exposed to urine with low specific gravity

A 22-year-old female clinical laboratory student performs a urinalysis on her own urine as part of a lab class. Color, appearance = yellow, cloudy pH = 7.5 Leukocyte esterase = 2+ Nitrite = positive Microscopic findings: 25-40 WBC/hpf 0-3 RBC/hpf Moderate bacteria All other chemistries and microscopic results were normal. These findings suggest: * 1/1 Glomerulonephritis Upper UTI Lower UTI Nephrolithiasis

Lower UTI

Vaginal contamination may be responsible for the appearance of which element in the urine from a female patient? * 1/1 Glucose Hyaline casts Ketones Squamous epithelium

Squamous epithelium

The presence of more than ___ RTE cells per high-power field indicates TUBULAR INJURY, and such specimens should be referred for cytologic urine testing. * 0/1 >1 RTE cells/hpf >2 RTE cells/ hpf >5 RTE cells/hpf >10 RTE cells/ hpf

>2 RTE cells/ hpf

GRANULAR, DIRTY, BROWN CASTS representing hemoglobin degradation products are associated with: * 0/1 Cystitis Acute pyelonephritis Acute interstitial nephritis Acute tubular necrosis

Acute tubular necrosis

40-year-old female patient with a history of kidney infection is seen by her physician because she has felt lethargic for a few weeks. She has decreased frequency of urination and a bloated feeling. Physical examination shows periorbital swelling and general edema, including a swollen abdomen. Significant urinalysis results show the following: Color = yellow Appearance = cloudy/frothy pH = 7.0 Specific gravity = 1.022 Protein = 4+ Microscopic findings: 0-3 WBC/hpf 0-1 RBC/hpf 0-2 renal epithelial cells/hpf Occasional oval fat bodies 0-20 hyaline casts/lpf 0-1 granular cast/lpf 0-1 fatty cast/lpf Her serum chemistries show significantly decreased albumin, increased urea nitrogen, and increased creatinine. These findings suggest which condition? * 1/1 Multiple myeloma Glomerulonephritis Nephrotic syndrome Chronic renal failure

Nephrotic syndrome

Crystals in an amber-colored urine: Crystals appear as clumped needles or granules with the characteristic yellow color. These crystals are characteristic of: * 0/1 Acute glomerulonephritis Acute pyelonephritis Hepatic disorders Lipiduria example, nephrotic syndrome

Hepatic disorders

Trichomonas can be seen in a urinary microscopic sample, but cannot be reported unless _______is observed. * 0/1 WBC RBC RTE cell Motility

Motility

Fecal contamination of a urine specimen can also result in the presence of ova from intestinal parasites in the urine sediment. The most common contaminant is ova from: * 0/1 Ascaris lumbricoides Enterobius vermicularis Trichuris trichiura Trichomonas vaginalis

Enterobius vermicularis

These granules are highly refractile spheres, usually with a dimpled center. * 1/1 Oil droplets Starch granules Pollen grains Hair and fibers

Starch granules

Conditions favoring the formation of renal calculi, EXCEPT: * 1/1 Age Chemical concentration pH Urinary stasis

Age

Urinalysis on a patient with severe back pain being evaluated for renal calculi would be most beneficial if it showed: * 0/1 Heavy proteinuria Low specific gravity Uric acid crystals Microscopic hematuria

Microscopic hematuria

Calculi formation at pH > 7: * 0/1 Uric acid, cystine, xanthine Calcium oxalate, apatite Triple phosphate, calcium phosphate All of the above

Triple phosphate, calcium phosphate

Calculi associated with excessive glycogen breakdown: * 0/1 Calcium oxalate Cystine Triple phosphate Uric acid and urate

Calcium oxalate

Physical examination of the CSF sample may be done using this tube: * 0/1 Tube 1 Tube 2 Tube 3 None of these

Tube 3

Bloody CSF indicative of traumatic tap: * 1/1 Even distribution of blood in 3 collections tubes Presence of erythrophages Uneven distribution of blood in 3 collection tubes Xanthochromic supernatant

Uneven distribution of blood in 3 collection tubes

Presence of clot in CSF: 1.Traumatic tap 2.Froin’s syndrome 3.Tuberculous meningitis 4.Intracranial hemorrhage * 0/1 1 only 1 and 3 1, 2 and 3 1, 2, 3 and 4

1, 2 and 3

Eosinophils may be increased in CSF in fungal infections primarily with: * 0/1 Candida albicans Coccidioides immitis Cryptococcus neoformans Histoplasma capsulatum

Coccidioides immitis

As little as 0.1 mL of CSF combined with one drop of ____ produces an adequate cell yield when processed with the cytocentrifuge. * 1/1 Normal saline 10% formalin 10% albumin 30% albumin

30% albumin

For CSF testing, a daily control slide for bacteria should also be prepared using: * 1/1 10% albumin 30% albumin 0.2 mL saline + 2 drops 10% albumin 0.2 mL saline + 2 drops 30% albumin

0.2 mL saline + 2 drops 30% albumin

CSF cell count should be performed: * 1/1 Immediately Within 1 hour Within 2 hours Within 24 hours

Immediately

Compute for the WBC count in patient’s CSF. Dilution 1:20, counted in 4 corner squares Given are the number of WBCs in each square: Square 1: 40 Square 2: 43 Square 3: 43 Square 4: 44 * 1/1 2, 125 WBCs/cu.mm. 4, 250 WBCs/cu.mm. 8, 500 WBCs/cu.mm. 17,000 WBCs/cu.mm.

8, 500 WBCs/cu.mm.

Arrange the following from the youngest to the most mature stage: 1.Spermatids 2.Spermatocytes 3.Spermatogonia 4.Spermatozoa * 1/1 4-3-1-2 4-3-2-1 3-4-1-4 3-2-1-4

3-2-1-4

Seminal fluid is collected following a period of sexual abstinence of: * 0/1 1 to 3 days 3 to 5 days 2 to 7 days 7 to 10 days

2 to 7 days

Semen collection: * 1/1 First portion of the ejaculate Middle portion of the ejaculate Third portion of the ejaculate Complete ejaculate

Complete ejaculate

A BROWN OR RED HUE IN SEMINAL FLUID may indicate the presence of: * 1/1 Bile Bilirubin Blood Medication

Blood

For sperm concentration, both sides of the hemocytometer are loaded and allowed to settle for 3 to 5 minutes; then they are counted, and the counts should agree within ___%. * 0/1 Agree within 10% Agree within 15% Agree within 20% Agree within 25%

Agree within 10%

Compute for the SPERM COUNT: 50 sperms were counted in 5 RBC squares Dilution of 1:10 Total volume of seminal fluid is 2 mL * 0/1 25 M/mL 25 M/ejaculate 50 M/mL 50 M/ejaculate

50 M/ejaculate

Escherichia coli infection can cause sperm: * 1/1 Abnormal head Abnormal tail Decreased pH Sperm agglutination and immobilization

Sperm agglutination and immobilization

Powdered anticoagulants should not be used for synovial fluid because they may produce artifacts that interfere with: * 0/1 Cell count Crystal analysis Glucose analysis Protein analysis

Crystal analysis

Family history of chromosome abnormalities, such as trisomy 21 (Down syndrome), amniocentesis may be indicated at: * 1/1 1 to 14 weeks 15 to 18 weeks 20 to 42 weeks Any of these

15 to 18 weeks

Portion of the amniotic fluid arises from all of the following, EXCEPT: * 1/1 Fetal urine Fetal respiratory tract Amniotic membrane Umbilical cord Bone marrow

Bone marrow

The amount of amniotic fluid increases in quantity throughout pregnancy, reaching a peak of approximately ____ mL during the third trimester, and then gradually decreases prior to delivery. * 1/1 400 to 800 mL 800 to 1,200 mL 1,200 to 1,500 mL 2,000 to 4, 000 mL

800 to 1,200 mL

Which of the following results of a test on the mother would suggest a possible neural tube defect in the fetus? * 0/1 A positive antibody screen A glucose value of 140 mg/dL An α-fetoprotein result of 0.1 MoM An α-fetoprotein result of 3.0 MoM

An α-fetoprotein result of 3.0 MoM

An increased level of AFP in the serum or amniotic fluid of a pregnant woman is seen in: * 0/1 Immature fetal lungs Hemolytic disease Open neural tube defects such as spina bifida Down syndrome

Open neural tube defects such as spina bifida

Low level of AFP in the serum or amniotic fluid of a pregnant woman is seen in: * 0/1 Immature fetal lungs Hemolytic disease Open neural tube defects such as spina bifida Down syndrome

Down syndrome

O.D. 650 * 1/1 Acetylcholinesterase Bilirubin Lamellar bodies Oxyhemoglobin

Lamellar bodies

Amniotic fluid for OD 650: * 1/1 Addition of ethanol Addition of methanol Centrifuged at 2000 g for 10 minutes Mix the sample by gentle inversion or by placing the test tube on a tube rocker

Centrifuged at 2000 g for 10 minutes

Method for counting lamellar bodies: * 1/1 Densitometry Flow cytometry Impedance Radiofrequency

Impedance

Amniotic fluid for lamellar body count: * 1/1 Addition of ethanol Addition of methanol Centrifuged at 2000 g for 10 minutes Mix the sample by gentle inversion or by placing the test tube on a tube rocker

Mix the sample by gentle inversion or by placing the test tube on a tube rocker

Pleural fluid triglycerides >110 mg/dL: * 0/1 Hemothorax Hemorrhagic effusion Chylous effusion Pseudochylous effusion

Chylous effusion

Pleural fluid triglycerides <50 mg/dL: * 0/1 Hemothorax Hemorrhagic effusion Chylous effusion Pseudochylous effusion

Pseudochylous effusion

Peritoneal fluid glucose decreased below serum level in: 1.Bacterial peritonitis 2.Tubercular peritonitis 3.Malignancy 4.Pancreatic disorders * 0/1 1 and 2 1 and 3 1, 2 and 3 1, 2, 3 and 4

1, 2 and 3

True for sputum: * 1/1 Green in color Healthy individual normally produce sputum Secreted by the tracheobronchial tree All of these

Secreted by the tracheobronchial tree

Lymphocytes in BAL, normally constituting ____ percent of the cell population. * 0/1 Less than 1 to 2% Less than 3% 1 to 15% 56 to 80%

1 to 15%

Induces secretion of hydrochloric acid by parietal cells of the gastric glands: * 0/1 Pepsin Pepsinogen Gastrin Trypsin

Gastrin

Gastric fluid is collected after overnight fasting; four 15-minute samples are collected: * 1/1 Basal acid output (BAO) Maximum acid output (MAO) Both of these None of these

Basal acid output (BAO)

Failure of the stomach acidity to fall lower than 6.0 in a stimulation test: * 0/1 Achlorhydria Euchlorhydria Hypochlorhydria Anacidity

Anacidity

Physiologic failure of pH to fall below 3.5, although it decreases 1.0 pH unit or more upon gastric stimulation: * 0/1 Achlorhydria Euchlorhydria Hypochlorhydria Anacidity

Hypochlorhydria

Normal fecal specimen contains: * 0/1 Water Water and electrolytes Water, electrolytes and bacteria Water, electrolytes, bacteria and blood

Water, electrolytes and bacteria

The D-xylose absorption test is used for the differential diagnosis of which two diseases? * 1/1 Pancreatic insufficiency from malabsorption Primary from secondary disorders of glycogen synthesis Type 1 and type 2 diabetes mellitus Generalized from specific carbohydrate intolerance

Pancreatic insufficiency from malabsorption

Which type of urine sample is needed for a D-xylose absorption test on an adult patient? * 0/1 24-hour urine sample collected with 20 mL of 6 N HCl 2-hour timed postprandial urine preserved with boric acid 5-hour timed urine kept under refrigeration Random urine preserved with formalin

5-hour timed urine kept under refrigeration

A patient has been diagnosed with an upper gastrointestinal bleed. Which of the following would be characteristic for this condition? * 1/1 Brown stool with streaks of bright red Stool with a much darker brown/black color Stool with lack of brown color (clay-colored) Yellow stool with increased mucus

Stool with a much darker brown/black color

Stool color if patient takes FERROUS SULFATE: * 0/1 Deep red Black Gray Brown

Black

Appearance of stool in PANCREATIC DISORDERS: * 1/1 Black color Bulky, frothy Pale yellow or white Ribbon-like

Bulky, frothy

Inability to digest the gelatin in the X-RAY FILM test indicates a deficiency in ____ production. * 1/1 Elastase Gastrin Pepsin Trypsin

Trypsin

Which test is MOST SENSITIVE AND SPECIFIC ENZYME in detecting persons with chronic pancreatitis? * 0/1 Fecal trypsin Fecal chymotrypsin Fecal elastin-1 Plasma lipase

Fecal elastin-1

With the two-slide qualitative fecal fat determination, the first slide produces a normal amount of staining fat present, whereas the second slide, following acid addition and heat, produces an abnormally increased amount of fat. These results indicate: * 1/1 Malabsorption Maldigestion Parasitic infestation Disaccharidase deficiency

Malabsorption

Quantitative fecal fat analysis requires a ____ specimen. * 0/1 12-hour specimen 24-hour specimen 48-hour specimen 72-hour specimen

72-hour specimen

Yellow–brown or colorless elongated prisms or plates May be so thin as to resemble needles, and they often cluster together Crystals are rarely seen in the urine and have practically no clinical significance Cholesterol Cystine Hippuric acid Leucine

Hippuric acid

Lycopodium is similar in appearance to ________ and is used as a dusting powder. * 0/1 Air bubbles Cornstarch Cloth fiber Oil droplets

Cornstarch

100

Most frequently occurring parasite in the urine: * 1/1 Ascaris lumbricoides Enterobius vermicularis Schistosoma haematobium Trichomonas vaginalis

Trichomonas vaginalis

other names parasitology

Yves Laure Pimentel · 70問 · 2年前

other names parasitology