IMMUNOLOGY & SEROLOGY PROGRESS EXAM

45問 • 1年前

問題一覧

False-positive nontreponemal tests for syphilis may occur because of which of the following? * 1/1 Infectious mononucleosis Systemic lupus erythematosus Pregnancy All of these

All of these

Which test is recommended for testing cerebrospinal fluid for detection of neurosyphilis? * 1/1 RPR VDRL FTA-ABS Enzyme immunoassay

VDRL

An RPR test done on a 19-year-old woman as part of a prenatal workup was negative but exhibited a rough appearance. What should the technologist do next? * 0/1 Report the result out as negative. Do a VDRL test Send the sample for confirmatory testing. Make serial dilutions and do a titer.

Make serial dilutions and do a titer.

Suppose an individual develops antibodies in response to a streptococcal pharyngitis infection. This is an example of: * 0/1 Active immunity Passive immunity Adoptive immunity Immunoprophylaxis

Active immunity

Protection from smallpox could be generated by the transfer of pustular material from cowpox lesion instead of the more hazardous smallpox lesion: * 0/1 Edward Jenner Louis Pasteur Jules Bordet Robert Kaus Correct answer Edward Jenner

Edward Jenner

What was one of the major contributions of Louis Pasteur to vaccine development? * 0/1 Development of the smallpox vaccine Use of attenuated microorganisms in vaccines Inactivation of bacterial toxins for vaccines Discovery of recombinant vaccine antigens

Use of attenuated microorganisms in vaccines

The antigenic component of the hepatitis B vaccine differs from those of many of the conventional vaccines in that it consists of a: * 1/1 Live, attenuated virus Inactivated virus Cryptic antigen Recombinant antigen

Recombinant antigen

Plays an important role in protecting the kidney from damage and in preventing the loss of iron by urinary excretion: * 0/1 Alpha1-antitrypsin Ceruloplasmin Haptoglobin Fibrinogen

Haptoglobin

Serves to promote aggregation of red blood cells, and increased levels contribute to an increased risk for developing coronary artery disease, especially in women: * 0/1 Alpha1-antitrypsin Ceruloplasmin Haptoglobin Fibrinogen

Fibrinogen

A deficiency can result in premature emphysema, especially in individuals who smoke or who are exposed to a noxious occupational environment: * 1/1 Alpha1-antitrypsin Ceruloplasmin Haptoglobin Fibrinogen

Alpha1-antitrypsin

Acute phase reactants elevated up to 1000x in inflammation: * 1/1 CRP and ceruloplasmin CRP and serum amyloid Ceruloplasmin and fibrinogen Ceruloplasmin and haptoglobin

CRP and serum amyloid

CRP is produced by the: * 1/1 Kidney Liver Bone marrow Thymus

Liver

All tissue macrophages arise from: * 1/1 B lymphocytes Basophils Neutrophils Monocytes

Monocytes

Considered the most effective antigen-presenting cells (APCs): * 1/1 T cells Macrophages Neutrophils Dendritic cells

Dendritic cells

Tissue mast cells resemble: * 1/1 Basophil Eosinophil Monocyte Neutrophil

Basophil

An immunofluorescence test using reagent antibody directed against the CD3 surface marker would identify which of the following cell types in a sample of human peripheral blood? * 1/1 All mature T lymphocytes T helper lymphocytes only Cytotoxic T lymphocytes only T regulatory cells only

All mature T lymphocytes

The ability of a single cytokine to alter the expression of several genes is called: * 1/1 Redundancy Pleiotropy Autocrine stimulation Endocrine effect

Pleiotropy

Indirect immunofluorescence is similar to which type of enzyme immunoassay in terms of the performance of the assay? * 1/1 Competitive Capture ELISA Homogeneous

ELISA

The positive and negative control values for an ELISA procedure are below their acceptable ranges. What is the most likely cause? * 0/1 Decay of the positive and negative controls Incomplete washing following specimen addition Overly long incubation times Decay of the antibody-enzyme conjugate

Decay of the antibody-enzyme conjugate

How much diluent needs to be added to 0.2 mL of serum to make a 1:20 dilution? * 1/1 19.8 mL 4.0 mL 3.8 mL 10 mL

3.8 mL

Which of the following describes the expression of most blood group inheritance? * 1/1 Dominant Recessive Sex-linked Codominant

Codominant

The anti-G antibody would be negative with which of the following red cell genotypes? * 1/1 Ror rr R2r r'r

A donor tested D-negative using commercial anti-D reagent. The weak D test was positive. How should the RBC unit be labeled? * 0/1 D-positive D-negative D variant Varies with blood bank policy

D-positive

Antibodies to the Rh blood group system antigens are usually characterized as: * 0/1 Naturally occurring IgM Immune IgG Immune IgM Naturally occurring IgG and IgM

Immune IgG

Which of the following antibodies can be neutralized by pooled human urine? * 1/1 Anti-Cs Anti-Sd Anti-Ch Anti-Vel

Anti-Sd

The procedure that removes intact antibodies from the red cell membranes is: * 1/1 Autoadsorption Neutralization Enzyme pretreatment Elution

Elution

The removal of an antibody from serum or plasma using the individual’s own red cells is: * 1/1 Autoadsorption Differential adsorption Neutralization Elution

Autoadsorption

The greatest danger to the fetus (before delivery) affected by HDFN is: * 1/1 Kernicterus Anemia Hyperbilirubinemia Hypertension

Anemia

The greatest danger to the newborn affected by HDFN is: * 1/1 Kernicterus Anemia Conjugated bilirubin Low L/S ratio

Kernicterus

The appearance of spherocytes in a baby’s blood smear after delivery is usually associated with: * 0/1 ABO HDFN HDFN caused by anti-D HDFN caused by other IgG antibodies Normal physiologic anemia detected in newborns

ABO HDFN

Although ABO compatibility is preferred, ABO incompatibility is acceptable for which of the following components? * 0/1 PF24 Cryoprecipitated AHF Apheresis granulocyte Apheresis platelets

Cryoprecipitated AHF

Which of the following is not a basic component of a QA program? * 0/1 Calibration Preventive maintenance Viral marker testing Record keeping

Viral marker testing

All blood banks as mandated by law must have a: * 1/1 Water fountain Written laboratory safety program BSC Foot-operated hand wash

Written laboratory safety program

An ABO discrepancy between forward and reverse grouping owing to weak-reacting or missing antibodies could be BEST explained by which of the following: * 0/1 Patient has a subgroup of blood group A Patient is very old or very young Patient has acquired B phenotype Patient has antibodies to low incidence antigens Patient has antibodies against reagent preservatives

Patient is very old or very young

Three genes responsible for the production of Rh antigens: * 0/1 RHAG, RH1, and RH2 RHAG, DCE, and dce RHAG, RHD, and RHCE RHD, RHCc, and RHEe RHD, RHCE, and RHce

RHAG, RHD, and RHCE

Which alloantibody is most likely to be produced if a patient that has the Rh genotype of R1R1 is transfused with red blood cells that have an Rh genotype of R0R0? * 1/1 Anti-D Anti-C Anti-c Anti-E Anti-e

Anti-c

Anti-G will react with red blood cells of each of the following phenotypes except: * 1/1 D+C- D-C+ D-C- D+C+ rG

D-C-

If a patient had a positive direct antiglobulin test (DAT) with Anti-IgG, what would happen if you performed a Weak D test on the patient cells? * 0/1 A false-positive result A false-negative result An indeterminate result A valid test result An invalid Rh control test

A false-positive result

This null produces red blood cells that are resistant to lysis by the addition of 2M Urea, allowing for donor compatibility screening for this phenotype without using antisera. * 0/1 Fy(a-b-) phenotype Le(a-b-) phenotype Lu(a-b-) phenotype Co(a-b-) phenotype Jk(a-b-) phenotype

Jk(a-b-) phenotype

The rarest of all blood types is characterized by the absence of the common H antigen. This leads to the production of a naturally occurring, hemolytic anti-H. People with this null can only be transfused with red blood cells from other people with this null. * 0/1 McLeod phenotype Bombay phenotype Rhnull phenotype In(Lu)

Bombay phenotype

Which of the following is associated with HDN? * 0/1 Gerbich Gregory Holley Vel

Gerbich

If the father of a fetus is Rh positive and the mother is Rh negative, what are the chances that there will be a mother-fetus incompatibility problem? Assume that the couple already had a first child with no medical problems. * 1/1 100% At least 50% Less than 50% 0%

At least 50%

Antibody potentiators, EXCEPT: * 1/1 LISS PEG Ficin Trypsin

Trypsin

Immune A and B alloantibodies differ from non-red cell stimulated (naturally occurring) A and B alloantibodies in that the immune antibodies: * 1/1 Are generally IgG rather than IgM Are unable to cross the placenta Can be enhanced in reactivity by incubation at 4C Cause direct agglutination at room temperature Rarely cause clinical hemolysis

Are generally IgG rather than IgM

A blood donor has the genotype hh, AB. What is his apparent red cell phenotype during routine forward and reverse group typing? * 0/1 A B O AB Cannot be determined

other names parasitology

Yves Laure Pimentel · 70問 · 2年前

other names parasitology