POPCORN

100問 • 1年前

問題一覧

Ingested by an Anopheles mosquito during a blood meal: A. Gametocytes B. Hypnozoites C. Merozoites D. Sporozoites

A. Gametocytes

A male urethral discharge specimen submitted for culture should be inoculated to: A. Sheep blood and phenylethyl alcohol agars B. Eosin-methylene blue and sheep blood agars C. Thioglycolate broth and chocolate agar D. Chocolate and modified Thayer-Martin agars

D. Chocolate and modified Thayer-Martin agars

A listless 12-month-old boy with a fever of 103°F was taken to the emergency department. He had been diagnosed with an ear infection 3 days earlier. A spinal tap was performed, but only one tube of CSF was obtained from the lumbar puncture. The single tube of CSF should be submitted first to which department? A. Chemistry B. Microbiology C. Hematology D. Cytology/Histology

B. Microbiology

A 65-year-old female outpatient was requested by her physician to submit a 24-hour urine specimen for protein and creatinine tests. He also requested testing for mycobacteria in the urine. Should the microbiology laboratory accept this 24-hour specimen for culture? A. Yes, if the specimen is kept on ice B. Yes, if the specimen is for aerobic culture only C. No, the specimen must be kept at room temperature D. No, the specimen is unsuitable for the recovery of mycobacteria

D. No, the specimen is unsuitable for the recovery of mycobacteria

A lymph node biopsy obtained from a 30-year-old male patient was submitted to the microbiology laboratory for a culture and AFB smear for mycobacteria. The specimen was fixed in formalin. This specimen should be: A. Accepted for AFB smear and cultured B. Rejected C. Held at room temperature for 24 hoursand then cultured D. Cultured for anaerobes only

B. Rejected

An isolate of Staphylococcus aureus was cultured from an ulcer obtained from the leg of a diabetic 79-year-old female patient. The organism showed resistance to methicillin. Additionally, this isolate should be tested for resistance or susceptibility to: A. Erythromycin B. Gentamicin C. Vancomycin D. Kanamycin

C. Vancomycin

A 1-month-old infant underwent a spinal tap to rule out bacterial meningitis. The CSF was cloudy, and the smear showed many pus cells and short gram-positive rods. After 18 hours, many colonies appeared on blood agar that resembled Streptococcus spp. or L. monocytogenes. Which of the following preliminary tests should be performed on the colonies to best differentiate L. monocytogenes from Streptococcus spp.? A. Hanging-drop motility (25°C) and catalase B. PYR and bacitracin C. Oxidase and glucose D. Coagulase and catalase

A. Hanging-drop motility (25°C) and catalase

Which biochemical tests should be performed in order to identify colorless colonies growing on MacConkey agar (swarming colonies on blood agar) from a catheterized urine specimen? A. Indole, phenylalanine deaminase, and urease B. Glucose, oxidase, and lactose utilization C. Phenylalanine deaminase and bile solubility D. H2S and catalase

A. Indole, phenylalanine deaminase, and urease

A Haemophilus spp., recovered from a throat culture obtained from a 59-year-old male patient undergoing chemotherapy, required hemin (X factor) and NAD (V factor) for growth. This species also hemolyzed horse erythrocytes on blood agar. What is the most likely species? A. H. ducreyi B. H. parahaemolyticus C. H. haemolyticus D. H. aegyptius

C. H. haemolyticus

Cycloserine–cefoxitin-fructose agar (CCFA) is used for the recovery of: A. Yersinia enterocolitica B. Yersinia intermedia C. Clostridium perfringens D. Clostridium difficile

D. Clostridium difficile

Which procedure is appropriate for culture of genital specimens in order to recover Chlamydia spp.? A. Inoculate cycloheximide-treated McCoy cells B. Plate onto blood and chocolate agar C. Inoculate into thioglycollate (THIO) broth D. Plate onto modified Thayer–Martin agar within 24 hours

A. Inoculate cycloheximide-treated McCoy cells

According to the Kirby–Bauer standard antimicrobial susceptibility testing method, what should be done when interpreting the zone size of a motile, swarming organism such as a Proteus species? A. The swarming area should be ignored B. The results of the disk diffusion method areinvalid C. The swarming area should be measured as thegrowth boundary D. The isolate should be retested after diluting to a 0.05 McFarland standard

A. The swarming area should be ignored

A positive Simmons citrate test is seen as a: A. Blue color in the medium after 24 hours of incubation at 35°C B. Red color in the medium after 18 hours of incubation at 35°C C. Yellow color in the medium after 24 hoursof incubation at 35°C D. Green color in the medium after 18 hours of incubation at 35°C

A. Blue color in the medium after 24 hours of incubation at 35°C

Putrescine is an alkaline amine product of which bacterial enzyme? A. Arginine decarboxylase B. Phenylalanine deaminase C. Ornithine decarboxylase D. Lysine decarboxylase

C. Ornithine decarboxylase

A stool specimen is submitted for culture. The results are: beta-hemolytic on blood agar, NLF on MacConkey, oxidase positive, bull’s-eye appearance on CIN agar. This organism is most likely: A. A. hydrophilia B. Y. enterocolitica C. C. violaceum D. G. hollisae

A. A. hydrophilia

Campylobacter are: A. Small, curved, motile, gram-positive bacilli B. Small, curved, motile gram-negative bacilli C. Small, curved, nonmotile, gram-negative bacilli D. Small, curved, nonmotile, gram-negative bacilli

B. Small, curved, motile gram-negative bacilli

Which test can be used to differentiate T. mentagrophytes from T. rubrum? A. Fluorescence using a Wood’s lamp B. In vitro hair perforation C. Red color on reverse side of colony D. Pyriform microconidia

B. In vitro hair perforation

Loeffler’s agar slant is a special culture medium used to recover which organism? A. Streptococcus pyogenes B. Corynebacterium diphtheriae C. Bordetella pertussis D. Neisseria meningitidis

B. Corynebacterium diphtheriae

Which of the following bacteria is able to hydrolyze urea via urease production, which results in an increase in urine pH that is toxic to kidney cells and stimulates the formation of kidney stones? A. E. coli B. Proteus C. S. aureus D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

B. Proteus

Optochin sensitivity is used to differentiate: A. Streptococcus pneumoniae from other alpha-hemolytic streptococci B. Streptococcus pyogenes from Streptococcus pneumoniae C. Streptococcus agalactiae from Streptococcus pyogenes D. Enterococci from non–group D enterococci

A. Streptococcus pneumoniae from other alpha-hemolytic streptococci

All of the following agars may be used to isolate Helicobacter except: A. Campy-CVA B. Skirrow’s C. Thiosulfate-citrate-bile salts-sucrose agar (TCBS) D. Modified Thayer-Martin

C. Thiosulfate-citrate-bile salts-sucrose agar (TCBS)

What is the primary etiologic agent in children with epiglottitis? A. Haemophilus influenzae type b B. Corynebacterium diphtheriae C. Streptococcus pyogenes D. Staphylococcus aureus

A. Haemophilus influenzae type b

The ETHANOL SHOCK procedure is used to differentiate: A. Actinomyces and Bifidobacterium spp. B. Prevotella and Porphyromonas spp. C. Clostridium and Bacteroides spp. D. Bacteroides and Actinomyces spp.

C. Clostridium and Bacteroides spp.

What is the specimen of choice for culturing B. pertussis? A. Throat B. NP swab C. Sputum D. Anterior nose

B. NP swab

Bartonella quintana has been known to cause: A. Carrion’s disease B. Trench fever C. Cat-scratch disease D. Lyme disease

B. Trench fever

Which organism produces the CAMP factor enhancing beta hemolysis in the presence of the S. aureus beta lysin? A. group A streptococci B. group B streptococci C. group C streptococci D. group D streptococci

B. group B streptococci

Which triad of symptoms is associated with rickettsial infections? A. Urethral discharge, fever, and dysuria B. Coughing, production of sputum, and chest pain C. Fever, headache, and rash D. Genital lesion, swollen inguinal lymph nodes, and headache

C. Fever, headache, and rash

DIC (disseminated intravascular coagulation) is a complication of bloodstream sepsis and is most often caused by: A. Gram-negative bacteria B. CMV C. Gram-positive bacteria D. Parasites

A. Gram-negative bacteria

When streaking a throat culture on 5% sheep blood agar, stabbing the agar plate provides enhanced detection for: A. Bile solubility B. Bile esculin hydrolysis C. DNase activity D. Streptolysin O E. Streptolysin S

E. Streptolysin S

A large, aerobic, gram-positive, spore-forming rod is isolated from a blood culture. It can be further confirmed as B. anthracis if it is: A. Hemolytic and motile B. Hemolytic and nonmotile C. Nonhemolytic and motile D. Nonhemolytic and nonmotile

D. Nonhemolytic and nonmotile

The unique chemical structure of the cell wall of Mycobacterium spp. is associated with the presence of: A. N-glycolylmuramic acid and a decrease in lipid content B. N-acetylmuramic acid and a decrease in lipid content C. N-glycolylmuramic acid and an increase in lipid content D. N-acetylmuramic acid and an increase in lipid content

C. N-glycolylmuramic acid and an increase in lipid content

The most common cause of hemolytic uremic syndrome is: A. EPEC B. EAEC C. O157:NM D. O157:H7

D. O157:H7

Transcription is: A. Producing DNA from DNA B. Producing proteins from RNA C. Creating chromosomes from DNA and histone proteins D. Producing RNA from DNA

D. Producing RNA from DNA

What temperature is used to achieve DNA denaturation to a single strand? A. 74 °C B. 92 °C C. 94 °C D. 102 °C

C. 94 °C

Sulfur granules in a clinical specimen indicate the presence of: A. Clostridium spp. B. Fusobacterium spp. C. Actinomyces spp. D. Peptostreptococcus spp.

C. Actinomyces spp.

When setting up a urine culture, a calibrated loop is used that delivers a specific amount of urine to the media plate. What is that amount? A. 0.01 or 0.001 mL of urine B. 0.10 or 0.01 mL of urine C. 0.001 or 0.0001 mL of urine D. None of the above is correct

A. 0.01 or 0.001 mL of urine

The filovirus that has a characteristic “shepherd’s hook” morphology when viewed by electron microscopy is: A. Ebola Zaire virus B. Ebola Reston virus C. Ebola Sudan virus D. Marburg virus

D. Marburg virus

Which type of enrichment media is used to isolate Neisseria and Haemophilus organisms? A. Hektoen enteric (HE) agar B. Todd Hewitt broth C. Regan Lowe agar D. Chocolate agar

D. Chocolate agar

Which of the following is the only catalase-negative, gram-positive, non-spore-forming rod that produces H2S on TSI? A. Gardnerella sp. B. Erysipelothrix sp. C. Lactobacillus sp. D. Arcanobacterium sp.

B. Erysipelothrix sp.

Which genotype(s) will give rise to the Bombay phenotype A. HH only B. HH and Hh C. Hh and hh D. hh only

D. hh only

A cell that is not actively dividing is said to be in: A. Interphase B. Prophase C. Anaphase D. Telophase

A. Interphase

Which of the following describes the expression of most blood group antigens? A. Dominant B. Recessive C. Codominant D. Corecessive

C. Codominant

Which of the following enhancement mediums decreases the zeta potential, allowing antibody and antigen to come closer together? A. LISS B. Polyethylene glycol C. Polybrene D. ZZAP

A. LISS

Which antibodies to a component of complement are contained in the rabbit polyspecific antihuman globulin reagent for detection of in vivo sensitization? A. Anti-IgG and anti-C3a B. Anti-IgG and anti-C3d C. Anti-IgG and anti-IgM D. All of these options

B. Anti-IgG and anti-C3d

Acquired B antigens have been found in: A. Bombay individuals B. Group O persons C. All blood groups D. Group A persons

D. Group A persons

Which blood group has the least amount of H antigen? A. A1B B. A2 C. B D. A1

A. A1B

Which donor unit is selected for a recipient with anti-c? A. r ́r B. R0R1 C. R2r ́ D. r ́ry

D. r ́ry

What is one possible genotype for a patient who develops anti-C antibody? A. R1r B. R1R1 C. r ́r D. rr

D. rr

What antibodies could an R1R1 make if exposed to R2R2 blood? A. Anti-e and anti-C B. Anti-E and anti-c C. Anti-E and anti-C D. Anti-e and anti-c

B. Anti-E and anti-c

What techniques are necessary for weak D testing? A. Saline + 22°C incubation B. Albumin or LISS + 37°C incubation C. Saline + 37°C incubation D. 37°C incubation + IAT

D. 37°C incubation + IAT

Which of the following antibodies characteristically gives a refractile mixed-field appearance? A. Anti-K B. Anti-Di C. Anti-Sd D. Anti-s

C. Anti-Sd

What does a minor crossmatch consist of? A. Recipient plasma and recipient red cells B. Recipient plasma and donor red cells C. Recipient red cells and donor plasma D. Donor plasma and donor red cells

C. Recipient red cells and donor plasma

What corrective action should be taken when rouleaux causes positive test results? A. Perform a saline replacement technique B. Perform an autoabsorption C. Run a panel D. Perform an elution

A. Perform a saline replacement technique

Which of the following is true regarding apheresis platelets? A. The minimum platelet count must be 3.0 × 10^11, pH must be ≥6.0 B. The minimum platelet count must be 3.0 × 10^10, pH must be ≤6.2 C. The minimum platelet count must be 3.0 × 10^11, pH must be ≥6.2 D. The minimum platelet count must be 5.5 × 10^10, pH must be ≤6.0

C. The minimum platelet count must be 3.0 × 10^11, pH must be ≥6.2

What method can be employed to detect bacteria in random donor platelets? A. pH B. Glucose C. Pan genera detection (PGD) assay D. Gram stain

C. Pan genera detection (PGD) assay

What should be done if a noticeable clot is found in an RBC unit? A. Issue the unit; the blood will be filtered B. Issue the unit; note the presence of a clot on therelease form C. Filter the unit in the blood bank before issue D. Do not issue the unit

D. Do not issue the unit

Cryoprecipitate may be used to treat all of the following, except: A. von Willebrand’s disease B. Hypofibrinogenemia C. Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) D. Factor XIII deficiency

C. Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP)

What percentage of red cells must be retained in leukocyte-reduced red cells? A. 75% B. 80% C. 85% D. 100%

C. 85%

Which component has the longest expiration date? A. Cryoprecipitate B. FFP C. Frozen RBCs D. Platelet concentrates

C. Frozen RBCs

What is the number of white blood cells permitted in a unit of leukoreduced red cells? A. <5 × 10^10 B. <5 × 10^6 C. <8.3 × 10^5 D. <8.3 × 10^6

B. <5 × 10^6

Which immunization has the longest deferral period? A. HBIG B. Rubella vaccine C. Influenza vaccine D. Yellow fever vaccine

A. HBIG

A whole-blood donor currently on clopidogrel (Plavix) is precluded from donating which product? A.Platelets B. Red blood cells C. FFP D. Cryoprecipitate

A.Platelets

Which of the following is the preferable site for bone marrow aspiration and biopsy in an adult? A. Iliac crest B. Sternum C. Tibia D. Spinous processes of a vertebra

A. Iliac crest

Which of the following erythrocyte inclusions can be visualized with supravital stain but cannot be detected on a Wright’s-stained blood smear? A. Basophilic stippling B. Heinz bodies C. Howell–Jolly bodies D. Siderotic granules

B. Heinz bodies

Using an electronic cell counter analyzer, an increased RDW should correlate with: A. Spherocytosis B. Anisocytosis C. Leukocytosis D. Presence of NRBCs

B. Anisocytosis

Which of the following statistical terms reflects the best index of precision when comparing two CBC parameters? A. Mean B. Median C. Coefficient of variation D. Standard deviation

C. Coefficient of variation

Which is the first stage of erythrocytic maturation in which the cytoplasm is pink due to the formation of hemoglobin? A. Reticulocyte B. Pronormoblast C. Basophilic normoblast D. Polychromatic normoblast

D. Polychromatic normoblast

Which of the following organs is responsible for the “pitting process” for RBCs? A. Liver B. Spleen C. Kidney D. Lymph nodes

B. Spleen

Which of the following hemoglobins migrates to the same position as Hgb A2 at pH 8.6? A. Hgb H B. Hgb F C. Hgb C D. Hgb S

C. Hgb C

Which antibody is associated with paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria (PCH)? A. Anti-I B. Anti-i C. Anti-M D. Anti-P

D. Anti-P

“Bite cells” are usually seen in patients with: A. Rh null trait B. Chronic granulomatous disease C. G6PD deficiency D. PK deficiency

C. G6PD deficiency

Microangiopathic hemolytic anemia is characterized by: A. Target cells and Cabot rings B. Toxic granulation and Döhle bodies C. Pappenheimer bodies and basophilic stippling D. Schistocytes and nucleated RBCs

D. Schistocytes and nucleated RBCs

Which of the following may be seen in the peripheral blood smear of a patient with obstructive liver disease? A. Schistocytes B. Macrocytes C. Howell–Jolly bodies D. Microcytes

B. Macrocytes

Which of the following is contained in the primary granules of the neutrophil? A. Lactoferrin B. Myeloperoxidase C. Histamine D. Alkaline phosphatase

B. Myeloperoxidase

The morphological characteristic(s) associated with the Chédiak–Higashi syndrome is (are): A. Pale blue cytoplasmic inclusions B. Giant lysosomal granules C. Small, dark-staining granules and condensed nuclei D. Nuclear hyposegmentation

B. Giant lysosomal granules

Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) is most often associated with which of the following types of acute leukemia? A. Acute myeloid leukemia without maturation B. Acute promyelocytic leukemia C. Acute myelomonocytic leukemia D. Acute monocytic leukemia

B. Acute promyelocytic leukemia

The WHO classification requires what percentage for the blast count in the blood or bone marrow for the diagnosis of AML? A. At least 30% B. At least 20% C. At least 10% D. Any percentage

B. At least 20%

Which of the following cells is considered pathognomonic for Hodgkin’s disease? A. Niemann–Pick cells B. Reactive lymphocytes C. Flame cells D. Reed–Sternberg cells

D. Reed–Sternberg cells

Which ratio of anticoagulant-to-blood is correct for coagulation procedures? A. 1:4 B. 1:5 C. 1:9 D. 1:10

C. 1:9

Aspirin prevents platelet aggregation by inhibiting the action of which enzyme? A. Phospholipase B. Cyclooxygenase C. Thromboxane A2 synthetase D. Prostacyclin synthetase

B. Cyclooxygenase

Normal platelet adhesion depends upon: A. Fibrinogen B. Glycoprotein Ib C. Glycoprotein IIb, IIIa complex D. Calcium

B. Glycoprotein Ib

Which defect characterizes Gray’s syndrome? A. Platelet adhesion defect B. Dense granule defect C. Alpha granule defect D. Coagulation defect

C. Alpha granule defect

Which factor deficiency is associated with a prolonged PT and APTT? A. X B. VIII C. IX D. XI

A. X

Normal PT and APTT results in a patient with a poor wound healing may be associated with: A. Factor VII deficiency B. Factor VIII deficiency C. Factor XII deficiency D. Factor XIII deficiency

D. Factor XIII deficiency

The most common subtype of classic von Willebrand’s disease is: A. Type 1 B. Type 2A C. Type 2B D. Type 3

A. Type 1

What clotting factors (cofactors) are inhibited by protein S? A. V and X B. Va and VIIIa C. VIII and IX D. VIII and X

B. Va and VIIIa

Which of the following tests is most likely to be abnormal in patients taking aspirin? A. Platelet morphology B. Platelet count C. Bleeding time D. Prothrombin time

C. Bleeding time

Physiologic failure of pH to fall below 3.5 or 1.0 pH unit with gastric stimulation: A. Achlorhydria B. Hypochlorhydria C. Anacidity

A. Achlorhydria

Physiologic failure of pH to fall below 3.5, although it decreases 1.0 pH unit or more upon gastric stimulation: A. Achlorhydria B. Hypochlorhydria C. Anacidity

B. Hypochlorhydria

Failure of the stomach acidity to fall lower than 6.0 in a stimulation test: A. Achlorhydria B. Hypochlorhydria C. Anacidity

C. Anacidity

PHASE OF GASTRIC SECRETION that involves VAGUS NERVE STIMULATION caused by stimuli such as taste, smell, or sight: A. Cephalic phase B. Gastric phase C. Intestinal phase D. None of these

A. Cephalic phase

RTE cell from the proximal convoluted tubules: A. Columnar or convoluted B. Cuboidal C. Round or oval D. None of these

A. Columnar or convoluted

RTE cell from the distal convoluted tubules: A. Columnar or convoluted B. Cuboidal C. Round or oval D. None of these

C. Round or oval

RTE cells from the collecting duct: A. Columnar or convoluted B. Cuboidal C. Round or oval D. None of these

B. Cuboidal

Which stage of Trichuris trichiura is infective for humans? A. Proglottid B. Filariform larva C. Rhabditiform larva D. Embryonated ovum

D. Embryonated ovum

Infective stage is the SHEATHED FILARIFORM LARVA: A. Strongyloides stercoralis B. Ancylostoma duodenale, Necator americanus C. Ascaris lumbricoides D. Enterobius vermicularis

B. Ancylostoma duodenale, Necator americanus

Infective stage is the UNSHEATHED FILARIFORM LARVA: A. Strongyloides stercoralis B. Ancylostoma duodenale, Necator americanus C. Ascaris lumbricoides D. Enterobius vermicularis

A. Strongyloides stercoralis

The rhabditiform larva of the hookworm has a: A. Long buccal cavity, prominent genital primordium B. Long buccal cavity, small genital primordium C. Short buccal cavity, prominent genital primordium D. Short buccal cavity, small genital primordium

B. Long buccal cavity, small genital primordium

The rhabditiform larva of the threadworm has a: A. Long buccal cavity, prominent genital primordium B. Long buccal cavity, small genital primordium C. Short buccal cavity, prominent genital primordium D. Short buccal cavity, small genital primordium

C. Short buccal cavity, prominent genital primordium

100

Rhabditiform larva with hourglass-shaped esophagus and short buccal cavity: A. Ascaris B. Enterobius C. Necator D. Strongyloides

D. Strongyloides

other names parasitology

Yves Laure Pimentel · 70問 · 2年前

other names parasitology