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100問 • 1年前

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Which type of acute myeloid leukemia is called the true monocytic leukemia and follows an acute or subacute course characterized by monoblasts, promonocytes, and monocytes? A. Acute myeloid leukemia, minimally differentiated B. Acute myeloid leukemia without maturation C. Acute myelomonocytic leukemia D. Acute monocytic leukemia

D. Acute monocytic leukemia

In which age group does acute lymphoblastic leukemia occur with the highest frequency? A. 1–15 years B. 20–35 years C. 45–60 years D. 60–75 years

A. 1–15 years

Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) is most often associated with which of the following types of acute leukemia? A. Acute myeloid leukemia without maturation B. Acute promyelocytic leukemia C. Acute myelomonocytic leukemia D. Acute monocytic leukemia

B. Acute promyelocytic leukemia

An M:E ratio of 10:1 is most often seen in: A. Thalassemia B. Leukemia C. Polycythemia vera D. Myelofibrosis

B. Leukemia

Which of the following is a characteristic of Auer rods? A. They are composed of azurophilic granules B. They stain periodic acid–Schiff (PAS) positive C. They are predominantly seen in chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML) D. They are nonspecific esterase positive

A. They are composed of azurophilic granules

SITUATION: The following laboratory values are seen: These results are most characteristic of: A. Pernicious anemia B. Acute myeloid leukemia without maturation C. Acute erythroid leukemia D. Acute myelomonocytic leukemia

C. Acute erythroid leukemia

A 24-year-old man with Down syndrome presents with a fever, pallor, lymphadenopathy, and hepatosplenomegaly. His CBC results are follows These findings are suggestive of: A. Hodgkin’s lymphoma B. Myeloproliferative disorder C. Leukemoid reaction D. Acute lymphocytic leukemia

D. Acute lymphocytic leukemia

SITUATION: A peripheral smear shows 75% blasts. These stain positive for both Sudan Black B (SBB) and peroxidase. Given these values, which of the following disorders is most likely? A. Acute myelocytic leukemia (AML) B. CML C. Acute undifferentiated leukemia (AUL) D. Acute lymphocytic leukemia (ALL)

A. Acute myelocytic leukemia (AML)

In myeloid cells, the stain that selectively identifies phospholipid in the membranes of both primary and secondary granules is: A. PAS B. Myeloperoxidase C. Sudan Black B stain D. Terminal deoxynucleotidyl transferase (TdT)

C. Sudan Black B stain

Sodium fluoride may be added to the naphthyl ASD acetate (NASDA) esterase reaction. The fluoride is added to inhibit a positive reaction with: A. Megakaryocytes B. Monocytes C. Erythrocytes D. Granulocytes

B. Monocytes

Leukemic lymphoblasts reacting with anti-CALLA are characteristically seen in: A. B-cell ALL B. T-cell ALL C. Null-cell ALL D. Common ALL

D. Common ALL

Which of the following reactions are often positive in ALL but are negative in AML? A. Terminal deoxynucleotidyl transferase and PAS B. Chloroacetate esterase and nonspecific esterase C. Sudan Black B and peroxidase D. New methylene blue and acid phosphatase

A. Terminal deoxynucleotidyl transferase and PAS

A patient’s peripheral blood smear and bone marrow both show 70% blasts. These cells are negative for Sudan Black B stain. Given these data, which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? A. Acute myeloid leukemia B. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia C. Acute promyelocytic leukemia D. Acute lymphocytic leukemia

D. Acute lymphocytic leukemia

Which of the following leukemias are included in the 2008 World Health Organization classification of myeloproliferative neoplasms? A. Chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML) B. Chronic neutrophilic leukemia (CNL) C. Chronic eosinophilic leukemia (CEL) D. All of these options are classified as myeloproliferative neoplasms (MPN)

D. All of these options are classified as myeloproliferative neoplasms (MPN)

In addition to morphology, cytochemistry, and immunophenotyping, the WHO classification of myelo- and lymphoproliferative disorders is based upon which characteristic? A. Proteomics B. Cytogenetic abnormalities C. Carbohydrate-associated tumor antigen production D. Cell signaling and adhesion markers

B. Cytogenetic abnormalities

The WHO classification requires what percentage for the blast count in the blood or bone marrow for the diagnosis of AML? A. At least 30% B. At least 20% C. At least 10% D. Any percentage

B. At least 20%

What would be the most likely designation by the WHO for the FAB AML M2 by the French–American–British classification? A. AML with t(15;17) B. AML with mixed lineage C. AML with t(8;21) D. AML with inv(16)

C. AML with t(8;21)

What would be the most likely designation by the WHO for the FAB AML M3 by the French–American–British classification? A. AML with t(15;17) B. AML with mixed lineage C. AML with t(8;21) D. AML with inv(16)

A. AML with t(15;17)

Which AML cytogenetic abnormality is associated with acute myelomonocytic leukemia with marrow eosinophilia under the WHO classification of AML with recurrent genetic abnormalities? A. AML with t(15;17) B. AML with mixed lineage C. AML with t(8;21) D. AML with inv(16)

D. AML with inv(16)

What would be the most likely classification by the WHO for the FAB AML M7 by the French–American–British classification? A. Acute myeloid leukemias with recurrent genetic abnormalities B. Acute myeloid leukemia with multilineage dysplasia C. Acute myeloid leukemia not otherwise categorized D. Acute leukemias of ambiguous lineage

C. Acute myeloid leukemia not otherwise categorized

Repeated phlebotomy in patients with polycythemia vera (PV) may lead to the development of: A. Folic acid deficiency B. Sideroblastic anemia C. Iron deficiency anemia D. Hemolytic anemia

C. Iron deficiency anemia

In essential thrombocythemia, the platelets are: A. Increased in number and functionally abnormal B. Normal in number and functionally abnormal C. Decreased in number and functional D. Decreased in number and functionally abnormal

A. Increased in number and functionally abnormal

Which of the following cells is considered pathognomonic for Hodgkin’s disease? A. Niemann–Pick cells B. Reactive lymphocytes C. Flame cells D. Reed–Sternberg cells

D. Reed–Sternberg cells

In myelofibrosis, the characteristic abnormal red blood cell morphology is that of: A. Target cells B. Schistocytes C. Teardrop cells D. Ovalocytes

C. Teardrop cells

PV is characterized by: A. Increased plasma volume B. Pancytopenia C. Decreased oxygen saturation D. Absolute increase in total red cell mass

D. Absolute increase in total red cell mass

Features of secondary polycythemia include all of the following except: A. Splenomegaly B. Decreased oxygen saturation C. Increased red cell mass D. Increased erythropoietin

A. Splenomegaly

The erythrocytosis seen in relative polycythemia occurs because of: A. Decreased arterial oxygen saturation B. Decreased plasma volume of circulating blood C. Increased erythropoietin levels D. Increased erythropoiesis in the bone marrow

B. Decreased plasma volume of circulating blood

In PV, what is characteristically seen in the peripheral blood? A. Panmyelosis B. Pancytosis C. Pancytopenia D. Panhyperplasia

B. Pancytosis

The leukocyte alkaline phosphatase (LAP) stain on a patient gives the following results 10(0) 48(1+) 38(2+) 3(3+) 1(4+) Calculate the LAP score. A. 100 B. 117 C. 137 D. 252

C. 137

CML is distinguished from leukemoid reaction by which of the following? A. CML: low LAP; leukemoid: high LAP B. CML: high LAP; leukemoid: low LAP C. CML: high WBC; leukemoid: normal WBC D. CML: high WBC; leukemoid: higher WBC

A. CML: low LAP; leukemoid: high LAP

Which of the following occurs in idiopathic myelofibrosis (IMF)? A. Myeloid metaplasia B. Leukoerythroblastosis C. Fibrosis of the bone marrow D. All of these options

D. All of these options

What influence does the Philadelphia (Ph1) chromosome have on the prognosis of patients with chronic myelocytic leukemia? A. It is not predictive B. The prognosis is better if Ph1 is present C. The prognosis is worse if Ph1 is present D. The disease usually transforms into AML when Ph1 is present

B. The prognosis is better if Ph1 is present

Which of the following is (are) commonly found in CML? A. Many teardrop-shaped cells B. Intense LAP staining C. A decrease in granulocytes D. An increase in basophils

D. An increase in basophils

In which of the following conditions does LAP show the least activity? A. Leukemoid reactions B. Idiopathic myelofibrosis C. PV D. CML

D. CML

A striking feature of the peripheral blood of a patient with CML is a: A. Profusion of bizarre blast cells B. Normal number of typical granulocytes C. Presence of granulocytes at different stages of development D. Pancytopenia

C. Presence of granulocytes at different stages of development

Which of the following is often associated with CML but not with AML? A. Infections B. WBCs greater than 20.0 × 109/L C. Hemorrhage D. Splenomegaly

D. Splenomegaly

Multiple myeloma and Waldenström’s macroglobulinemia have all the following in common except: A. Monoclonal gammopathy B. Hyperviscosity of the blood C. Bence–Jones protein in the urine D. Osteolytic lesions

D. Osteolytic lesions

What is the characteristic finding seen in the peripheral smear of a patient with multiple myeloma? A. Microcytic hypochromic cells B. Intracellular inclusion bodies C. Rouleaux D. Hypersegmented neutrophils

C. Rouleaux

All of the following are associated with the diagnosis of multiple myeloma except: A. Marrow plasmacytosis B. Lytic bone lesions C. Serum and/or urine M component (monoclonal protein) D. Philadelphia chromosome

D. Philadelphia chromosome

Multiple myeloma is most difficult to distinguish from: A. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia B. Acute myelogenous leukemia C. Benign monoclonal gammopathy D. Benign adenoma

C. Benign monoclonal gammopathy

The pathology of multiple myeloma includes which of the following? A. Expanding plasma cell mass B. Overproduction of monoclonal immunoglobulins C. Production of osteoclast activating factor (OAF) and other cytokines D. All of these options

D. All of these options

Waldenström’s macroglobulinemia is a malignancy of the: A. Lymphoplasmacytoid cells B. Adrenal cortex C. Myeloblastic cell lines D. Erythroid cell precursors

A. Lymphoplasmacytoid cells

Cells that exhibit a positive stain with acid phosphatase and are not inhibited with tartaric acid are characteristically seen in: A. Infectious mononucleosis B. Infectious lymphocytosis C. Hairy cell leukemia D. T-cell acute lymphoblastic leukemia

C. Hairy cell leukemia

The JAK2(V617F) mutation may be positive in all of the following chronic myeloproliferative disorders except: A. Essential thrombocythemia B. Idiopathic myelofibrosis C. PV D. CML

D. CML

All of the following are major criteria for the 2008 WHO diagnostic criteria for essential thrombocythemia except: A. Platelet count >450 × 109/L B. Megakaryocyte proliferation with large and mature morphology, and no or little granulocyte or erythroid proliferation C. Demonstration of JAK2(V617F) or other clonal marker D. Sustained platelet count >600 × 109/L

D. Sustained platelet count >600 × 109/L

A 19-year-old man came to the emergency department with severe joint pain, fatigue, cough, and fever. Review the following laboratory results: What is the corrected WBC count? A. 8.1 × 109/L B. 16.7 × 109/L C. 21.0 × 109/L D. 80.8 × 109/L

B. 16.7 × 109/L

A manual WBC count is performed. Eighty WBCs are counted in the four large corner squares of a Neubauer hemacytometer. The dilution is 1:100. What is the total WBC count? A. 4.0 × 109/L B. 8.0 × 109/L C. 20.0 × 109/L D. 200.0 × 109/L

C. 20.0 × 109/L

A manual RBC count is performed on a pleural fluid. The RBC count in the large center square of the Neubauer hemacytometer is 125, and the dilution is 1:200. What is the total RBC count? A. 27.8 × 109/L B. 62.5 × 109/L C. 125.0 × 109/L D. 250.0 × 109/L

D. 250.0 × 109/L

Review the scatterplot of white blood cells shown. Which section of the scatterplot denotes the number of monocytes? A. A B. B C. C D. D

A. A

Review the following automated CBC values. Many sickle cells were observed upon review of the peripheral blood smear. Based on this finding and the results provided, what automated parameter of this patient is most likely inaccurate and what follow-up test should be done to accurately assess this parameter? A. MCV/perform reticulocyte count B. Hct/perform manual Hct C. WBC/perform manual WBC count D. Hgb/perform serum:saline replacement

C. WBC/perform manual WBC count

Review the following CBC results on a 2-day-old infant These results indicate: A. Macrocytic anemia B. Microcytic anemia C. Liver disease D. Normal values for a 2-day-old infant

D. Normal values for a 2-day-old infant

Review the following scatterplot, histograms, and automated values on a 21-year-old college student. What is the presumptive diagnosis? A. Infectious mononucleosis B. Monocytosis C. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia D. ß-Thalassemia

A. Infectious mononucleosis

Review the following scatterplot, histograms, and automated values on a 61-year-old woman. What is the presumptive diagnosis? A. Leukemoid reaction B. Chronic myelocytic leukemia C. Acute myelocytic leukemia D. Megaloblastic leukemia

B. Chronic myelocytic leukemia

Review the automated results from the previous question. Which parameters can be released without further follow-up verification procedures? A. WBC and relative percentages of WBC populations B. RBCs and PLTs C. Hgb and Hct D. None of the automated counts can be released without follow-up verification

D. None of the automated counts can be released without follow-up verification

Which of the following initiates in vivo coagulation by activation of factor VII? A. Protein C B. Tissue factor C. Plasmin activator D. Thrombomodulin

B. Tissue factor

Which of the following clotting factors plays a role in clot formation in vitro, but not in vivo? in vitro clot formation and not in vivo coagulation? A. VIIa B. IIa C. XIIa D. Xa

C. XIIa

The anticoagulant of choice for most routine coagulation studies is: A. Sodium oxalate B. Sodium citrate C. Heparin D. Ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid (EDTA

B. Sodium citrate

Which ratio of anticoagulant-to-blood is correct for coagulation procedures? A. 1:4 B. 1:5 C. 1:9 D. 1:10

C. 1:9

Which results would be expected for the prothrombin time (PT) and activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT) in a patient with polycythemia? A. Both prolonged B. Both shortened C. Normal PT, prolonged APTT D. Both normal

A. Both prolonged

What reagents are used in the PT test? A. Thromboplastin and sodium chloride B. Thromboplastin and potassium chloride C. Thromboplastin and calcium D. Actin and calcium chloride

C. Thromboplastin and calcium

Which test would be abnormal in a patient with factor X deficiency? A. PT only B. APTT only C. PT and APTT D. Thrombin time

C. PT and APTT

Which clotting factor is not measured by PT and APTT tests? A. Factor VIII B. Factor IX C. Factor V D. Factor XIII

D. Factor XIII

A modification of which procedure can be used to measure fibrinogen? A. PT B. APTT C. Thrombin time D. Fibrin degradation products

C. Thrombin time

Which of the following characterizes vitamin K? A. It is required for biological activity of fibrinolysis B. Its activity is enhanced by heparin therapy C. It is required for carboxylation of glutamate residues of some coagulation factors D. It is made by the endothelial cells

C. It is required for carboxylation of glutamate residues of some coagulation factors

Which statement about the fibrinogen/fibrin degradation product test is correct? A. It detects early degradation products (X and Y) B. It is decreased in disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) C. It evaluates the coagulation system D. It detects late degradation products (D and E)

D. It detects late degradation products (D and E)

Which of the following clotting factors are measured by the APTT test? A. II, VII, IX, X B. VII, X, V, II, I C. XII, XI, IX, VIII, X, V, II, I D. XII, VII, X, V, II, I

C. XII, XI, IX, VIII, X, V, II, I

Which coagulation test(s) would be abnormal in a vitamin K–deficient patient? A. PT only B. PT and APTT C. Fibrinogen level D. Thrombin time

B. PT and APTT

14. Which of the following is correct regarding the international normalized ratio (INR)? A. It uses the International Sensitivity Ratio (ISR) B. It standardizes PT results C. It standardizes APTT results D. It is used to monitor heparin therapy

B. It standardizes PT results

Which of the following is referred to as an endogenous activator of plasminogen? A. Streptokinase B. Transamidase C. Tissue plasminogen activator D. Tissue plasminogen activator inhibitor

C. Tissue plasminogen activator

Which protein is the primary inhibitor of the fibrinolytic system? A. Protein C B. Protein S C. α2-Antiplasmin D. α2-Macroglobulin

C. α2-Antiplasmin

Which of the following statements is correct regarding the D-dimer test? A. Levels are decreased in DIC B. Test detects polypeptides A and B C. Test detects fragments D and E D. Test has a negative predictive value

D. Test has a negative predictive value

A protein that plays a role in both coagulation and platelet aggregation is: A. Factor I B. Factor VIII C. Factor IX D. Factor XI

A. Factor I

A standard 4.5-mL blue-top tube filled with 3.0 mL of blood was submitted to the laboratory for PT and APTT tests. The sample is from a patient undergoing surgery the following morning for a tonsillectomy. Which of the following is the necessary course of action by the technologist? A. Run both tests in duplicate and report the average result B. Reject the sample and request a new sample C. Report the PT result D. Report the APTT result

B. Reject the sample and request a new sample

Which statement is correct regarding sample storage for the prothrombin time test? A. Stable for 24 hours if the sample is capped B. Stable for 24 hours if the sample is refrigerated at 4°C C. Stable for 4 hours if the sample is stored at 4°C D. Should be run within 8 hours

A. Stable for 24 hours if the sample is capped

In primary fibrinolysis, the fibrinolytic activity results in response to: A. Increased fibrin formation B. Spontaneous activation of fibrinolysis C. Increased fibrin monomers D. DIC

B. Spontaneous activation of fibrinolysis

Plasminogen deficiency is associated with: A. Bleeding B. Thrombosis C. Increased fibrinolysis D. Increased coagulation

B. Thrombosis

Which of the following clotting factors are activated by thrombin that is generated by tissue pathway (TF-VIIa)? A. XII, XI B. XII, I C. I, II D. V, VIII

D. V, VIII

What substrate is used in a chromogenic factor assay? A. p-nitroanaline B. Chloropheonol red C. Prussian blue D. Ferricyanide

A. p-nitroanaline

Which of the following antibodies is used in the D-dimer assay? A. Polyclonal directed against X and Y fragments B. Polyclonal directed against D-dimer C. Monoclonal against D and E fragments D. Monoclonal against D-dimer

D. Monoclonal against D-dimer

Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP) is characterized by: A. Prolonged PT B. Increased platelet aggregation C. Thrombocytosis D. Prolonged APTT

B. Increased platelet aggregation

Thrombocytopenia may be associated with: A. Postsplenectomy B. Hypersplenism C. Acute blood loss D. Increased proliferation of pluripotential stem cells

B. Hypersplenism

Aspirin prevents platelet aggregation by inhibiting the action of which enzyme? A. Phospholipase B. Cyclo-oxygenase C. Thromboxane A2 synthetase D. Prostacyclin synthetase

B. Cyclo-oxygenase

Normal platelet adhesion depends upon: A. Fibrinogen B. Glycoprotein Ib C. Glycoprotein IIb, IIIa complex D. Calcium

B. Glycoprotein Ib

Which of the following test results is normal in a patient with classic von Willebrand’s disease? A. Bleeding time B. Activated partial thromboplastin time C. Platelet count D. Factor VIII:C and von Willebrand’s factor (VWF) levels

C. Platelet count

Bernard–Soulier syndrome is associated with: A. Decreased bleeding time B. Decreased factor VIII assay C. Thrombocytopenia and giant platelets D. Abnormal platelet aggregation to ADP

C. Thrombocytopenia and giant platelets

When performing platelet aggregation studies, which set of platelet aggregation results would most likely be associated with Bernard–Soulier syndrome? A. Normal platelet aggregation to collagen, ADP, and ristocetin B. Normal platelet aggregation to collagen, ADP, and epinephrine; decreased aggregation to ristocetin C. Normal platelet aggregation to epinephrine and ristocetin; decreased aggregation to collagen and ADP D. Normal platelet aggregation to epinephrine, ristocetin, and collagen; decreased aggregation to ADP

B. Normal platelet aggregation to collagen, ADP, and epinephrine; decreased aggregation to ristocetin

Which set of platelet responses would be most likely associated with Glanzmann’s thrombasthenia? A. Normal platelet aggregation to ADP and ristocetin; decreased aggregation to collagen B. Normal platelet aggregation to collagen; decreased aggregation to ADP and ristocetin C. Normal platelet aggregation to ristocetin; decreased aggregation to collagen, ADP, and epinephrine D. Normal platelet aggregation to ADP; decreased aggregation to collagen and ristocetin

C. Normal platelet aggregation to ristocetin; decreased aggregation to collagen, ADP, and epinephrine

Which of the following is a characteristic of acute immune thrombocytopenic purpura? A. Spontaneous remission within a few weeks B. Predominantly seen in adults C. Nonimmune platelet destruction D. Insidious onset

A. Spontaneous remission within a few weeks

TTP differs from DIC in that: A. APTT is normal in TTP but prolonged in DIC B. Schistocytes are not present in TTP but are present in DIC C. Platelet count is decreased in TTP but normal in DIC D. PT is prolonged in TTP but decreased in DIC

A. APTT is normal in TTP but prolonged in DIC

Which of the following is associated with post-transfusion purpura (PTP)? A. Nonimmune thrombocytopenia/alloantibodies B. Immune-mediated thrombocytopenia/ alloantibodies C. Immune-mediated thrombocytopenia/ autoantibodies D. Nonimmune-mediated thrombocytopenia/ autoantibodies

B. Immune-mediated thrombocytopenia/ alloantibodies

Hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS) is associated with: A. Fever, thrombocytosis, anemia, and renal failure B. Fever, granulocytosis, and thrombocytosis C. Escherichia coli 0157:H7 D. Leukocytosis and thrombocytosis

C. Escherichia coli 0157:H7

Storage pool deficiencies are defects of: A. Platelet adhesion B. Platelet aggregation C. Platelet granules D. Platelet production

C. Platelet granules

Lumi-aggregation measures: A. Platelet aggregation only B. Platelet aggregation and ATP release C. Platelet adhesion D. Platelet glycoprotein Ib

B. Platelet aggregation and ATP release

Neurological findings may be commonly associated with which of the following disorders? A. HUS B. TTP C. ITP D. PTP

B. TTP

Which of the following is correct regarding acquired thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura? A. Autoimmune disease B. Decreased VWF C. Decreased platelet aggregation D. Decreased platelet adhesion

A. Autoimmune disease

Hereditary hemorrhagic telangiectasia is a disorder of: A. Platelets B. Clotting proteins C. Fibrinolysis D. Connective tissue

D. Connective tissue

Which of the following prevents platelet aggregation? A. Thromboxane A2 B. Thromboxane B2 C. Prostacyclin D. Antithrombin

C. Prostacyclin

Which defect characterizes Gray’s syndrome? A. Platelet adhesion defect B. Dense granule defect C. Alpha granule defect D. Coagulation defect

C. Alpha granule defect

The P2Y12 ADP receptor agonist assay may be used to monitor platelet aggregation inhibition to which of the following drugs? A. Warfarin B. Heparin C. LMWH D. Clopidogrel (Plavix)

D. Clopidogrel (Plavix)

100

Which of the following instruments can be used to evaluate platelet function? A. Platelet aggregometer B. VerifyNow C. PFA-100 D. All of the above

D. All of the above

other names parasitology

Yves Laure Pimentel · 70問 · 2年前

other names parasitology