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52問 • 1年前

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Which of the following methods used for HIV identification is considered a signal amplification technique? A. Branched chain DNA analysis B. DNA PCR C. Reverse transcriptase PCR D. Nucleic acid sequence-based assay (NASBA)

A. Branched chain DNA analysis

Which of the following fungal organisms is best diagnosed by an ANTIGEN detection test as opposed to an antibody detection assay? A. Histoplasma B. Cryptococcus C. Candida D. Aspergillus

B. Cryptococcus

Your cytology laboratory refers a Papanicolaou smear specimen to you for an assay designed to detect the presence of a virus associated with cervical cancer. You perform: A. An ELISA assay for anti-HSV-2 antibodies B. A molecular assay for HSV-2 C. An ELISA assay for HPV antibodies D. A molecular assay for HPV

D. A molecular assay for HPV

An immunosuppressed patient has an unexplained anemia. The physician suspects a parvovirus B19 infection. A parvovirus IgM test is negative. The next course of action is to tell the physician: A. The patient does not have parvovirus B. A convalescent specimen is recommended in 4 weeks to determine if a fourfold rise in titer has occurred C. A parvovirus PCR is recommended D. That a recent transfusion for the patient’s anemia may have resulted in a false-negative assay and the patient should be retested in 4 weeks

C. A parvovirus PCR is recommended

What is a general definition for autoimmunity? A. Increase of tolerance to self-antigens B. Loss of tolerance to self-antigens C. Increase in clonal deletion of mutant cells D. Manifestation of immunosuppression

B. Loss of tolerance to self-antigens

An antinuclear antibody test is performed on a specimen from a 55-year-old woman who has unexplained joint pain. The IFA result is a titer of 40 and a homogeneous pattern. The appropriate followup for this patient is: A. Anti-DNA assay B. Extractable nuclear antigen (ENA) testing C. Retest ANA in 3–6 months D. CH50 complement assay

C. Retest ANA in 3–6 months

Which disease is likely to show a rim (peripheral) pattern in an immunofluorescence (IF) microscopy test for ANA? A. Mixed connective tissue disease (MCTD) B. Rheumatoid arthritis C. Systemic lupus erythematosus D. Scleroderma

C. Systemic lupus erythematosus

A patient’s specimen is strongly positive in an ANA ELISA. Which of the following would not be an appropriate follow up to this result? A. Immunofluorescence test on HEp-2 cells B. Specific ENA ELISA tests C. Specific anti-DNA ELISA D. Rheumatoid factor assay

D. Rheumatoid factor assay

What type of antibodies is represented by the solid or homogeneous pattern in the immunofluorescence test for antinuclear antibodies? A. Antihistone antibodies B. Anticentromere antibodies C. Anti-ENA (anti-Sm and anti-RNP) antibodies D. Anti-RNA antibodies

A. Antihistone antibodies

What disease is indicated by a high titer of antiSm (anti-Smith) antibody? A. Mixed connective tissue disease (MCTD) B. RA C. SLE D. Scleroderma

C. SLE

Which disease is least likely when a nucleolar pattern occurs in an immunofluorescence test for antinuclear antibodies? A. MCTD B. Sjögren’s syndrome C. SLE D. Scleroderma

A. MCTD-

What antibodies are represented by the nucleolar pattern in the immunofluorescence test for antinuclear antibodies? A. Antihistone antibodies B. Anti-dsDNA antibodies C. Anti-ENA (anti-Sm and anti-RNP) antibodies D. Anti-RNA antibodies

D. Anti-RNA antibodies

Which test would best distinguish between SLE and MCTD? A. Multiplex or ELISA test for anti-SM and anti-RNP B. Immunofluorescence testing using Crithidia as substrate C. Slide agglutination testing D. Laboratory tests cannot distinguish between these disorders

A. Multiplex or ELISA test for anti-SM and anti-RNP

An ANA test on HEp-2 cells shows nucleolar staining in interphase cells and dense chromatin staining in mitotic cells. The most likely cause of this staining pattern is: A. Antifibrillarin antibody B. Antiribosomal p antibody C. A serum with nucleolar and homogeneous patterns D. Technical artifact

A. Antifibrillarin antibody

Which immunofluorescence pattern indicates the need for ENA testing by Ouchterlony immunodiffusion, Multiplex, or ELISA assays? A. Homogeneous or solid B. Peripheral or rim C. Speckled D. Nucleolar

C. Speckled

Which of the following is used in rapid slide tests for detection of rheumatoid factors? A. Whole IgM molecules B. Fc portion of the IgG molecule C. Fab portion of the IgG molecule D. Fc portion of the IgM molecule

B. Fc portion of the IgG molecule

Which of the following methods is least likely to give a definitive result for the diagnosis of RA? A. Nephelometric measurement of anti-IgG B. Agglutination testing for rheumatoid factor C. Anti CCP D. Immunofluorescence testing for antinuclear antibodies

D. Immunofluorescence testing for antinuclear antibodies

Which disease might be indicated by antibodies to smooth muscle? A. Atrophic gastritis B. Autoimmune hepatitis C. Myasthenia gravis D. Sjögren’s syndrome

B. Autoimmune hepatitis

Antibodies to thyroid peroxidase can be detected by using agglutination assays. Which of the following diseases may show positive results with this type of assay? A. Graves’ disease and Hashimoto’s thyroiditis B. Myasthenia gravis C. Granulomatous thyroid disease D. Addison’s disease

A. Graves’ disease and Hashimoto’s thyroiditis

What is the main use of laboratory tests to detect antibodies to islet cells and insulin in cases of insulindependent diabetes mellitus (IDDM)? A. To regulate levels of injected insulin B. To diagnose IDDM C. To rule out the presence of other autoimmune diseases D. To screen susceptible individuals prior to destruction of β cells

D. To screen susceptible individuals prior to destruction of β cells

A patient presents with clinical symptoms of celiac disease. Tests for anti-tissue transglutaminase and antigliadin antibodies are negative. Which of the following tests should be ordered? A. IgG level B. HLA DQ typing C. HLA DR typing D. IgM level

B. HLA DQ typing

A specimen appears to have a perinuclear staining pattern in an antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibody (ANCA) immunofluorescent assay using ethanol fixed neutrophils, suggesting the possibility of a pANCA. On which of the following substrates would this specimen display cytoplasmic speckling? A. Formalin-fixed neutrophils B. Unfixed neutrophils C. HEp-2 cells D. Rabbit kidney tissue

A. Formalin-fixed neutrophils

Which of the following is a description of a type I hypersensitivity reaction? A. Ragweed antigen cross links with IgE on the surface of mast cells, causing release of preformed mediators and resulting in symptoms of an allergic reaction B. Anti-Fya from a pregnant woman crosses the placenta and attaches to the Fya antigen-positive red cells of the fetus, destroying the red cells C. Immune complex deposition occurs on the glomerular basement membrane of the kidney, leading to renal failure D. Exposure to poison ivy causes sensitized T cells to release lymphokines that cause a localized inflammatory reaction

A. Ragweed antigen cross links with IgE on the surface of mast cells, causing release of preformed mediators and resulting in symptoms of an allergic reaction

Which in vitro test measures IgE levels against a specific allergen? A. Histamine release assay B. Radioimmunosorbent test (RIST) C. Fluorescent allergosorbent test (FAST) D. Precipitin radioimmunosorbent test (PRIST)

C. Fluorescent allergosorbent test (FAST)

A patient who is blood group O is accidentally transfused with group A blood and develops a reaction during the transfusion. What antibody is involved in this type II reaction? A. IgM B. IgE C. IgG and IgE D. IgG

A. IgM

Why is skin testing the most widely used method to test for a type I hypersensitivity reaction? A. It causes less trauma and is more cost effective than other methods B. It has greater sensitivity than in vitro measurements

B. It has greater sensitivity than in vitro measurements

Which test would measure the coating of red cells by antibody as occurs in hemolytic transfusion reactions? A. Indirect antiglobulin test (IAT) B. Direct antiglobulin test (DAT) C. ELISA D. Hemagglutination

B. Direct antiglobulin test (DAT)

Which test detects antibodies that have attached to tissues, resulting in a type-II cytotoxic reaction? A. Migration inhibition factor assay (MIF) B. Direct immunofluorescence (IF) C. Immunofixation electrophoresis (IFE) D. Hemagglutination

B. Direct immunofluorescence (IF)

Which of the following conditions will most likely result in a false-negative DAT test? A. Insufficient washing of RBCs B. Use of heavy chain–specific polyclonal anti-human Ig C. Use of excessive centrifugal force D. Use of a sample obtained by finger puncture

A. Insufficient washing of RBCs

Which of the following tests is used to detect circulating immune complexes in the serum of some patients with systemic autoimmune diseases such as rheumatoid arthritis? A. Direct immunofluorescence B. Enzyme immunoassay C. Assay of cryoglobulins D. Indirect antiglobulin test

C. Assay of cryoglobulins

All of the following tests may be abnormal in a type III immune complex reaction except: A. C1q-binding assay by ELISA B. Raji cell assay C. CH50 level D. Mitogen response

D. Mitogen response

What immune elements are involved in a positive skin test for tuberculosis? A. IgE antibodies B. T cells and macrophages C. NK cells and IgG antibody D. B cells and IgM antibody

B. T cells and macrophages

A patient receives a transfusion of packed red cells and fresh frozen plasma and develops an anaphylactic, nonhemolytic reaction. She reports receiving a transfusion 20 years earlier. She had no reaction to the previous transfusion, but she did feel “poorly” a few weeks later. Which of the following transfused substances most likely elicited the reaction? A. IgA B. Group A antigen C. Rho (D) antigen D. An antigen belonging to the Duffy system

A. IgA

A patient deficient in the C3 complement component would be expected to mount a normal: A. Type I and IV hypersensitivity response B. Type II and IV hypersensitivity response C. Type I and III hypersensitivity response D. Type II and III hypersensitivity response

A. Type I and IV hypersensitivity response

Which of the following symptoms in a young child may indicate an immunodeficiency syndrome? A. Anaphylactic reactions B. Severe rashes and myalgia C. Recurrent bacterial, fungal, and viral infections D. Weight loss, rapid heartbeat, breathlessness

C. Recurrent bacterial, fungal, and viral infections

What screening test should be performed first in a young patient suspected of having an immune dysfunction disorder? A. Complete blood count (CBC) and white cell differential B. Chemotaxis assay C. Complement levels D. Bone marrow biopsy

A. Complete blood count (CBC) and white cell differential

Which test should be performed when a patient has a reaction to transfused plasma products? A. Immunoglobulin levels B. T-cell count C. Hemoglobin levels D. Red cell enzymes

A. Immunoglobulin levels

What is the “M” component in monoclonal gammopathies? A. IgM produced in excess B. μ Heavy chain produced in excess C. Malignant proliferation of B cells D. Monoclonal antibody or cell line

D. Monoclonal antibody or cell line

A child suspected of having an inherited humoral immunodeficiency disease is given diphtheria/ tetanus vaccine. Two weeks after the immunization, his level of antibody to the specific antigens is measured. Which result is expected for this patient if he/she indeed has a humoral deficiency? A. Increased levels of specific antibody B. No change in the level of specific antibody C. An increase in IgG-specific antibody but not IgMspecific antibody D. Increased levels of nonspecific antibody

B. No change in the level of specific antibody

In testing for DiGeorge’s syndrome, what type of laboratory analysis would be most helpful in determining the number of mature T cells? A. Complete blood count B. Nitroblue tetrazolium (NBT) test C. T-cell enzyme assays D. Flow cytometry

D. Flow cytometry

Interpret the following description of an immunofixation electrophoresis assay of urine. Dense wide bands in both the κ and λ lanes. No bands present in the heavy-chain lanes. A. Normal B. Light chain disease C. Increased polyclonal Fab fragments D. Multiple myeloma

C. Increased polyclonal Fab fragments

Free monoclonal light chains are often present in the serum of multiple myeloma patients, and may be useful for disease monitoring. Which of the following assays would be recommended to detect the presence of serum-free light chains? A. Serum protein electrophoresis B. Urine immunofixation C. Nephelometry D. ELISA

C. Nephelometry

What is measured in the CH50 assay? A. RBC quantity needed to agglutinate 50% of antibody B. Complement needed to lyse 50% of RBCs C. Complement needed to lyse 50% of antibody sensitized RBCs D. Antibody and complement needed to sensitize 50% of RBCs

C. Complement needed to lyse 50% of antibody sensitized RBCs

What type of disorders would show a decrease in C3, C4, and CH50? A. Autoimmune disorders such as SLE and RA B. Immunodeficiency disorders such as common variable immunodeficiency C. Tumors D. Bacterial, viral, fungal, or parasitic infections

A. Autoimmune disorders such as SLE and RA

All of the following tests measure phagocyte function except: A. Leukocyte adhesion molecule analysis B. Di Hydro rhodamine reduction assay C. NBT test D. IL-2 (interleukin-2) assay

D. IL-2 (interleukin-2) assay

What is the correct procedure upon receipt of a test request for human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) on the serum from a 60-year-old man? A. Return the request; hCG is not performed on men B. Perform a qualitative hCG test to see if hCG is present C. Perform the test; hCG may be increased in testicular tumors D. Perform the test but use different standards and controls

C. Perform the test; hCG may be increased in testicular tumors

Which method is the most sensitive for quantitation of AFP? A. Double immunodiffusion B. Electrophoresis C. Enzyme immunoassay D. Particle agglutination

C. Enzyme immunoassay

How is HLA typing used in the investigation of genetic diseases? A. For prediction of the severity of the disease B. For genetic linkage studies C. For direct diagnosis of disease D. Is not useful in this situation

B. For genetic linkage studies

Select the best donor for a man, blood type AB, in need of a kidney transplant. A. His brother, type AB, HLA matched for class II antigens B. His mother, type B, HLA matched for class I antigens C. His cousin, type O, HLA matched for major class II antigens D. Cadaver donor, type O, HLA matched for some class I and II antigens

A. His brother, type AB, HLA matched for class II antigens

Interpret the following microcytotoxicity results: A. Positive for A1 and Aw19; negative for A9 and B12 B. Negative for A1 and Aw19; positive for A9 and B12 C. Error in test system; retest D. Impossible to determine

B. Negative for A1 and Aw19; positive for A9 and B12

Which method, classically used for HLA-D typing, is often used to determine the compatibility between a living organ donor and recipient? A. Flow cytometry B. Mixed lymphocyte culture (MLC) C. Primed lymphocyte test (PLT) D. Restriction fragment length polymorphism (RFLP)

B. Mixed lymphocyte culture (MLC)

SITUATION: Cells type negative for all HLA antigens in a complement-dependent cytotoxicity assay. What is the most likely cause? A. Too much supravital dye was added B. Rabbit complement is inactivated C. All leukocytes are dead D. Antisera is too concentrated

B. Rabbit complement is inactivated

other names parasitology

Yves Laure Pimentel · 70問 · 2年前

other names parasitology