Which of the following poikilocyte is present? a. Codocytes b. Elliptocytes c. Blister cells d. Stomatocytes

Which of the following poikilocyte is being illustrated? a. Codocytes b. Elliptocytes c. Blister cells d. Stomatocytes

As the red blood cell matures, the overall cell diameter: a. Increases b. Decreases c. Remains the same d. None of the above

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What is the immature erythrocyte found in the bone marrow with following characteristics: 12 to 17 mm in diameter, N:C ratio of 4:1, nucleoli not usually apparent, and basophilic cytoplasm? a. Rubriblast b. Reticulocyte c. Metarubricyte d. Prorubricyte

The alkaline denaturation test detects the presence of hemoglobin: a. A1c b. F c. C d. S

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Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria exhibits sensitivity of one population of red blood cells to: a. Warm antibodies b. Cold antibodies c. Complement d. Either A or B

Contains DNA or nuclear fragments: a. Basophilic stippling b. Howell-Jolly body c. Heinz body d. Pappenheimer bodies

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What growth factors is produced by the kidneys and is used to treat anemia associated with kidney disease? a. EPO b. TPO c. KIT ligand d. G-CSF

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The average diameter of a normal erythrocyte is ____ micrometer. a. 5.2 µm b. 6.4 µm c. 7.2 µm d. 8.4 µm

The greatest portion of operational body iron is normally contained in what compound? a. Hemoglobin b. ferritin c. Cytochromes d. Myoglobin

If globin synthesis is insufficient in a person, iron accumulates in the cell as _______ aggregates a. Transferrin b. Ferritin c. Albumin d. Heme

. Increased amounts of 2,3-BPG ____ the oxygen affinity of the hemoglobin molecule. a. Increases b. Decreases c. Does not alter d. None of the above

Which of the following condition is characterized by the absence of CD55 (DAF) and CD59 (MIRL) on the surface of the RBCs rendering the it susceptible to spontaneous lysis by complement? a. PCH b. PNH c. HUS d. DIC

Physiologic programmed cell death: a. Angiogenesis b. Apoptosis c. Necrosis d. Apohematics

The description of poikilocytosis is: a. Variation in erythrocyte size b. Larger than normal c. Smaller than normal d. Variation in erythrocyte shape

f you are grading changes in erythrocytic size or shape using a scale of 0 to 4+ and many erythrocyte deviate from normal per microscopic field, the typical score would be: a. 1+ b. 2+ c. 3+ d. 4+

Acanthocytes (Spur cells) may be associated with the clinical condition of: a. Iron deficiency anemia b. Abetalipoproteinemia c. Pernicious anemia d. None of the above

Microspherocytes may be seen in: a. HD (Hepatic disease) b. HDFN (Hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn) c. PA (Pernicious anemia) d. HB (Hemoglobinopathies)

What is the appropriate reagent for reticulocyte counting? a. New methylene blue b. Phloxine B c. Solution that can lyse erythrocyte and darken the cell to be counted d. None of the above

In the preparation of films for reticulocyte counting, what is the ratio of blood to the stain? a. 1:2 b. 2:1 c. 3:1 d. 1:1

Disease characterized with a poikilocyte with membrane folded over (Fold cells): a. Sickle cell anemia b. Hemoglobin C disease c. Hemoglobin H disease d. Bart’s hemoglobin

Schistocytes: a. Fragmented RBC b. RBC with no central pallor c. Crenated RBC d. Swollen RBC

Bite cells: a. PK deficiency b. G6PD deficiency c. PK and G6PD deficiency d. None of the above

A screening test for PNH is: a. Heat instability test b. Sucrose hemolysis test c. Osmotic fragility d. Dithionite solubility

Patient with thrombocytopenia, decrease in hemoglobin, fragmented RBCs. Which of the following diseases is the most probable cause? a. HUS b. ITP c. HHT d. None of the above

What is the formula for RDW? a. SD x 100/mean b. HCT/RBC x 10 c. HGB/RBC x 10 d. HGB/HCT x 100

Which of the following metabolic pathway prevents oxidation of heme iron? a. Embden-Meyerhof pathway b. Hexose-monophosphate pathway c. Methemoglobin reductase pathway d. Luebering-Rapaport pathway

If the RBC distribution on a histogram demonstrates a homogenous pattern and a small SD, the peripheral blood smear would probably exhibit: a. Extreme anisocytosis b. Very little anisocytosis c. A single population of spherocytes d. A single population of macrocytes

The RDW and MCV are both quantitative descriptors of RBC size. If both are increased, the most probable erythrocytic abnormality would be: a. Iron deficiency anemia b. Acquired aplastic anemia c. Megaloblastic anemia d. Hemoglobinopathy

What is the most common mechanism resulting in hereditary stomatocytosis? a. A deficient cytoskeletal protein b. Inability to repair oxidative stress damage c. Abnormal Na+/K+ permeability d. ATP depletion due to glycolytic enzyme deficiency

The stages of neutrophilic granulocyte development are a. promyelocyte, myeloblast, myelocyte, metamyelocyte, and band and segmented neutrophils b. myeloblast, promyelocyte, myelocyte, metamyelocyte, and band and segmented neutrophils c. myelocyte, myeloblast, promyelocyte, metamyelocyte, and band and segmented neutrophils d. myeloblast, promyelocyte, metamyelocyte, myelocyte, and band and segmented neutrophils

Azurophilic granules were produced in what stage? a. Promyelocyte b. Myelocyte c. Metamyelocyte d. Band

Cells that produces antibodies and lymphokines: a. Erythrocytes b. Granulocytes c. Lymphocytes d. Thrombocytes

Which one of the following cells is a product of the CLP? a. Megakaryocytes b. T lymphocyte c. Erythrocyte d. Granulocyte

In Gaucher disease, as the result of βglucocerebrosidase deficiency, what accumulates in (macrophages) histiocytes? a. Glucocerebroside and sphingomyelin b. Glucocerebroside c. Sphingomyelin d. None of the above

Niemann-Pick disease affects which cell type? a. Neutrophils b. Lymphocytes c. Erythrocytes d. Platelets

Which antibody test has replaced the LE cell preparation in the diagnosis of SLE? a. Rheumatoid arthritis factor b. ANA test c. Complement fixation test d. Antibody Smith test

The abnormal protein frequently found in the urine of persons with multiple myeloma is: a. Albumin b. Globulin c. IgG d. Bence Jones

The WHO classification requires what percentage for the blast count in the blood or bone marrow for the diagnosis of AML? a. At least 30% b. At least 20% c. At least 10% d. Any percentage

Which of the following refers to the number, form, size, and arrangement of chromosomes within the nucleus? a. Punnett squares b. Karyotyping c. Phage typing d. None of the above

Occur when there is a breakage in two chromosomes and each of the broken pieces reunites with another chromosomes: a. Inversion b. Translocation c. Mutation d. None of the above

What influence does the Philadelphia (Ph1) chromosome have on the prognosis of patients with CML? a. It is not predictive b The prognosis is better if Ph1 is present c. The prognosis is worse if Ph1 is present d. The disease usually transforms into AML when Ph1 is present

An acute leukemia can be described as being: a. of short duration with many mature leukocyte forms in the peripheral blood b. of short duration with many immature leukocyte forms in the peripheral blood c. of short duration with little alteration of the leukocytes of the peripheral blood d. of long duration with many mature leukocyte forms in the peripheral blood

Hematopoietic stem cells produce all lineages of blood cells in sufficient quantities over the lifetime of an individual because they: a. Are unipotent b. Have the ability of self-renewal by asymmetric division c. Are present in large numbers in the bine marrow niches d. Have a low mitotic potential in response to growth factors.

Promyelocytes predominate in the bone marrow: a. M1 b. M2 c. M3 d. M4

Which of the cytokine has the current/potential therapeutic application as an adjuvant for infectious disease therapy? a. IL-3 b. GM-CSF c. IL-12 d. IFN-a

Three-part differential: a. Lymphocytes, monocytes, and granulocytes b. Lymphocytes, mononuclear, and granulocytes c. Lymphocytes, monocytes, neutrophil d. Lymphocyte, monocyte, neutrophil, eosinophil

Electrical impedance principle of cell counting was originally developed by: a. Coulter b. Abbott c. Beckman d. Sysmex

In the photo-optical method, the change in light transmission versus the _____ is used to determine the activity of coagulation factors or stages. a. amount of patient’s plasma b. amount of test reagent c. time d. temperature

When a specimen has been flagged as being icteric by an automated coagulation analyzer, which method would be most susceptible to erroneous results because of interfering substance? a. Mechanical clot detection b. Immunologic antigen-antibody reaction detection c. Photo-optical clot detection d. Chromogenic end-point detection

The abbreviation laser stands for a. light-associated simulated emission of radiation b. largely amplified by simulated emission of radiation c. light amplified by stimulated emission of radiation d. liquid amplified by stimulated emission of radiation

Which parameters are calculated rather than directly measured? a. Hematocrit and erythrocyte distribution width b. Erythrocyte count and leukocyte count c. Leukocyte count and hematocrit d. Platelet count and platelet volume

In an erythrocyte histogram, the erythrocytes that are larger than normal will be to the _____ of the normal distribution curve. a. Right b. Left c. In the middle d. Bimodal

The major application of flow-cytometry is: a. Determining cell size and granularity b. Sorting of cells and cellular identification using monoclonal antibodies c. Treating cancer cells and identifying specific virus types d. Counting leukocytes and platelets

A combined scatter histogram measure: a. Overall size versus nuclear size b. Cell size and granularity c. Cell shape and cytoplasmic color d. Cytoplasm to nucleus ratio

What is the principle of mechanical endpoint detection in coagulation instruments: a. Decrease in light transmittance as fibrin forms b. Increase in light absorbance as latex particles coated with sepcific antibody are agglutinated by antigen c. Increase in light absorbance at 405 nm as paranitroaniline is cleaved from synthetic substrate by the coagulation enzyme d. Change in movement of steel ball when clot forms

Anticoagulant to avoid platelet satellitism: a. EDTA b. Oxalate c. Citrate d. Heparin

Which characteristic is inaccurate with respect to the anticoagulant K3 EDTA? a. Removes ionized calcium from fresh whole blood by the process of chelation b. Is the most commonly used anticoagulant in hematology c. Is conventionally placed in lavender-stoppered tubes. d. Is used for most routine coagulation studies

If a blood smear stains too red on microscopic examination of Wright-stained preparation, possible causes include that: a. The staining time was too long b. The stain was too basic c. The buffer was too acidic and the exposure time was too short d. The buffer was too basic and the exposure time was too long

Acceptable limits of control value must fall: a. Within ±1SD of the mean b. Within 1 and 2 SD of the mean c. Within ±2 SD of the mean d. Within ±3 SD of the mean

The delta check method of quality control a. uses the patient’s own data to monitor population values b. uses batches of 20 samples to track MCV, MCH, and MCHC values c. compares the patient’s leukocyte and platelet counts with his or her previous results d. monitors the patient’s values within two SDs of the mean

The reagent used in the traditional sickle screening test is: a. Sodium chloride b. Sodium metabisulfite d. Sodium citrate d. None of the above

What clinical condition will produce a decreased Westergren ESR value? a. Polycythemia vera b. Acute leukemia c. Viral infection d. Megaloblastic anemia

What is the appropriate procedure and characteristic for the Westergren method? a. The diluting solution lyses erythrocytes with propylene glycol and contains sodium carbonate and water. b. The procedure measures the rate of erythrocyte settling. c. Ferrous ions are oxidized to the ferric state. d. The diluting solution is either 1% HCl or 2% acetic acid.

Which test is most affected when there is excessive anticoagulant? a. RBC count b. ESR c. Hemoglobin d. Hematocrit

The normal range for reticulocytes in adults is: a. 0 to 0.5% b. 0.5% to 1.0% c. 0.5% to 1.5% d. 1.5% to 2.5%

Using white blood cell as the reference, what is the effect of leukemia in the ESR? a. Increased b. Decreased c. Variable d. None of the above

Using white blood cell as the reference, what is the effect of leukocytosis in the ESR? a. Increased b. Decreased c. Variable d. None of the above

Megakaryopoiesis is associated with: a. Endomitosis b. Meiosis c. Mitosis d. None of the above

The cellular ultrastructural component unique to platelet is: a. Cytoplasmic membrane b. Mitochondria c. Microtubules d. Glycocalyx

Platelet aggregation will occur with the end product of: a. Cyclooxygenase b. Arachidonic acid c. Prostacyclin d. Thromboxane A2

Which of the following blood film findings indicates EDTA-induced pseudo thrombocytopenia? a. The platelets are pushed to the feathered end b. The platelets are adhering to WBCs c. No platelets at all are seen on the film d. The slide has a bluish discoloration when examined macroscopically

Agents that are capable of aggregating platelets include: a. Collagen b. Thrombin c. Serotonin d. All of the above

Which organ is the site of sequestration of platelets? a. Liver b. Thymus c. Spleen d. Bone marrow

An example of an acquired platelet dysfunction: a. Uremia b. von Willebrand’s disease c. Aspirin ingestion d. None of the above

The clot retraction test is: a. A visible reaction to the activation of platelet actomyosin (thrombasthenin) b. A reflection of the quantity and quality of platelets and other factors c. A measurement of the ability of platelets to stick to glass d. A measurement of the cloudiness of blood

The bleeding time test measures a. the ability of platelets to stick together b. platelet adhesion and aggregation on locally injured vascular subendothelium c. the quantity and quality of platelets d. antibodies against platelets

Fletcher factor: a. Prekallikrein b. HMWK c. Factor XI d. Factor XII

Which clotting factors (cofactors) are inhibited by protein S? a. Factor V and X b. Factor Va and VIIIa c. Factor VIII and IX d. Factor VIII and X

Refer to the following results: PT= prolonged APTT= prolonged PLT count= decreased Which disorder may be indicated? a. Factor VIII deficiency b. von Willebrand disease c. Disseminated intravascular coagulation d. Factor IX deficiency

The function of thromboplastin in the prothrombin test is to provide _____ to the assay. a. Kaolin b. Fibrinogen c. Phospholipoprotein d. Thrombin

The intrinsic pathway of coagulation BEGINS with the activation of _____ in the early stage. a. Factor II b. Factor I c. Factor XII d. Factor V

Abnormal results in dysfibrinogenemia, except: a. PT b. aPTT c. TT d. Fibrinogen level

Single factor deficiency with normal PT, PTT, and TCT: a. I b. XI c. XIII d. II

PT is performed in what temperature? a. 4 degrees Celsius b. 20 degrees Celsius c. 37 degrees Celsius d. 38 degrees Celsius

If a child ingested rat poison, which of the following tests should be performed to test the effect of the poison on the child’s coagulation mechanism? a. aPTT b. PT c. Fibrinogen assay d. None of the above

The deficient factor is factor VIII. What would be the result for PT, PTT, and TCT, respectively, using clot-based screening assays? a. Normal, prolonged, normal b. Prolonged, prolonged, prolonged c. Prolonged, normal, normal d. Prolonged, normal, prolonged

. Fibrinogen level in patients with hemophilia A, B and C? a. Decreased, normal, decreased b. Normal, normal, normal c. Decreased, decreased, decreased d. Normal, decreased, decreased