POPCORN

100問 • 1年前

問題一覧

Family history of chromosome abnormalities, such as TRISOMY 21 (DOWN SYNDROME), amniocentesis may be indicated at: A. 1 to 7 weeks gestation B. 7 to 14 weeks gestation C. 15 to 18 weeks gestation D. 20 to 42 weeks gestation

C. 15 to 18 weeks gestation

The amount of amniotic fluid increases in quantity throughout pregnancy, reaching a peak of approximately ____ mL during the third trimester, and then gradually decreases prior to delivery. A. 400 to 800 mL B. 800 mL to 1,200 mL C. 1,200 to 1,500 mL D. 2,000 to 4, 000 mL

B. 800 mL to 1,200 mL

A maximum of ___ mL of amniotic fluid is collected in sterile syringes. A. 10 mL B. 20 mL C. 30 mL D. 50 mL

C. 30 mL

APT test may be requested to distinguish between the presence of fetal blood and maternal blood in an infant’s stool or vomitus. What is the reagent for the test? A. 1% HCl B. 2% HCl C. 1% NaOH D. 10% NaOH

C. 1% NaOH

Slides for muscle fiber detection are prepared by emulsifying a small amount of stool in ____________, which enhances the muscle fiber striations. A. Crystal violet B. Loeffler's methylene blue C. 10% alcoholic eosin D. 1% sodium hydroxide

C. 10% alcoholic eosin

All are components of CLINITEST, except: A. Copper sulfate B. Sodium carbonate, sodium citrate C. Sodium hydroxide D. Lactose

D. Lactose

Which of the following is a component of ACETEST? A. Copper sulfate B. Sodium carbonate, sodium citrate C. Sodium hydroxide D. Lactose

D. Lactose

Positive result in the Ictotest: A. Green B. Orange C. Purple D. Red

C. Purple

Sensitivity of the Multistix protein reagent pad: A. 1 to 5 mg/dL albumin B. 10 to 15 mg/dL albumin C. 15 to 30 mg/dL albumin D. 30 to 45 mg/dL albumin

C. 15 to 30 mg/dL albumin

Sensitivity of the Multistix bilirubin reagent pad: A. 0.1 to 0.5 mg/dL B. 0.4 to 0.8 mg/dL C. 4 to 8 mg/dL D. 8 to 16 mg/dL

B. 0.4 to 0.8 mg/dL

Positive nitrite: A. Gram-positive bacteria B. Gram-negative bacteria C. Random urine specimens D. Heavy bacterial infections

B. Gram-negative bacteria

A positive nitrite test and a negative leukocyte esterase test is an indication of a: A. Dilute random specimen B. Specimen with lysed leukocytes C. Vaginal yeast infection D. Specimen older than 2 hours

D. Specimen older than 2 hours

Nitrite reagent pad contains: A. p-arsanilic acid, tetrahydrobenzoquinolin B. Indoxyl carbonic acid ester, diazonium salt C. 2,4-dichloroaniline diazonium salt D. p-dimethylaminoazobenzol

A. p-arsanilic acid, tetrahydrobenzoquinolin

Purple colors are observed in the positive reactions for: A. Blood and glucose B. Ketone and leukocytes C. Bilirubin and urobilinogen D. Protein and nitrite

B. Ketone and leukocytes

Benedict’s test 1+: A. Blue B. Green C. Yellow D. Orange

B. Green

Which of the following is the urine specimen of choice for cytology studies? A. First morning specimen B. Random specimen C. Midstream “clean catch” collection D. Timed collection

B. Random specimen

Which is a statistical test that compares means? A. Bland-Altman B. Student t-test C. ANOVA D. Pearson

B. Student t-test

The acceptable hemoglobin control value range is 13 6 0.4 g/dL.The control is assayed five times and produces the following five results: 12.0 g/dL 12.3 g/dL 12.0 g/dL 12.2 g/dL 12.1 g/dL These results are: A. Accurate but not precise B. Precise but not accurate C. Both accurate and precise D. Neither accurate nor precise

B. Precise but not accurate

Physiologic programmed cell death is termed: A. Angiogenesis B. Apoptosis C. Aneurysm D. Apohematics

B. Apoptosis

Which organ is the site of sequestration of platelets? A. Liver B. Thymus C. Spleen D. Bone marrow

C. Spleen

Which one of the following morphologic changes occurs during normal blood cell maturation? A. Increase in cell diameter B. Development of cytoplasm basophilia C. Condensation of nuclear chromatin D. Appearance of nucleoli

C. Condensation of nuclear chromatin

Which of the following molecules is stored in platelet dense granules? A. Serotonin B. Fibrinogen C. Platelet factor 4 D. Platelet-derived growth factor

A. Serotonin

What plasma protein is essential for platelet adhesion? A. VWF B. Factor VIII C. Fibrinogen D. P-selectin

A. VWF

Reticulated platelets can be enumerated in peripheral blood to detect: A. Impaired platelet production in disease states B. Abnormal organelles associated with diseases such as leukemia C. Increased platelet production in response to need D. Inadequate rates of membrane cholesterol exchange with the plasma

C. Increased platelet production in response to need

Which of the following blood film findings indicates EDTA- induced pseudothrombocytopenia? A. The platelets are pushed to the feathered end. B. The platelets are adhering to WBCs. C. No platelets at all are seen on the film. D. The slide has a bluish discoloration when examined macroscopically.

B. The platelets are adhering to WBCs.

Disseminated intravascular coagulation is more often seen in association with leukemia characterized by which of the following mutations? A. t(12;21)(p13;q22) B. t(9;22)(q34;q11.2) C. inv(16)(p13;q22) D. t(15;17)(q22;q12)

D. t(15;17)(q22;q12)

What coagulation plasma protein should be assayed when platelets fail to aggregate properly? A. Factor VIII B. Fibrinogen C. Thrombin D. Factor X

B. Fibrinogen

Most coagulation factors are synthesized in: A. The liver B. Monocytes C. Endothelial cells D. Megakaryocytes

A. The liver

Which is a typical form of ANATOMIC bleeding? A. Epistaxis B. Menorrhagia C. Hematemesis D. Central nervous system bleed

D. Central nervous system bleed

What factor becomes deficient early in liver disease, and what assay does its deficiency prolong? A. Prothrombin deficiency, the PT B. Factor VII deficiency, the PT C. FVIII deficiency, the PTT D. Factor IX deficiency, the PTT

B. Factor VII deficiency, the PT

If a patient has anatomic soft tissue bleeding and poor wound healing, but the PT, PTT, TT, platelet count, and platelet functional assay results are normal, what factor deficiency is possible? A. Fibrinogen B. Prothrombin C. Factor XII D. Factor XIII

D. Factor XIII

Mucocutaneous hemorrhage is typical of: A. Acquired hemorrhagic disorders B. Localized hemorrhagic disorders C. Defects in primary hemostasis D. Defects in fibrinolysis

C. Defects in primary hemostasis

What is the most prevalent form of VWD? A. Type 1 B. Type 2A C. Type 2B D.Type 3

A. Type 1

Mucocutaneous hemorrhage is typical of: A. Acquired hemorrhagic disorders B. Localized hemorrhagic disorders C. Defects in primary hemostasis D. Defects in fibrinolysis

C. Defects in primary hemostasis

The clinical presentation of platelet-related bleeding may include all of the following except: A. Bruising B. Nosebleeds C. Gastrointestinal bleeding D. Bleeding into the joints (hemarthroses)

D. Bleeding into the joints (hemarthroses)

A defect in GP IIb/IIIa causes: A. Glanzmann thrombasthenia B. Bernard-Soulier syndrome C. Gray platelet syndrome D. Storage pool diseas

A. Glanzmann thrombasthenia

Which of the following is the most common of the hereditary platelet function defects? A. Glanzmann thrombasthenia B. Bernard-Soulier syndrome C. Storage pool defects D. Multiple myeloma E. Uremia F. Drug-induced

C. Storage pool defects

Which of the following is the most common of the acquired platelet function defects? A. Glanzmann thrombasthenia B. Bernard-Soulier syndrome C. Storage pool defects D. Multiple myeloma E. Uremia F. Drug-induced

F. Drug-induced

A reduction in thrombin generation in patients with Scott syndrome results from: A. Defective granule secretion B. Altered platelet aggregation C. Altered expression of phospholipids on the platelet membrane D. Deficiency of vitamin K-dependent clotting factors

C. Altered expression of phospholipids on the platelet membrane

A defect in primary hemostasis (platelet response to an injury) often results in: A. Musculoskeletal bleeding B. Mucosal bleeding C. Hemarthroses D. None of the above

B. Mucosal bleeding

Most coagulation testingmust be performed on PPP, which is plasma with a platelet count less than: A. 1,000/uL B. 10,000/uL C. 100,000/uL D. 1,000,000/uL

B. 10,000/uL

What happens if a coagulation specimen collection tube is underfilled? A. The specimen clots and is useless B. The specimen is hemolyzed and is useless C. Clot-based test results are falsely prolonged D. Chromogenic test results are falsely decreased

C. Clot-based test results are falsely prolonged

Low to absent fructose level in the semen: A. Low sperm concentration B. Low sperm motility C. Low sperm viability D. Presence of antisperm antibodies

A. Low sperm concentration

Specimens for fructose levels should be tested within 2 hours of collection or _______ to prevent fructolysis. A. Refrigerated B. Frozen C. Incubated at 37C D. Maintained at room temperature

B. Frozen

Specimens can be screened for the presence of fructose using the resorcinol test that produces an _______color when fructose is present. A. Blue B. Black C. Green D. Orange

D. Orange

A specimen delivered to the laboratory with a request for prostatic acid phosphatase and glycoprotein p30 was collected to determine: A. Prostatic infection B. Presence of antisperm antibodies C. A possible rape D. Successful vasectomy

C. A possible rape

Living sperm cells in the Modified Bloom's test: A. Unstained, bluish-white B. Purple on a red background C. Purple on a black background D. Red on a purple background 2. Dead sperm cells in the Modified Bloom's te

Unstained, bluish-white

Dead sperm cells in the Modified Bloom's test: A. Unstained, bluish-white B. Purple on a red background C. Purple on a black background D. Red on a purple background

D. Red on a purple background

Stains used for evaluation of sperm morphology, EXCEPT: A. Pap's stain B. Wright's C. Giemsa D. Shorr E. Eosin-nigrosin

E. Eosin-nigrosin

The purpose of the acrosomal cap is to: A. Penetrate the ovum B. Protect the the nucleus C. Create energy for tail movement D. Protect the neckpiece

A. Penetrate the ovum

Location of sperm nucleus: A. No nucleus B. Head C. Neck D. Tail

B. Head

The mucin clot test determines the presence of synovial fluid ______________. A. Protein B. Glucose C. Fibrinogen D. Hyaluronic acid

D. Hyaluronic acid

Before testing, very viscous synovial fluid should be treated with: A. Normal saline B. Hyaluronidase C. Distilled water D. Hypotonic saline

B. Hyaluronidase

What is added to synovial fluid to determine the viscosity? A. Sodium hydroxide B. Acetic acid C. Hydrochloric acid D. Hyaluronic acid

B. Acetic acid

Synovial fluid of high viscosity (i.e., normal fluid) forms a “string” of _____ cm before breaking. A. 1 to 2 cm B. 2 to 4 cm C. 4 to 6 cm D. 8 to 10 cm

C. 4 to 6 cm

Preanalytical (preexamination) variables in laboratory testing include: A. Result accuracy B. Report delivery to the ordering physician C. Test turnaround time D. Specimen acceptability

D. Specimen acceptability

Which of the following is not a potential source of postanalytical (postexamination) errors? A. Excessive delay in reporting or retrieving a test result B. Interpretation of result C. Verbal notification of test result D. Labeling the specimen at the nurses' station

D. Labeling the specimen at the nurses' station

A delta check is a method that: A. Determines the mean and variance of an instrument B. Monitors the testing system for precision C. Monitors patient samples day to day D. Is determined by each laboratory facility

C. Monitors patient samples day to day

The proper blood-to-broth ratio for blood cultures to reduce the antibacterial effect of serum in adults is: A. 1:2 B. 1:3 C. 1:10 D. 1:30

C. 1:10

A bronchoscopy sample with the request for culture of Legionella is sent to the laboratory. The correct plating protocol is: A. Culture on thiosulfate citrate bile salt media B. Incubate the culture media anaerobically C. Reject the specimen and request a sputum sample D. Culture on buffered charcoal yeast extract agar with antibiotics

D. Culture on buffered charcoal yeast extract agar with antibiotics

An organism that must be incubated in a microaerophilic environment for optimal recovery is: A. Campylobacter jejuni B. Escherichia coli C. Pseudomonas aeruginosa D. Proteus mirabilis

A. Campylobacter jejuni

The best medium for culture of Bordetella pertussis is: A. Phenylethyl alcohol agar B. Potassium tellurite blood agar C. Regan-Lowe agar D. Tinsdale agar

C. Regan-Lowe agar

Acceptable specimen sources for culture of anaerobic bacteria includes: A. Sputum B. Stool C. Suprapubic bladder aspiration D. Vaginal

C. Suprapubic bladder aspiration

Cerebrospinal fluid test results that are most consistent with viral meningitis include: A. Decreased protein level B. Increased glucose level C. Increased lactate level D. Lymphocytes predominant

D. Lymphocytes predominant

A 25-year-old man who had recently worked as a steward on a transoceanic grain ship presented to the emergency room with high fever, diarrhea and prostration. Axillary lymph nodes are hemorrhagic and enlarged. A Wright-Giemsa stain of the aspirate shows bacilli that are bipolar, resembling safety pins. The most likely identification of this organism is: A. Brucella melitensis B. Streptobacillus moniliformis C. Spirillum minus D. Yersinia pestis

D. Yersinia pestis

The Voges–Proskauer (VP) test detects which end product of glucose fermentation? A. Acetoin B. Nitrite C. Acetic acid D. Hydrogen sulfide

A. Acetoin

At which pH does the methyl red (MR) test become positive? A. 7.0 B. 6.5 C. 6.0 D. 4.5

D. 4.5

Which of the following reagents is added to detect the production of indole? A. p-Dimethylaminobenzaldehyde B. Bromcresol purple C. Methyl red D. Cytochrome oxidase

A. p-Dimethylaminobenzaldehyde

Which single test best separates Klebsiella oxytoca from K. pneumoniae? A. Urease B. Sucrose C. Citrate D. Indole

D. Indole

Most common and easiest method to detect varicella-zoster virus (VZV) antibodies: A. Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) B. Fluorescent ab to membrane ag (FAMA) C. Hemagglutination D. Polymerase chain reaction (PCR)

A. Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA)

It is considered as the reference method for VZV antibody; most sensitive and most reliable: A. Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) B. Fluorescent ab to membrane ag (FAMA) C. Hemagglutination D. Polymerase chain reaction (PCR)

B. Fluorescent ab to membrane ag (FAMA)

Hermaphroditic, EXCEPT: A. D. latum B. F. buski C. S. intercalatum D. T. saginata

C. S. intercalatum

Adult location of S. japonicum: A. Veins surrounding the bladder B. Venules of the small intestines C. Venules of large intestines D. None of these

B. Venules of the small intestines

Adult location of S. mansoni: A. Veins surrounding the bladder B. Venules of the small intestines C. Venules of large intestines D. None of these

C. Venules of large intestines

Adult location of S. haematobium: A. Veins surrounding the bladder B. Venules of the small intestines C. Venules of large intestines D. None of these

A. Veins surrounding the bladder

Early ring stages of the fifth human malaria, Plasmodium knowlesi, resemble those of: A. Plasmodium malariae B. Plasmodium ovale C. Plasmodium falciparum D. Plasmodium vivax

C. Plasmodium falciparum

Older developing stages (trophs, schizonts) of the fifth human malaria, P. knowlesi, resemble those of: A. Plasmodium malariae B. Plasmodium ovale C. Plasmodium falciparum D. Plasmodium vivax

A. Plasmodium malariae

Synchronized rupture of RBCs every 72 hours: A. P. falciparum B. P. vivax C. P. ovale D. P. malariae

D. P. malariae

Trophozoite tends to form “BANDS” across the cell: A. P. vivax B. P. malariae C. P. falciparum D. P. ovale

B. P. malariae

Which species of malaria parasite usually has ameboid trophozoites and produces small reddish dots in the red blood cell cytoplasm? A. Plasmodium knowlesi B. Plasmodium falciparum C. Plasmodium malariae D. Plasmodium vivax

D. Plasmodium vivax

The malaria parasite characterized by the presence of multiple ring forms or “banana-shaped” gametocytes in red blood cells is: A. P. malariae B. P. vivax C. P. falciparum D. P. ovale

C. P. falciparum

Noncultivatable non-tuberculous mycobacteria: A. M. avium B. M. gordonae C. M. leprae D. M. microti

C. M. leprae

Which mycobacterium of the M. tuberculosis complex fails to grow in culture and has a characteristic “croissant-like” morphology in stained smears? A. M. africanum B. M. microti C. M. bovis D. M. leprae

B. M. microti

The only cestode to have an aquatic life cycle: A. T. saginata B. T. solium C. H. nana D. D. latum

D. D. latum

It causes alveolar hydatid disease which is the most lethal of all helminthic diseases: A. Taenia saginata B. Taenia solium C. Echinococcus granulosus D. Echinococcus multilocularis

D. Echinococcus multilocularis

Intermediate host of Echinococcus multilocularis: A. Dogs B. Foxes C. Coyotes D. Rodents

D. Rodents

Nematode parasites that inhabit the large intestines: Ascaris lumbricoides Capillaria philippinensis Threadworm, hookworm Enterobius vermicularis Trichuris trichiura A. 1, 2 and 3 B. 1, 2 and 5 C. 4 and 5 D. 4 only

C. 4 and 5

Fluke(s) associated with CHOLECYSTITIS (inflammation of the gallbladder), and CHOLANGIOCARCINOMA (cancerous growth in bile duct epithelium): A. F. buski B. P. westermani C. C. sinensis, O. viverrini D. S. japonicum

C. C. sinensis, O. viverrini

Fish carrying metacercariae may transmit: A. Clonorchis sinensis B. Fasciolopsis buski C. Paragonimus westermani D. Schistosoma haematobium E. None of these

A. Clonorchis sinensis

Symptoms and signs mimic those of TUBERCULOSIS, and should always be suspected in patients with tuberculosis who are non-responsive to treatment: A. Ascaris lumbricoides B. Necator americanus C. Strongyloides stercoralis D. Paragonimus westermani

D. Paragonimus westermani

A small, operculated egg with a light bulb shape was found in the feces of a patient with liver abnormalities. A. Fasciola hepatica B. Paragonimus westermani C. Fasciolopsis buski D. Clonorchis sinensis

D. Clonorchis sinensis

Consumption of the infective larval stage encysted on aquatic plants that have not been cooked results in infection with: A. Clonorchis sinensis B. Fasciola hepatica C. Heterophyes heterophyes D. Paragonimus westermani

B. Fasciola hepatica

An operculated cestode egg that can be recovered from human feces is: A. Clonorchis sinensis B. Diphyllobothrium latum C. Paragonimus westermani D. Dipylidium caninum

B. Diphyllobothrium latum

Infection with this fluke is acquired by eating the tissues of fresh water crabs: A. Paragonimus westermani B. Eurytrema pancreaticum C. Heterophyes heterophyes D. Fasciolopsis buski

A. Paragonimus westermani

The first intermediate host of Diphyllobothrium latum is: A. Copepod B. Snail C. Fish D. Crab

A. Copepod

What is the infective stage of the broad tapeworm to humans? A. Plerocercoid B. Coracidium C. Hydatid cyst D. Cysticercus

A. Plerocercoid

First-stage larva of flukes that emerge from the egg in fresh water, equipped with cilia, which aid in movement: A. Cercaria B. Metacercaria C. Redia D. Miracidium

D. Miracidium

Schistosomal infection occurs through skin penetration by infected ______ released from a freshwater snail containing the intermediate stages of the schistosome life cycle. A. Miracidium B. Redia C. Cercaria D. Metacercaria

C. Cercaria

The infective stage of the Plasmodium parasite and the Babesia parasite for humans is the: A. Merozoite B. Trophozoite C. Gametocyte D. Sporozoite

D. Sporozoite

100

During a blood meal, a malaria-infected female Anopheles mosquito INOCULATES ______into the human host. A. Gametocytes B. Hypnozoites C. Merozoites D. Sporozoites

D. Sporozoites

other names parasitology

Yves Laure Pimentel · 70問 · 2年前

other names parasitology