POPCORN

100問 • 1年前

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Nonspecific immunity includes all of the following except: A. Inflammation B. Phagocytosis by neutrophils C. B cell activation to produce antibodies D. Resident normal flora

C. B cell activation to produce antibodies

Most laboratories use which type of fire extinguisher? A. Type A B. Type B C. Type C D. Combination ABC

D. Combination ABC

All of the following are differential media except: A. Blood agar B. Chocolate agar C. MacConkey’s agar D. Eosin methylene blue agar

B. Chocolate agar

What is the stain that binds to the nucleic acid of organisms but does not discriminate between gram-positive or gram-negative organisms called? A. Ziehl-Neelsen stain B. Auramine-rhodamine stain C. Gram stain D. Acridine orange stain

D. Acridine orange stain

What step in the Gram stain distinguishes between gram-positive and gram-negative organisms? A. Fixing of the cells to the slide using heat or methanol B. Decolorization using alcohol or acetone C. Counterstain of the Gram stain using safranin D. Application of the mordant, Gram’s iodine

B. Decolorization using alcohol or acetone

Dark-field microscopy is used for the microscopic examination of what types of bacteria? A. Gram-positive cocci such as Staphylococcus aureus B. Yeast such as Candida tropicalis C. Gram-negative bacilli such as Escherichia coli D. Spirochetes such as Treponema pallidum

D. Spirochetes such as Treponema pallidum

Which type of enrichment media is used to isolate Neisseria and Haemophilus organisms? A. Hektoen enteric (HE) agar B. Todd Hewitt broth C. Regan Lowe agar D. Chocolate agar

D. Chocolate agar

pH indicator incorporated in xylose-lysine-desoxycholate (XLD) agar: A. Bromcresol purple B. Bromthymol blue C. Neutral red D. Phenol red

D. Phenol red

The complete clearing of media around bacterial colonies on a blood agar plate is referred to as: A. Alpha hemolysis B. Beta hemolysis C. Gamma hemolysis D. Delta hemolysis

B. Beta hemolysis

What temperature is used to achieve DNA denaturation to a single strand? A. 74 °C B. 92 °C C. 94 °C D. 102 °C

C. 94 °C

A widely used hemagglutination test for detecting antibody to Treponema pallidum is: A. MHA-TP test B. FTA-ABS test C. VDRL test D. Hemagglutination inhibition assay

A. MHA-TP test

What substance added to the antigen in the RPR test allows for more macroscopically visible flocculation? A. Latex particles B. Extracellular antigens C. Heparin-magnesium chloride particles D. Charcoal particles

D. Charcoal particles

The two cations known to influence the activity of aminoglycosides are: A. Sodium and potassium B. Calcium and potassium C. Calcium and magnesium D. Sodium and magnesium

C. Calcium and magnesium

Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus is detected using agar containing: A. Penicillin and sodium chloride B. Ampicillin and magnesium chloride C. Nafcillin and magnesium chloride D. Oxacillin and sodium chloride

D. Oxacillin and sodium chloride

A chromogenic cephalosporin is used to detect resistance to: A. Macrolides B. Aminoglycosides C. ß-lactams D. Tetracyclines

C. ß-lactams

Which test is used for the determination of inducible clindamycin resistance in staphylococci and streptococci? A. E-test B. D-zone test C. A-test D. CAMP test 2. The D-zone su

B. D-zone test

The D-zone susceptibility test is used to test inducible resistance on S. aureus strains demonstrating an initial antibiotic susceptibility profile of: A. Erythromycin sensitive, clindamycin sensitive B. Erythromycin resistant, clindamycin sensitive C. Erythromycin resistant, clindamycin resistant D. Erythromycin sensitive, clindamycin resistant

B. Erythromycin resistant, clindamycin sensitive

Resistance to clindamycin can be induced in vitro by A. Ampicillin B. Erythromycin C. Gentamicin D. Penicillin

B. Erythromycin

All of the following media used for the cultivation of Micrococcaceae are selective except: A. 5% sheep blood agar B. Phenyl-ethyl alcohol agar C. Mannitol salt agar D. Colistin nalidixic acid agar

A. 5% sheep blood agar

Necrotizing fasciitis is a serious infection associated with: A. Streptococcus agalactiae B. Streptococcus mitis C. Streptococcus pyogenes D. Staphylococcus epidermidis

C. Streptococcus pyogenes

Pulmonary anthrax is also known as: A. Black eschar B. Woolsorters’ disease C. Legionnaires’ disease D. Plague

B. Woolsorters’ disease

A large, aerobic, gram-positive, spore-forming rod is isolated from ablood culture. It can be further confirmed as B. anthracis if it is: A. Hemolytic and motile B. Hemolytic and nonmotile C. Nonhemolytic and motile D. Nonhemolytic and nonmotile

D. Nonhemolytic and nonmotile

EYE CULTURE, GRAM-POSITIVE, AEROBIC, MOTILE & BETA-HEMOLYTIC A large, aerobic, beta-hemolytic, gram-positive rod is isolated from an eye culture. Subsequent testing reveals it is motile and produces a wide zone on egg yolk agar. The most likely identification of this organism is: A. Bacillus anthracis B. Escherichia coli C. Bacillus cereus D. Clostridium perfringens

C. Bacillus cereus

All of the following can be used to detect toxin from C. diphtheriae except: A. Guinea pig lethality test B. Elek test C. Modified Tinsdale D. PCR

C. Modified Tinsdale

Which organism exhibits end-over-end tumbling motility when incubated in nutrient broth at room temperature for 1 to 2 hours A. C. diphtheriae B. C. jeikeium C. Arthrobacter sp. D. L. monocytogenes

D. L. monocytogenes

Pregnant women and immunocompromised patients should avoid eating which of the following foods to prevent Listeria infection A. Feta cheese B. Peanuts C. Pickles D. Ice cream

A. Feta cheese

Which organism is most commonly associated with human disease, particularly in immunocompromised patients, such as those infected with HIV? A. Nocardia asteroides B. Rhodococcus equi C. Gordonia sp. D. Tsukamurella sp.

B. Rhodococcus equi

Which organisms may stain partially acid-fast when stained with a modified acid-fast stain? A. Gordonia sp. B. Rhodococcus sp. C. Nocardia sp. D. All of the above

D. All of the above

Which actinomycete is partial acid-fast, has extensive aerial hyphae, and is lysozyme resistant? A. Nocardia sp. B. Rhodococcus sp. C. Gordonia sp. D. Tsukamurella sp.

A. Nocardia sp

Infection caused by non–acid-fast aerobic actinomycetes is usually chronic, granulomatous lesions of the skin referred to as: A. Mycelium B. Necrosis C. Impetigo D. Mycetoma

D. Mycetoma

Incubation of which organism at 25°C produces a characteristic yellow pigment? A. Cronobacter (Enterobacter) sakazakii B. Plesiomonas shigelloides C. Enterobacter aerogenes D. Hafnia alvei

A. Cronobacter (Enterobacter) sakazakii

Enterobacteriaceae are typically gram negative and: A. Non–glucose fermenters B. Capable of reducing nitrates to nitrites C. Catalase negative D. Oxidase positive

B. Capable of reducing nitrates to nitrites

The most common cause of hemolytic uremic syndrome is: A. EPEC B. EAEC C. O157:NM D. O157:H7

D. O157:H7

Which E. coli produces a heat-labile (LT) enterotoxin and a heat-stable enterotoxin? A. UPEC B. ETEC C. MNEC D. EHEC

B. ETEC

A patient presents to the physician with pain and frequency of urination. The urine culture reveals a non–lactose fermenting, gram-negative rod with characteristic swarming on blood agar. The biochemical test that would specifically distinguish this organism from other Enterobacteriaceae is: A. Lactose fermentation B. Oxidase C. Phenylalanine deaminase and H2S D. Triple sugar iron agar

C. Phenylalanine deaminase and H2S

A patient presents with diarrhea and abdominal cramping. The organism isolated from the stool culture is identified as S. dysenteriae (group A). The TSI reaction would have indicated: A. K/K B. K/NC H2S+ C. A/A D. K/A

D. K/A

Which organism has large, smooth, glistening colonies with a lavender pigment and smells like ammonia? A. Acinetobacter spp. B. Bordetella spp. C. Stenotrophomonas sp. D. Burkholderia sp.

C. Stenotrophomonas sp

Which organisms are plump coccobacilli that may resist decolorization and may be mistaken for Neisseria spp? A. Acinetobacter spp. B. Bordetella spp. C. Stenotrophomonas sp. D. Burkholderia sp.

A. Acinetobacter spp

Which of the following Haemophilus species is an agent of a sexually transmitted disease? A. H. parainfluenzae B. H. influenzae C. H. ducreyi D. H. segnis

C. H. ducreyi

Which encapsulated type of H. influenzae is most common? A. Type a B. Type b C. Type c D. Type d

B. Type b

Into which genus have Haemophilus aphrophilus and Haemophilus paraphrophilus been recently reclassified? A. Actinobacillus B. Aggregatibacter C. Haemophilus D. Pasteurella

B. Aggregatibacter

The z score measures: A. How many standard deviations a particular numberis from the right or left of the mean B. The sum of the squared differences from the mean C. The square root of the variance from the mean D. The expression of the position of each test result tothe average

A. How many standard deviations a particular numberis from the right or left of the mean

Which of the following skin puncture areas is (are) acceptable for the collection of capillary blood from an infant? A. Previous puncture site B. Posterior curve of the heel C. The arch D. Medial or lateral plantar surface

D. Medial or lateral plantar surface

If a blood smear is too long, the problem can be resolved by: A. Decreasing the angle of the pusher slide B. Increasing the angle of the pusher slide C. Using a larger drop of blood D. Pushing the slide slower in smearing out theblood

B. Increasing the angle of the pusher slide

Appropriate bone marrow aspiration sites in an adult are the: A. Anterior and posterior iliac crest B. sternum and posterior iliac crest C. tibia and sternum D. both A and B

D. both A and B

The method considered to be the “gold standard” of molecular methods is: A. DNA sequencing B. Southern blot C. Northern blot D. Dot blot

A. DNA sequencing

With a normal diet, an erythrocyte remains in the retic- ulocyte stage in the circulating blood for: A. 1 day B. 2.5 days C. 3 days D. 120 days

A. 1 day

On a Wright-stained peripheral blood smear, stress or shift reticulocytes are: A. Smaller than normal reticulocytes B. About the same size as normal reticulocytes C. Larger than normal reticulocytes D. Noticeable because of a decreased blue tint

C. Larger than normal reticulocytes

The most common erythrocytic enzyme deficiency involving the Embden-Meyerhof glycolytic pathway is a deficiency of: A. ATPase B. Pyruvate kinase C. Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase D. Lactic dehydrogenase

B. Pyruvate kinase

The average diameter of a normal erythrocyte is _____ um. A. 5.2 B. 6.4 C. 7.2 D. 8.4

C. 7.2

The scooped-out part of an erythrocyte that remains after a blister cell ruptures: A. Echinocyte B. Helmet cell C. Spherocyte D. Schistocyte

B. Helmet cell

If you are grading changes in erythrocytic size or shape using a scale of 0 to 4+ and many erythrocytes deviate from normal per microscopic field, the typical score would be: A. 1+ B. 2+ C. 3+ D. 4+

C. 3+

The average adult has _____ g of total iron. A. 0.2 to 1.4 B. 1.5 to 3.4 C. 3.5 to 5.0 D. 5.1 to 10.0

C. 3.5 to 5.0

. What is the most common glycolytic enzyme deficiency associated with the aerobic pathway of erythrocyte metabolism? A. Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) B. Pyruvate kinase (PK) C. Methemoglobin reductase deficiency D. Hexokinase deficiency

A. Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD)

What is the most common glycolytic enzyme deficiency associated with the anaerobic pathway of erythrocyte metabolism? A. Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) B. Pyruvate kinase (PK) C. Methemoglobin reductase deficiency D. Hexokinase deficiency

B. Pyruvate kinase (PK)

The CLSI-recommended method for the ESR is the: A. Wintrobe method B. Westergren method C. Duke D. Ivy

B. Westergren method

Which of the following is (are) characteristic(s) of erythropoietin? A. Glycoprotein B. Secreted by the liver C. Secreted by the kidneys D. All of the above

C. Secreted by the kidneys

Normal adult hemoglobin has: A. Two alpha and two delta chains B. Three alpha and one beta chains C. Two alpha and two beta chains D. Two beta and two epsilon chains

C. Two alpha and two beta chains

If an alkaline (pH 8.6) electrophoresis is performed, hemoglobin E has the same mobility as hemoglobin: A. S B. F C. A D. C

D. C

Most functional iron in humans is found in: A. The bone marrow B. The liver C. Hemoglobin molecules of erythrocytes (RBCs) D. The free hemoglobin in the circulation

C. Hemoglobin molecules of erythrocytes (RBCs)

Chloromas are associated with: A. FAB M1 B. FAB M3 C. FAB M4 D. FAB M5

A. FAB M1

Multiple myeloma is a disorder of: A. T lymphocytes B. Megakaryocytes C. Plasma cells D. The lymph nodes

C. Plasma cells

WM is characterized by increased levels of: A. IgG B. IgM C. IgD D. IgA

B. IgM

The cellular ultrastructural component(s) unique to the platelet is (are): A. Cytoplasmic membrane B. Glycocalyx C. Mitochondria D. Microtubules

B. Glycocalyx

If a child ingested rat poison, which of the following tests should be performed to test the effect of the poison on the child’s coagulation mechanism? A. APTT B. PT C. Fibrinogen assay D. Thrombin time

B. PT

The abbreviation laser stands for: A. Light-associated simulated emission of radiation B. Largely amplified by simulated emission of radiation C. Light amplified by stimulated emission of radiation D. Liquid amplified by stimulated emission of radiation

C. Light amplified by stimulated emission of radiation

Major systems in a flow cytometer include all of the following except: A. Fluidics B. Optics C. Computerized electronics D. Gating

D. Gating

The newer clinical instruments for measuring bloodclotting are based on: A. Clot elasticity B. Fibrin adhesion C. Conduction of impedance of an electrical current byfibrin D. Changes in optical density

D. Changes in optical density

The fibrometer relies on the principle of: A. Clot elasticity B. Fibrin adhesion C. Conduction or impedance of an electrical current byfibrin D. Changes in optical density

C. Conduction or impedance of an electrical current byfibrin

In the photo-optical method, the change in light transmission versus the _____ is used to determine the activity of coagulation factors or stages. A. Amount of patient’s plasma B. Amount of test reagent C. Time D. Temperature

C. Time

A normal PDW is: A. Less than 5% B. Less than 10% C. Less than 15% D. Less than 20%

D. Less than 20%

Poor dental hygiene can lead to osteomyelitis of the jaw; what organism is most often responsible for this type of infection? A. Actinomyces spp. B. Staphylococcus aureus C. Prevotella spp. D. Fusobacterium spp.

A. Actinomyces spp.

Repression of normal flora by the intake of antimicrobials often results in a gastrointestinal infection with: A. Enteropathogenic E. coli B. Pseudomonas aeruginosa C. Clostridium difficile D. Candida albicans

C. Clostridium difficile

Which organism is associated with thrombotic thrombocytopenia purpura? A. Shigella dysenteriae B. Clostridium difficile C. EHEC (VTEC) D. Vibrio cholerae

C. EHEC (VTEC)

Which of the following is a flagellated protozoan that attaches to the intestine via a ventral sucker? A. Cryptosporidium B. Isospora spp. C. Strongyloides stercoralis D. Giardia lamblia

D. Giardia lamblia

When setting up a urine culture, a calibrated loop is used that delivers a specific amount of urine to the media plate. What is that amount? A. 0.01 or 0.001 mL of urine B. 0.10 or 0.01 mL of urine C. 0.001 or 0.0001 mL of urine D. None of the above is correct

A. 0.01 or 0.001 mL of urine

What virus traditionally causes viral parotitis? A. Influenza virus B. Parainfluenza virus C. Rhinovirus D. Mumps virus

D. Mumps virus

Loeffler’s agar slant is a special culture medium used to recover which organism? A. Streptococcus pyogenes B. Corynebacterium diphtheriae C. Bordetella pertussis D. Neisseria meningitidis

B. Corynebacterium diphtheriae

The filovirus that has a characteristic “shepherd’s hook” morphology when viewed by electron microscopy is: A. Ebola Zaire virus B. Ebola Reston virus C. Ebola Sudan virus D. Marburg virus

D. Marburg virus

The ETHANOL SHOCK procedure is used to differentiate: A. Actinomyces and Bifidobacterium spp. B. Prevotella and Porphyromonas spp. C. Clostridium and Bacteroides spp. D. Bacteroides and Actinomyces spp.

C. Clostridium and Bacteroides spp.

Specimen characteristics of an anaerobic infection include: A. Foul odor, presence of sulfur granules, and green fluorescence B. Foul odor, presence of metachromatic granules, and green fluorescence C. Foul odor, sulfur smell, and red fluorescence D. Foul odor, presence of sulfur granules, and red fluorescence

D. Foul odor, presence of sulfur granules, and red fluorescence

Which of the following is the best technique to identify Dientamoeba fragilis in stool? A. Formalin concentrate B. Trichrome-stained smear C. Modified acid-fast–stained smear D. Giemsa’s stain

B. Trichrome-stained smear

Small protozoa that have been missed on wet mounts or concentration methods are often detected with: A. India ink B. Iodine C. Giemsa stain D. Trichrome stain

D. Trichrome stain

Entamoeba dispar is most easily confused morphologically with: A. Entamoeba coli B. Entamoeba hartmanni C. Dientamoeba fragilis D. Entamoeba histolytica E. Blastocystis hominis

D. Entamoeba histolytica

A patient has been diagnosed as having amebiasis but continues to be asymptomatic. The physician has asked for an explanation and recommendations regarding follow-up. Suggestions should include: A. Consideration of Entamoeba histolytica versus Entamoeba dispar B. A request for an additional three stools for culture C. Initiating therapy, regardless of the patient’s asymptomatic status D. Performance of barium x-ray studies

A. Consideration of Entamoeba histolytica versus Entamoeba dispar

Babesia has been implicated in disease from both splenectomized and nonsplenectomized patients. Morphologically, the parasites resemble: A. Plasmodium falciparum rings B. Leishmania donovani amastigotes C. Trypanosoma cruzi trypomastigotes D. Microsporidial spores

A. Plasmodium falciparum rings

Eye infections with Acanthamoeba spp. have most commonly been traced to: A. Use of soft contact lenses B. Use of hard contact lenses C. Use of contaminated lens care solutions D. Failure to remove lenses while swimming

C. Use of contaminated lens care solutions

Which of the following can bypass the need for an intermediate host? A. D. latum B. D. caninum C. H. diminuta D. H. nana

D. H. nana

Infection with Clonorchis or Opisthorchis may result from eating raw or undercooked: A. Aquatic vegetation B. Crabs C. Crayfish D. Freshwater fish

D. Freshwater fish

Which fungus is most often acquired by traumatic implantation into the skin? A. Histoplasma capsulatum B. Sporothrix schenckii C. Coccidioides immitis D. Penicillium marneffei

B. Sporothrix schenckii

What are the optimal temperature and incubation time before a fungal blood culture is reported as negative? A. 37°C; 21 days B. 37°C; 7 days C. 30°C; 21 days D. 30°C; 7 days

C. 30°C; 21 days

Glassware is usually calibrated at: A. 98 F B. 72 F C. 20 C D. 37 C E. Ambient temperature

C. 20 C

The slow moving fraction of LDH (LDH-5) is typically elevated in patients with: A. Hepatitis B. Heart disease C. Peptic ulcer D. Stroke E. Pancreatitis

A. Hepatitis

In lipoprotein electrophoresis, the dense band that does not migrate from the origin is: A. Chylomicrons B. LDL C. Beta lipoprotein D. Cholesterol E. Phospholipids

A. Chylomicrons

ESR test is a measure of inflammation and is dependent in part on plasma: A. Fibrinogen B. Sodium C. Prothrombin D. Protein C

A. Fibrinogen

Which of the following blood stains is NOT used for differential leukocyte counts? A. Wright's stain B. Brilliant cresyl blue C. Giemsa stain D. May-Grunwald

B. Brilliant cresyl blue

The acute phase reactant that has the fastest response time and can rise 100x is: A. Alpha-1 antitrypsin B. Haptoglobin C. C-reactive protein D. Ceruloplasmin

C. C-reactive protein

An immunofluorescence test using reagent antibody directed against the CD3 surface marker would identify which of the following cell types in a sample of human peripheral blood? A. All mature T lymphocytes B. T helper lymphocytes only C. Cytotoxic T lymphocytes only D. T regulatory cells only

A. All mature T lymphocytes

What kind of antigen-antibody reaction would be expected if soluble antigen is added to homologous antibody? A. Precipitation B. Agglutination C. Complement fixation D. Hemagglutination

A. Precipitation

100

After a penicillin injection, a patient rapidly develops respiratory distress, vomiting and hives. This reaction is primarily mediated by: A. lgG B. lgA C. lgM D. lgE

D. lgE

other names parasitology

Yves Laure Pimentel · 70問 · 2年前

other names parasitology