4

100問 • 1年前

ユーザ名非公開

通報

問題一覧

The intensity of the pharmacological action of the drug is most dependent on ____________.

Concentration of the drug at the receptor site.

True for an antagonist: I. No affinity II. No intrinsic activity III. Initiates biological response

When a drug has narrow therapeutic index, it indicates that a drug is

Less safe

If 1 mg of lorazepam produces the same anxiolytic response as 10 mg of diazepam, which is correct?

Lorazepam is more potent than diazepam.

In the presence of picrotoxin, diazepam is less efficacious at causing sedation, regardless of the dose. Picrotoxin has no sedative effect, even at the highest dose. Which of the following is correct regarding these agents?

Picrotoxin is a non competitive antagonist.

Which of the following describes the action of Protamine against Heparin?

Chemical antagonism

True regarding active transport:

AOTA

All of the following statements regarding drug transport are true except

High molecular weight drugs diffuse across cell membrane more easily than low molecular weight drugs.

Administration of a sulfonamide antibiotic may displace bilirubin from binding sites on which of the following substances, leading to passage of bilirubin into the brain and the development of kernicterus?

albumin

All of the following statements about plasma protein binding of a drug are true except which one?

Drugs that are highly bound to plasma proteins generally have a greater VD compared with drugs that are highly bound to tissue proteins.

Food delays gastric emptying time. What effect does this have on absorption of orally administered drugs?

Decreased absorption

According to Biopharmaceutics Classification System (BCS), a drug with high solubility and low permeability belongs to:

Class 3

Pharmaceutical equivalent drug products must have the same ____________. I. Therapeutically active drug ingredients II. Salts or ester III. Dosage form and strength

I, II & III

Drug metabolism happens in most cases, to convert the drug to a compound that is ____________. I. More polar II. More non-polar III. More lipid-soluble IV. More water-soluble

I & IV

Pathway of drug biotransformation where it introduces or exposes a functional group on the drug molecules

Phase 1

Isoniazid undergoes what type of conjugation reaction?

Acetylation

Chloramphenicol is considered to be toxic in infants. This is due to tissue accumulation of unchanged chloramphenicol, resulting from an immature metabolic pathway. Which of the following enzymes would most likely be deficient?

Glucuronosyltransferase

Inducers: I. Increase drug metabolizing enzymes II. Decrease drug metabolizing enzymes III. Increase plasma drug concentration of another drug IV. Decrease plasma drug concentration of another drug

I & IV

Human milk is more acidic than plasma. Which of the following statements are true given this condition? I. Weak acid may diffuse into the breast milk and ionize. II. Weak acid may diffuse into the breast milk and remain unionized. III. Weak base may diffuse into the breast milk and ionize. IV. Weak base may diffuse into the breast milk and remain unionized

II & III

The excretion of a weakly acidic drug is generally more rapid in alkaline urine than in acidic urine. This process occurs because I. A weak acid in alkaline media will exist primarily in its ionized form, which cannot be reabsorbed easily. II. A weak acid in alkaline media will exist in its lipophilic form, which cannot be reabsorbed easily. III. All drugs are excreted more rapidly in an alkaline urine.

I only

The renal clearance of inulin is used as a measurement of

GFR

A drug that will prevent the storage of cholinergic transmitter in vesicles thereby depleting the transmitter at the synapse.

Vesamicol

This drug inhibits the release of acetylcholine. Has cosmetic use and is particularly important in treating strabismus and blepharospasms.

Botox

The only adrenoceptor that is presynaptic in location

Alpha 2

Ritodrine works as a tocolytic by activating this receptor

Beta 2

Which of the following ingredients of a cough and cold preparation is classified as a decongestant.

Phenylephrine

All of the following adverse effects are manifestations of cholinergic agonists except

Xerostomia

An indirect acting cholinomimetic used in the diagnosis of myasthenia gravis.

Edrophonium

The following are signs and symptoms of Organophosphate poisoning except

Tachycardia

Toxicity of atropine can be managed by giving

Physostigmine

Most of the drugs used in the treatment of Alzheimer’s disease are designed to produce ____________ effects.

Cholinergic

An endogenous catecholamine that is used as the DOC for septic shock

Amphetamine exemplifies the pharmacologic mechanism of

facilitation of transmitter release

A 58-year-old white male who has a history of essential hypertension and bronchial asthma has recently been diagnosed with prostatic hypertrophy. His medication history includes the following drugs: I. Propranolol IV. Finasteride II. Ipratropium V. Prazosin III. Metaproterenol Which agent would be most likely to cause postural hypotension?

This dopamine 1 agonist can be used for hypertensive emergency due to its vasodilating effect

Fenoldopam

Blood pressure of 120/90 mm Hg falls under what category of hypertension?

Stage 1

James Dean went to the barangay clinic because he had been complaining of severe headaches, dizziness, and chest pain. Upon examination, the doctor diagnosed him with hypertension of unknown cause. Patients in whom no specific cause of hypertension can be found are said to have:

Primary HTN

The following can be given to patients with hypertension and asthma except

Nadolol

The pharmacologic profile of carvedilol is most similar to that of

Labetalol

Norvasc ®

Amlodipine

Prodrugs except

Captopril

Angiotensin receptor antagonists or blockers (ARBs) are less likely to cause angioedema and cough than the angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors (ACEI) because

ARBs do not inhibit the breakdown of bradykinin.

The following can give rise to birth defects except

Methyldopa

Which of the following antihypertensives does not act at autonomic receptors?

Hydralazine

Class of diuretics that commonly causes ototoxicity.

Loop diuretics

Which of the following diuretics is contraindicated in patients with increased calcium levels in the blood?

Chlorthalidone

It interferes with collecting tubular aldosterone-mediated sodium–potassium exchange and may cause hyperkalemia, gynecomastia, and menstrual irregularities.

Spironolactone

The principal site of action of this drug is on the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle. It is useful in treating pulmonary edema.

Furosemide

Visual disturbances (yellow or green vision), confusion, anorexia, vomiting, atrioventricular (AV) block, and ventricular tachycardia are adverse effects of

Cardiac glycosides

Antidote for Digoxin toxicity.

AOTA

Which of the following pairings of an unwanted effect and the causative drug are true? I. Headache with Nitrates II. Cough with Irbesartan III. Lupus-like syndrome with Hydralazine

I & III

Odd one out

Enoxaparin

Close monitoring of anticoagulants is essential to prevent life-threatening effects such as bleeding. What should be monitored during Heparin therapy?

aPTT

Prototype drug that prevents thromboxane A2 formation by inhibiting COX-1.

Aspirin

All of the following agents have actions on blood platelets to modify clot formation except

Dabigatran

Drug of choice for hypercholesterolemia

HMG-CoA Reductase inhibitors

Much of the reduction in circulating LDL during treatment with simvastatin may be due to

upregulation of HMG-CoA reductase

The following can be taken any time of the day except

Pravastatin

Tyramine-containing food may cause dangerous hypertension in patients on this agent. I. Tranylcypromine IV. Fluoxetine II. Imipramine V. Phenelzine III. Buspirone

l & V

A 38-year-old man has a history of affective disorders, including schizophrenia, depression, obsessive–compulsive disorder, and situational anxiety. His current medication profile includes the following drugs: I. Clozapine III. Buspirone II. Fluoxetine IV. Amoxapine Which agent is most likely being used to treat depression and obsessive– compulsive disorder?

The following selectively block serotonin transporter except

Doxepine

Which of the following agents is not used to treat anxiety?

Thioridazine

The primary concern with opioid use during surgical procedures and overdose is the potential for significant respiratory and CNS depression leading to coma. This can be managed by the administration of opioid antagonists such as nalbuphine.

First statement is correct

Which of the following drug combinations could work cooperatively to enhance a clinical anti-parkinsonian response?

Levodopa and carbidopa

Which of the following statements are true regarding the similarities of Phenytoin and Phenobarbital? I. They have anti-epileptic effects II. They are enzyme inhibitors III. They both have low therapeutic indices

I & III

Certain drugs are sometimes incorporated into local anesthetic solutions to prolong their activity and reduce their systemic toxicity. These drugs include I. Dobutamine II. Phenoxybenzamine III. Epinephrine

III only

Which element is used in the management of Rheumatoid Arthritis?

Gold

Cold intolerance and slowing down of metabolism are symptoms of?

Hypothyroidism

All of the following can be used to treat hypothyroidism except

Methimazole

The preferred drug given in the first trimester of pregnant patients with hyperthyroidism

Propylthiouracil (PTU)

Which of the following preparations is a peakless insulin?

Insulin Glargine

Which of the following insulins can be administered intravenously?

regular insulin

Sodium-Glucose Co-Transporter 2 (SGLT2) Inhibitors block glucose reabsorption in the kidney thereby increasing its excretion thru urine. The most common ADR is:

UTI

Common ADR of alpha glucosidase inhibitors such as Acarbose.

Flatulence

The following belongs to first generation sulfonylureas, except:

Torsemide

Which of the following drugs block the degradation of glucagon-like polypeptide-1?

Saxagliptin

Which of the following classes of compounds directly stimulates the release of insulin from pancreatic beta cells?

Sulfonylureas

Which of the following is a synthetic analogue of human glucagon-like polypeptide-1 that increases insulin secretion and reduces glucagon secretion?

Exenatide

All of the following substances are endogenous tropic hormones secreted by the pituitary gland except

Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)

Which of the following compounds is incorrectly matched with its mechanism of action?

Pioglitazone: competitively blocks the binding of estrogens to their receptor

Which of the following compounds is incorrectly matched with one of its therapeutic uses?

Raloxifene: ovulation induction

Agents used to treat hypercalcemia include I. Vitamin D III. Alendronate II. Calcitonin

II, & III

Which of the following drugs should a patient avoid if he has previously experienced an allergic type of reaction to aspirin? I. Naproxen III. Ketoprofen II. Paracetamol

I & III

The selective cyclooxygenase (COX) 2 inhibitors have been associated with which of the following adverse drug reactions?

Cardiovascular thrombotic events

Which of the following antigout medications acts by decreasing serum levels but increasing urine levels of uric acid, thus increasing the risk of kidney stone development?

Probenecid

A 22-year-old female presents with sneezing, watery and itchy eyes, and a runny nose. She has no significant medical history, but she is in the midst of final exams and must remain alert. What would be the best recommendation for her symptoms?

Fexofenadine

A leukotriene modifier that inhibits the action of 5-lipoxygenase.

Zileuton

Which corticosteroid is most appropriate to administer to a woman in preterm labor to accelerate fetal lung maturation?

Betamethasone

Which of the following prostaglandin analogs is used specifically for the treatment of glaucoma?

Latanoprost

This prostaglandin analog is an abortifacient but can also be used to manage NSAID-induced peptic ulcers.

Alprostadil

Which of the antacids below causes diarrhea?

Magnesium hydroxide

Which of the following drugs, based on its mechanism of action, is effective in treating diarrhea-predominant irritable bowel syndrome (IBS)?

Alosetron

Which of the following is the main physical hazard when administering parenteral drugs with vesicant properties?

Extravasation

Aldrich-Mees lines are a sign of what poisoning?

Arsenic

Antidote for Lead poisoning

EDTA

What chemical antidote is best given for Wilson's disease?

Penicillamine

Methanol toxicity causes blindness due to the formation of

Formic acid

A healthy 2-year-old boy ingested one of his mother's 2 mg clonazepam tablets 1 hour ago. The child presented to the emergency department with CNS depression but a normal heart rate and blood pressure. His bedside glucose checkis also normal. Which antidote might be helpful?

Flumazenil

Cyanide intoxication is best managed by which drug?

Hydroxocobalamin

100

Toxic metabolite of acetaminophen which causes hepatotoxicity

NAPQI

Module 2 Part 1

Module 2 Part 1

Module 1

Module 1

Module 2

Module 2

Antibiotics

Antibiotics

Module 2 Part 2

Module 2 Part 2

Module 2 (Part 2)

Module 2 (Part 2)

Module 2 Part 3

Module 2 Part 3

Module 4

Module 4

Module 4 Part 2

Module 4 Part 2

Module 4 Part 3

Module 4 Part 3

Module 2 (Part 4)

Module 2 (Part 4)

Randome Questions

Randome Questions

Module 2 (Part 5)

Module 2 (Part 5)

Module 2 (Part 6)

Module 2 (Part 6)

Module 4 Part 1

Module 4 Part 1

BCS

BCS

Routes of Administration

ユーザ名非公開 · 79問 · 1年前

Routes of Administration

Pharmacokinetics

Pharmacokinetics

Enzyme Inducers and Enzyme Inhibitors

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Enzyme Inducers and Enzyme Inhibitors

25問 • 1年前

ユーザ名非公開

Metabolism and Excretion

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Metabolism and Excretion

PHARMACODYNAMICS

PHARMACODYNAMICS

Ramdom

Ramdom

A. Parasympathetic (Cholinergic) Drugs

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A. Parasympathetic (Cholinergic) Drugs

Module 1

Module 1

Module 1

Module 1

Module 2

Module 2

Module 3

Module 3

Module 2

Module 2

Module 3

Module 3

Module 3 Rationales

Module 3 Rationales

Terms

Terms

Module 3 Rationales

Module 3 Rationales

Excipients

Excipients

Module 4

Module 4

Flavors,Sweeteners, and Colors

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Flavors,Sweeteners, and Colors

Module 5

Module 5

Anti Glaucoma

Anti Glaucoma

B. Parasympathetic (Cholinergic) Blockers — Anti Cholinergic Agents

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B. Parasympathetic (Cholinergic) Blockers — Anti Cholinergic Agents

20問 • 1年前

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C. Sympathetic (Adrenergic) Drugs

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C. Sympathetic (Adrenergic) Drugs

80問 • 1年前

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D. Sympathetic (Adrenergic) BLOCKERS

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D. Sympathetic (Adrenergic) BLOCKERS

15問 • 1年前

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E. Nicotinic Receptor Blockers

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E. Nicotinic Receptor Blockers

30問 • 1年前

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F. Central Muscle Relaxants (or Spasmolytic agents)

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F. Central Muscle Relaxants (or Spasmolytic agents)

Rationale Quiz 1.0

Rationale Quiz 1.0

A. Anxiolytic Agents

A. Anxiolytic Agents

B.1 Drugs for Depression

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B.1 Drugs for Depression

29問 • 1年前

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B.2 Drugs for Mania / Bipolar Disorder

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B.2 Drugs for Mania / Bipolar Disorder

15問 • 1年前

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C. Drugs for Psychoses - Typical and Atypical Antipsychotics

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C. Drugs for Psychoses - Typical and Atypical Antipsychotics

44問 • 1年前

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D. Drugs for Seizure Disorders

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D. Drugs for Seizure Disorders

36問 • 1年前

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E. General Anesthetics

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E. General Anesthetics

32問 • 1年前

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G. Anti-Parkinson Drugs

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G. Anti-Parkinson Drugs

26問 • 1年前

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H. Drugs for Alzheimer's Disease

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H. Drugs for Alzheimer's Disease

Rationale Quiz 2

Rationale Quiz 2

1. Diuretics

1. Diuretics

2. Angiotensin Blockers

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2. Angiotensin Blockers

12問 • 1年前

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3 and 4. CCBs: Non-dihydropyridines and Vasodilators

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3 and 4. CCBs: Non-dihydropyridines and Vasodilators

Module 2

Module 2

Pharmacodynamics

Pharmacodynamics

Drug Classes

Drug Classes

MOA

MOA

5. Sympatholytics

5. Sympatholytics

B. Drugs for Heart Failure

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B. Drugs for Heart Failure

6問 • 1年前

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C. Drugs for Arrhythmia

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C. Drugs for Arrhythmia

36問 • 1年前

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D. Drugs for Hyperlipidemia

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D. Drugs for Hyperlipidemia

E. Angina Pectoris

E. Angina Pectoris

F. Thrombotic Disorders

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F. Thrombotic Disorders

Antidotes

Antidotes

Deficiencies

Deficiencies

A. Growth Hormones

A. Growth Hormones

B. Adrenal Steroids

B. Adrenal Steroids

C. GnRH, FSH & LH & Sex Hormones

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C. GnRH, FSH & LH & Sex Hormones

D. Thyroid Hormones

D. Thyroid Hormones

E. Diabetes Mellitus

E. Diabetes Mellitus

F. Drugs for osteoporosis

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F. Drugs for osteoporosis

Rationale Quiz

Rationale Quiz

A. Asthma

A. Asthma

B. Allergic Rhinitis

B. Allergic Rhinitis

問題一覧

The intensity of the pharmacological action of the drug is most dependent on ____________.

Concentration of the drug at the receptor site.

True for an antagonist: I. No affinity II. No intrinsic activity III. Initiates biological response

When a drug has narrow therapeutic index, it indicates that a drug is

Less safe

If 1 mg of lorazepam produces the same anxiolytic response as 10 mg of diazepam, which is correct?

Lorazepam is more potent than diazepam.

Picrotoxin is a non competitive antagonist.

Which of the following describes the action of Protamine against Heparin?

Chemical antagonism

True regarding active transport:

AOTA

All of the following statements regarding drug transport are true except

High molecular weight drugs diffuse across cell membrane more easily than low molecular weight drugs.

albumin

All of the following statements about plasma protein binding of a drug are true except which one?

Drugs that are highly bound to plasma proteins generally have a greater VD compared with drugs that are highly bound to tissue proteins.

Food delays gastric emptying time. What effect does this have on absorption of orally administered drugs?

Decreased absorption

According to Biopharmaceutics Classification System (BCS), a drug with high solubility and low permeability belongs to:

Class 3

Pharmaceutical equivalent drug products must have the same ____________. I. Therapeutically active drug ingredients II. Salts or ester III. Dosage form and strength

I, II & III

Drug metabolism happens in most cases, to convert the drug to a compound that is ____________. I. More polar II. More non-polar III. More lipid-soluble IV. More water-soluble

I & IV

Pathway of drug biotransformation where it introduces or exposes a functional group on the drug molecules

Phase 1

Isoniazid undergoes what type of conjugation reaction?

Acetylation

Glucuronosyltransferase

Inducers: I. Increase drug metabolizing enzymes II. Decrease drug metabolizing enzymes III. Increase plasma drug concentration of another drug IV. Decrease plasma drug concentration of another drug

I & IV

II & III

I only

The renal clearance of inulin is used as a measurement of

GFR

A drug that will prevent the storage of cholinergic transmitter in vesicles thereby depleting the transmitter at the synapse.

Vesamicol

This drug inhibits the release of acetylcholine. Has cosmetic use and is particularly important in treating strabismus and blepharospasms.

Botox

The only adrenoceptor that is presynaptic in location

Alpha 2

Ritodrine works as a tocolytic by activating this receptor

Beta 2

Which of the following ingredients of a cough and cold preparation is classified as a decongestant.

Phenylephrine

All of the following adverse effects are manifestations of cholinergic agonists except

Xerostomia

An indirect acting cholinomimetic used in the diagnosis of myasthenia gravis.

Edrophonium

The following are signs and symptoms of Organophosphate poisoning except

Tachycardia

Toxicity of atropine can be managed by giving

Physostigmine

Most of the drugs used in the treatment of Alzheimer’s disease are designed to produce ____________ effects.

Cholinergic

An endogenous catecholamine that is used as the DOC for septic shock

Amphetamine exemplifies the pharmacologic mechanism of

facilitation of transmitter release

This dopamine 1 agonist can be used for hypertensive emergency due to its vasodilating effect

Fenoldopam

Blood pressure of 120/90 mm Hg falls under what category of hypertension?

Stage 1

Primary HTN

The following can be given to patients with hypertension and asthma except

Nadolol

The pharmacologic profile of carvedilol is most similar to that of

Labetalol

Norvasc ®

Amlodipine

Prodrugs except

Captopril

Angiotensin receptor antagonists or blockers (ARBs) are less likely to cause angioedema and cough than the angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors (ACEI) because

ARBs do not inhibit the breakdown of bradykinin.

The following can give rise to birth defects except

Methyldopa

Which of the following antihypertensives does not act at autonomic receptors?

Hydralazine

Class of diuretics that commonly causes ototoxicity.

Loop diuretics

Which of the following diuretics is contraindicated in patients with increased calcium levels in the blood?

Chlorthalidone

It interferes with collecting tubular aldosterone-mediated sodium–potassium exchange and may cause hyperkalemia, gynecomastia, and menstrual irregularities.

Spironolactone

The principal site of action of this drug is on the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle. It is useful in treating pulmonary edema.

Furosemide

Visual disturbances (yellow or green vision), confusion, anorexia, vomiting, atrioventricular (AV) block, and ventricular tachycardia are adverse effects of

Cardiac glycosides

Antidote for Digoxin toxicity.

AOTA

Which of the following pairings of an unwanted effect and the causative drug are true? I. Headache with Nitrates II. Cough with Irbesartan III. Lupus-like syndrome with Hydralazine

I & III

Odd one out

Enoxaparin

Close monitoring of anticoagulants is essential to prevent life-threatening effects such as bleeding. What should be monitored during Heparin therapy?

aPTT

Prototype drug that prevents thromboxane A2 formation by inhibiting COX-1.

Aspirin

All of the following agents have actions on blood platelets to modify clot formation except

Dabigatran

Drug of choice for hypercholesterolemia

HMG-CoA Reductase inhibitors

Much of the reduction in circulating LDL during treatment with simvastatin may be due to

upregulation of HMG-CoA reductase

The following can be taken any time of the day except

Pravastatin

Tyramine-containing food may cause dangerous hypertension in patients on this agent. I. Tranylcypromine IV. Fluoxetine II. Imipramine V. Phenelzine III. Buspirone

l & V

The following selectively block serotonin transporter except

Doxepine

Which of the following agents is not used to treat anxiety?

Thioridazine

First statement is correct

Which of the following drug combinations could work cooperatively to enhance a clinical anti-parkinsonian response?

Levodopa and carbidopa

I & III

III only

Which element is used in the management of Rheumatoid Arthritis?

Gold

Cold intolerance and slowing down of metabolism are symptoms of?

Hypothyroidism

All of the following can be used to treat hypothyroidism except

Methimazole

The preferred drug given in the first trimester of pregnant patients with hyperthyroidism

Propylthiouracil (PTU)

Which of the following preparations is a peakless insulin?

Insulin Glargine

Which of the following insulins can be administered intravenously?

regular insulin

Sodium-Glucose Co-Transporter 2 (SGLT2) Inhibitors block glucose reabsorption in the kidney thereby increasing its excretion thru urine. The most common ADR is:

UTI

Common ADR of alpha glucosidase inhibitors such as Acarbose.

Flatulence

The following belongs to first generation sulfonylureas, except:

Torsemide

Which of the following drugs block the degradation of glucagon-like polypeptide-1?

Saxagliptin

Which of the following classes of compounds directly stimulates the release of insulin from pancreatic beta cells?

Sulfonylureas

Which of the following is a synthetic analogue of human glucagon-like polypeptide-1 that increases insulin secretion and reduces glucagon secretion?

Exenatide

All of the following substances are endogenous tropic hormones secreted by the pituitary gland except

Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)

Which of the following compounds is incorrectly matched with its mechanism of action?

Pioglitazone: competitively blocks the binding of estrogens to their receptor

Which of the following compounds is incorrectly matched with one of its therapeutic uses?

Raloxifene: ovulation induction

Agents used to treat hypercalcemia include I. Vitamin D III. Alendronate II. Calcitonin

II, & III

Which of the following drugs should a patient avoid if he has previously experienced an allergic type of reaction to aspirin? I. Naproxen III. Ketoprofen II. Paracetamol

I & III

The selective cyclooxygenase (COX) 2 inhibitors have been associated with which of the following adverse drug reactions?

Cardiovascular thrombotic events

Which of the following antigout medications acts by decreasing serum levels but increasing urine levels of uric acid, thus increasing the risk of kidney stone development?

Probenecid

Fexofenadine

A leukotriene modifier that inhibits the action of 5-lipoxygenase.

Zileuton

Which corticosteroid is most appropriate to administer to a woman in preterm labor to accelerate fetal lung maturation?

Betamethasone

Which of the following prostaglandin analogs is used specifically for the treatment of glaucoma?

Latanoprost

This prostaglandin analog is an abortifacient but can also be used to manage NSAID-induced peptic ulcers.

Alprostadil

Which of the antacids below causes diarrhea?

Magnesium hydroxide

Which of the following drugs, based on its mechanism of action, is effective in treating diarrhea-predominant irritable bowel syndrome (IBS)?

Alosetron

Which of the following is the main physical hazard when administering parenteral drugs with vesicant properties?

Extravasation

Aldrich-Mees lines are a sign of what poisoning?

Arsenic

Antidote for Lead poisoning

EDTA

What chemical antidote is best given for Wilson's disease?

Penicillamine

Methanol toxicity causes blindness due to the formation of

Formic acid

Flumazenil

Cyanide intoxication is best managed by which drug?

Hydroxocobalamin

100

Toxic metabolite of acetaminophen which causes hepatotoxicity

NAPQI