問題一覧
1
The intensity of the pharmacological
action of the drug is most dependent on
____________.
Concentration of the drug at the receptor site.
2
True for an antagonist:
I. No affinity
II. No intrinsic activity
III. Initiates biological response
II
3
When a drug has narrow therapeutic index, it indicates that a drug is
Less safe
4
If 1 mg of lorazepam produces the same
anxiolytic response as 10 mg of diazepam,
which is correct?
Lorazepam is more potent than diazepam.
5
In the presence of picrotoxin, diazepam
is less efficacious at causing sedation,
regardless of the dose. Picrotoxin has no
sedative effect, even at the highest dose.
Which of the following is correct regarding these agents?
Picrotoxin is a non competitive antagonist.
6
Which of the following describes the action of Protamine against Heparin?
Chemical antagonism
7
True regarding active transport:
AOTA
8
All of the following statements regarding
drug transport are true except
High molecular weight drugs diffuse across cell membrane more easily than low molecular weight drugs.
9
Administration of a sulfonamide antibiotic
may displace bilirubin from binding sites
on which of the following substances,
leading to passage of bilirubin into the
brain and the development of kernicterus?
albumin
10
All of the following statements about
plasma protein binding of a drug are true
except which one?
Drugs that are highly bound to plasma proteins generally have a greater VD compared with drugs that are highly bound to tissue proteins.
11
Food delays gastric emptying time. What
effect does this have on absorption of orally administered drugs?
Decreased absorption
12
According to Biopharmaceutics
Classification System (BCS), a drug with
high solubility and low permeability
belongs to:
Class 3
13
Pharmaceutical equivalent drug products
must have the same ____________.
I. Therapeutically active drug ingredients
II. Salts or ester
III. Dosage form and strength
I, II & III
14
Drug metabolism happens in most cases, to convert the drug to a compound that is
____________.
I. More polar
II. More non-polar
III. More lipid-soluble
IV. More water-soluble
I & IV
15
Pathway of drug biotransformation where
it introduces or exposes a functional group on the drug molecules
Phase 1
16
Isoniazid undergoes what type of
conjugation reaction?
Acetylation
17
Chloramphenicol is considered to
be toxic in infants. This is due to
tissue accumulation of unchanged
chloramphenicol, resulting from an
immature metabolic pathway. Which of
the following enzymes would most likely
be deficient?
Glucuronosyltransferase
18
Inducers:
I. Increase drug metabolizing enzymes
II. Decrease drug metabolizing enzymes
III. Increase plasma drug concentration of
another drug
IV. Decrease plasma drug concentration of another drug
I & IV
19
Human milk is more acidic than plasma.
Which of the following statements are true given this condition?
I. Weak acid may diffuse into the breast
milk and ionize.
II. Weak acid may diffuse into the breast
milk and remain unionized.
III. Weak base may diffuse into the breast
milk and ionize.
IV. Weak base may diffuse into the breast
milk and remain unionized
II & III
20
The excretion of a weakly acidic drug is
generally more rapid in alkaline urine than
in acidic urine. This process occurs because
I. A weak acid in alkaline media will exist
primarily in its ionized form, which
cannot be reabsorbed easily.
II. A weak acid in alkaline media will exist
in its lipophilic form, which cannot be
reabsorbed easily.
III. All drugs are excreted more rapidly in an alkaline urine.
I only
21
The renal clearance of inulin is used as a
measurement of
GFR
22
A drug that will prevent the storage of
cholinergic transmitter in vesicles thereby
depleting the transmitter at the synapse.
Vesamicol
23
This drug inhibits the release of
acetylcholine. Has cosmetic use and
is particularly important in treating
strabismus and blepharospasms.
Botox
24
The only adrenoceptor that is presynaptic
in location
Alpha 2
25
Ritodrine works as a tocolytic by activating this receptor
Beta 2
26
Which of the following ingredients of a cough and cold preparation is classified as a decongestant.
Phenylephrine
27
All of the following adverse effects are
manifestations of cholinergic agonists
except
Xerostomia
28
An indirect acting cholinomimetic used in
the diagnosis of myasthenia gravis.
Edrophonium
29
The following are signs and symptoms of
Organophosphate poisoning except
Tachycardia
30
Toxicity of atropine can be managed by
giving
Physostigmine
31
Most of the drugs used in the treatment
of Alzheimer’s disease are designed to
produce ____________ effects.
Cholinergic
32
An endogenous catecholamine that is
used as the DOC for septic shock
NE
33
Amphetamine exemplifies the pharmacologic mechanism of
facilitation of transmitter release
34
A 58-year-old white male who has a history of essential hypertension and bronchial asthma has recently been diagnosed with prostatic hypertrophy. His medication history includes the following drugs:
I. Propranolol IV. Finasteride
II. Ipratropium V. Prazosin
III. Metaproterenol
Which agent would be most likely to cause postural hypotension?
V
35
This dopamine 1 agonist can be used
for hypertensive emergency due to its vasodilating effect
Fenoldopam
36
Blood pressure of 120/90 mm Hg falls
under what category of hypertension?
Stage 1
37
James Dean went to the barangay clinic
because he had been complaining of
severe headaches, dizziness, and chest
pain. Upon examination, the doctor
diagnosed him with hypertension of
unknown cause. Patients in whom no specific cause of hypertension can be found are said to have:
Primary HTN
38
The following can be given to patients with hypertension and asthma except
Nadolol
39
The pharmacologic profile of carvedilol is most similar to that of
Labetalol
40
Norvasc ®
Amlodipine
41
Prodrugs except
Captopril
42
Angiotensin receptor antagonists or
blockers (ARBs) are less likely to cause
angioedema and cough than the
angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors
(ACEI) because
ARBs do not inhibit the breakdown of bradykinin.
43
The following can give rise to birth defects except
Methyldopa
44
Which of the following antihypertensives
does not act at autonomic receptors?
Hydralazine
45
Class of diuretics that commonly causes
ototoxicity.
Loop diuretics
46
Which of the following diuretics is
contraindicated in patients with increased
calcium levels in the blood?
Chlorthalidone
47
It interferes with collecting tubular
aldosterone-mediated sodium–potassium
exchange and may cause hyperkalemia,
gynecomastia, and menstrual irregularities.
Spironolactone
48
The principal site of action of this drug is
on the thick ascending limb of the loop of
Henle. It is useful in treating pulmonary
edema.
Furosemide
49
Visual disturbances (yellow or green
vision), confusion, anorexia, vomiting,
atrioventricular (AV) block, and ventricular
tachycardia are adverse effects of
Cardiac glycosides
50
Antidote for Digoxin toxicity.
AOTA
51
Which of the following pairings of an
unwanted effect and the causative drug
are true?
I. Headache with Nitrates
II. Cough with Irbesartan
III. Lupus-like syndrome with Hydralazine
I & III
52
Odd one out
Enoxaparin
53
Close monitoring of anticoagulants is
essential to prevent life-threatening
effects such as bleeding. What should be
monitored during Heparin therapy?
aPTT
54
Prototype drug that prevents
thromboxane A2 formation by inhibiting
COX-1.
Aspirin
55
All of the following agents have actions on
blood platelets to modify clot formation
except
Dabigatran
56
Drug of choice for hypercholesterolemia
HMG-CoA Reductase inhibitors
57
Much of the reduction in circulating LDL
during treatment with simvastatin may be
due to
upregulation of HMG-CoA reductase
58
The following can be taken any time of the
day except
Pravastatin
59
Tyramine-containing food may cause
dangerous hypertension in patients on this agent.
I. Tranylcypromine IV. Fluoxetine
II. Imipramine V. Phenelzine
III. Buspirone
l & V
60
A 38-year-old man has a history of affective disorders, including schizophrenia, depression, obsessive–compulsive disorder, and situational anxiety. His current medication profile includes the following
drugs:
I. Clozapine III. Buspirone
II. Fluoxetine IV. Amoxapine
Which agent is most likely being used
to treat depression and obsessive–
compulsive disorder?
II
61
The following selectively block serotonin
transporter except
Doxepine
62
Which of the following agents is not used
to treat anxiety?
Thioridazine
63
The primary concern with opioid use
during surgical procedures and overdose
is the potential for significant respiratory
and CNS depression leading to coma. This can be managed by the administration of opioid antagonists such as nalbuphine.
First statement is correct
64
Which of the following drug combinations
could work cooperatively to enhance a
clinical anti-parkinsonian response?
Levodopa and carbidopa
65
Which of the following statements are true regarding the similarities of Phenytoin and
Phenobarbital?
I. They have anti-epileptic effects
II. They are enzyme inhibitors
III. They both have low therapeutic indices
I & III
66
Certain drugs are sometimes incorporated
into local anesthetic solutions to prolong
their activity and reduce their systemic
toxicity. These drugs include
I. Dobutamine
II. Phenoxybenzamine
III. Epinephrine
III only
67
Which element is used in the
management of Rheumatoid Arthritis?
Gold
68
Cold intolerance and slowing down of
metabolism are symptoms of?
Hypothyroidism
69
All of the following can be used to treat
hypothyroidism except
Methimazole
70
The preferred drug given in the first
trimester of pregnant patients with
hyperthyroidism
Propylthiouracil (PTU)
71
Which of the following preparations is a
peakless insulin?
Insulin Glargine
72
Which of the following insulins can be
administered intravenously?
regular insulin
73
Sodium-Glucose Co-Transporter 2 (SGLT2) Inhibitors block glucose reabsorption in the kidney thereby increasing its excretion thru urine. The most common ADR is:
UTI
74
Common ADR of alpha glucosidase
inhibitors such as Acarbose.
Flatulence
75
The following belongs to first generation
sulfonylureas, except:
Torsemide
76
Which of the following drugs block
the degradation of glucagon-like
polypeptide-1?
Saxagliptin
77
Which of the following classes of
compounds directly stimulates the release of insulin from pancreatic beta cells?
Sulfonylureas
78
Which of the following is a synthetic
analogue of human glucagon-like
polypeptide-1 that increases insulin
secretion and reduces glucagon secretion?
Exenatide
79
All of the following substances are
endogenous tropic hormones secreted by
the pituitary gland except
Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)
80
Which of the following compounds is
incorrectly matched with its mechanism of action?
Pioglitazone: competitively blocks the binding of estrogens to their receptor
81
Which of the following compounds
is incorrectly matched with one of its
therapeutic uses?
Raloxifene: ovulation induction
82
Agents used to treat hypercalcemia
include
I. Vitamin D III. Alendronate
II. Calcitonin
II, & III
83
Which of the following drugs should
a patient avoid if he has previously
experienced an allergic type of reaction to
aspirin?
I. Naproxen III. Ketoprofen
II. Paracetamol
I & III
84
The selective cyclooxygenase (COX) 2
inhibitors have been associated with which of the following adverse drug reactions?
Cardiovascular thrombotic events
85
Which of the following antigout
medications acts by decreasing serum
levels but increasing urine levels of uric
acid, thus increasing the risk of kidney
stone development?
Probenecid
86
A 22-year-old female presents with
sneezing, watery and itchy eyes, and a
runny nose. She has no significant medical history, but she is in the midst of final exams and must remain alert. What would be the best recommendation for her
symptoms?
Fexofenadine
87
A leukotriene modifier that inhibits the
action of 5-lipoxygenase.
Zileuton
88
Which corticosteroid is most appropriate
to administer to a woman in preterm labor
to accelerate fetal lung maturation?
Betamethasone
89
Which of the following prostaglandin
analogs is used specifically for the
treatment of glaucoma?
Latanoprost
90
This prostaglandin analog is an
abortifacient but can also be used to
manage NSAID-induced peptic ulcers.
Alprostadil
91
Which of the antacids below causes
diarrhea?
Magnesium hydroxide
92
Which of the following drugs, based on
its mechanism of action, is effective in
treating diarrhea-predominant irritable
bowel syndrome (IBS)?
Alosetron
93
Which of the following is the main physical hazard when administering parenteral drugs with vesicant properties?
Extravasation
94
Aldrich-Mees lines are a sign of what
poisoning?
Arsenic
95
Antidote for Lead poisoning
EDTA
96
What chemical antidote is best given for
Wilson's disease?
Penicillamine
97
Methanol toxicity causes blindness due to
the formation of
Formic acid
98
A healthy 2-year-old boy ingested one of
his mother's 2 mg clonazepam tablets
1 hour ago. The child presented to the
emergency department with CNS
depression but a normal heart rate and
blood pressure. His bedside glucose checkis also normal. Which antidote might be
helpful?
Flumazenil
99
Cyanide intoxication is best managed by
which drug?
Hydroxocobalamin
100
Toxic metabolite of acetaminophen which
causes hepatotoxicity
NAPQI
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Antibiotics
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2
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2
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問題一覧
1
The intensity of the pharmacological
action of the drug is most dependent on
____________.
Concentration of the drug at the receptor site.
2
True for an antagonist:
I. No affinity
II. No intrinsic activity
III. Initiates biological response
II
3
When a drug has narrow therapeutic index, it indicates that a drug is
Less safe
4
If 1 mg of lorazepam produces the same
anxiolytic response as 10 mg of diazepam,
which is correct?
Lorazepam is more potent than diazepam.
5
In the presence of picrotoxin, diazepam
is less efficacious at causing sedation,
regardless of the dose. Picrotoxin has no
sedative effect, even at the highest dose.
Which of the following is correct regarding these agents?
Picrotoxin is a non competitive antagonist.
6
Which of the following describes the action of Protamine against Heparin?
Chemical antagonism
7
True regarding active transport:
AOTA
8
All of the following statements regarding
drug transport are true except
High molecular weight drugs diffuse across cell membrane more easily than low molecular weight drugs.
9
Administration of a sulfonamide antibiotic
may displace bilirubin from binding sites
on which of the following substances,
leading to passage of bilirubin into the
brain and the development of kernicterus?
albumin
10
All of the following statements about
plasma protein binding of a drug are true
except which one?
Drugs that are highly bound to plasma proteins generally have a greater VD compared with drugs that are highly bound to tissue proteins.
11
Food delays gastric emptying time. What
effect does this have on absorption of orally administered drugs?
Decreased absorption
12
According to Biopharmaceutics
Classification System (BCS), a drug with
high solubility and low permeability
belongs to:
Class 3
13
Pharmaceutical equivalent drug products
must have the same ____________.
I. Therapeutically active drug ingredients
II. Salts or ester
III. Dosage form and strength
I, II & III
14
Drug metabolism happens in most cases, to convert the drug to a compound that is
____________.
I. More polar
II. More non-polar
III. More lipid-soluble
IV. More water-soluble
I & IV
15
Pathway of drug biotransformation where
it introduces or exposes a functional group on the drug molecules
Phase 1
16
Isoniazid undergoes what type of
conjugation reaction?
Acetylation
17
Chloramphenicol is considered to
be toxic in infants. This is due to
tissue accumulation of unchanged
chloramphenicol, resulting from an
immature metabolic pathway. Which of
the following enzymes would most likely
be deficient?
Glucuronosyltransferase
18
Inducers:
I. Increase drug metabolizing enzymes
II. Decrease drug metabolizing enzymes
III. Increase plasma drug concentration of
another drug
IV. Decrease plasma drug concentration of another drug
I & IV
19
Human milk is more acidic than plasma.
Which of the following statements are true given this condition?
I. Weak acid may diffuse into the breast
milk and ionize.
II. Weak acid may diffuse into the breast
milk and remain unionized.
III. Weak base may diffuse into the breast
milk and ionize.
IV. Weak base may diffuse into the breast
milk and remain unionized
II & III
20
The excretion of a weakly acidic drug is
generally more rapid in alkaline urine than
in acidic urine. This process occurs because
I. A weak acid in alkaline media will exist
primarily in its ionized form, which
cannot be reabsorbed easily.
II. A weak acid in alkaline media will exist
in its lipophilic form, which cannot be
reabsorbed easily.
III. All drugs are excreted more rapidly in an alkaline urine.
I only
21
The renal clearance of inulin is used as a
measurement of
GFR
22
A drug that will prevent the storage of
cholinergic transmitter in vesicles thereby
depleting the transmitter at the synapse.
Vesamicol
23
This drug inhibits the release of
acetylcholine. Has cosmetic use and
is particularly important in treating
strabismus and blepharospasms.
Botox
24
The only adrenoceptor that is presynaptic
in location
Alpha 2
25
Ritodrine works as a tocolytic by activating this receptor
Beta 2
26
Which of the following ingredients of a cough and cold preparation is classified as a decongestant.
Phenylephrine
27
All of the following adverse effects are
manifestations of cholinergic agonists
except
Xerostomia
28
An indirect acting cholinomimetic used in
the diagnosis of myasthenia gravis.
Edrophonium
29
The following are signs and symptoms of
Organophosphate poisoning except
Tachycardia
30
Toxicity of atropine can be managed by
giving
Physostigmine
31
Most of the drugs used in the treatment
of Alzheimer’s disease are designed to
produce ____________ effects.
Cholinergic
32
An endogenous catecholamine that is
used as the DOC for septic shock
NE
33
Amphetamine exemplifies the pharmacologic mechanism of
facilitation of transmitter release
34
A 58-year-old white male who has a history of essential hypertension and bronchial asthma has recently been diagnosed with prostatic hypertrophy. His medication history includes the following drugs:
I. Propranolol IV. Finasteride
II. Ipratropium V. Prazosin
III. Metaproterenol
Which agent would be most likely to cause postural hypotension?
V
35
This dopamine 1 agonist can be used
for hypertensive emergency due to its vasodilating effect
Fenoldopam
36
Blood pressure of 120/90 mm Hg falls
under what category of hypertension?
Stage 1
37
James Dean went to the barangay clinic
because he had been complaining of
severe headaches, dizziness, and chest
pain. Upon examination, the doctor
diagnosed him with hypertension of
unknown cause. Patients in whom no specific cause of hypertension can be found are said to have:
Primary HTN
38
The following can be given to patients with hypertension and asthma except
Nadolol
39
The pharmacologic profile of carvedilol is most similar to that of
Labetalol
40
Norvasc ®
Amlodipine
41
Prodrugs except
Captopril
42
Angiotensin receptor antagonists or
blockers (ARBs) are less likely to cause
angioedema and cough than the
angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors
(ACEI) because
ARBs do not inhibit the breakdown of bradykinin.
43
The following can give rise to birth defects except
Methyldopa
44
Which of the following antihypertensives
does not act at autonomic receptors?
Hydralazine
45
Class of diuretics that commonly causes
ototoxicity.
Loop diuretics
46
Which of the following diuretics is
contraindicated in patients with increased
calcium levels in the blood?
Chlorthalidone
47
It interferes with collecting tubular
aldosterone-mediated sodium–potassium
exchange and may cause hyperkalemia,
gynecomastia, and menstrual irregularities.
Spironolactone
48
The principal site of action of this drug is
on the thick ascending limb of the loop of
Henle. It is useful in treating pulmonary
edema.
Furosemide
49
Visual disturbances (yellow or green
vision), confusion, anorexia, vomiting,
atrioventricular (AV) block, and ventricular
tachycardia are adverse effects of
Cardiac glycosides
50
Antidote for Digoxin toxicity.
AOTA
51
Which of the following pairings of an
unwanted effect and the causative drug
are true?
I. Headache with Nitrates
II. Cough with Irbesartan
III. Lupus-like syndrome with Hydralazine
I & III
52
Odd one out
Enoxaparin
53
Close monitoring of anticoagulants is
essential to prevent life-threatening
effects such as bleeding. What should be
monitored during Heparin therapy?
aPTT
54
Prototype drug that prevents
thromboxane A2 formation by inhibiting
COX-1.
Aspirin
55
All of the following agents have actions on
blood platelets to modify clot formation
except
Dabigatran
56
Drug of choice for hypercholesterolemia
HMG-CoA Reductase inhibitors
57
Much of the reduction in circulating LDL
during treatment with simvastatin may be
due to
upregulation of HMG-CoA reductase
58
The following can be taken any time of the
day except
Pravastatin
59
Tyramine-containing food may cause
dangerous hypertension in patients on this agent.
I. Tranylcypromine IV. Fluoxetine
II. Imipramine V. Phenelzine
III. Buspirone
l & V
60
A 38-year-old man has a history of affective disorders, including schizophrenia, depression, obsessive–compulsive disorder, and situational anxiety. His current medication profile includes the following
drugs:
I. Clozapine III. Buspirone
II. Fluoxetine IV. Amoxapine
Which agent is most likely being used
to treat depression and obsessive–
compulsive disorder?
II
61
The following selectively block serotonin
transporter except
Doxepine
62
Which of the following agents is not used
to treat anxiety?
Thioridazine
63
The primary concern with opioid use
during surgical procedures and overdose
is the potential for significant respiratory
and CNS depression leading to coma. This can be managed by the administration of opioid antagonists such as nalbuphine.
First statement is correct
64
Which of the following drug combinations
could work cooperatively to enhance a
clinical anti-parkinsonian response?
Levodopa and carbidopa
65
Which of the following statements are true regarding the similarities of Phenytoin and
Phenobarbital?
I. They have anti-epileptic effects
II. They are enzyme inhibitors
III. They both have low therapeutic indices
I & III
66
Certain drugs are sometimes incorporated
into local anesthetic solutions to prolong
their activity and reduce their systemic
toxicity. These drugs include
I. Dobutamine
II. Phenoxybenzamine
III. Epinephrine
III only
67
Which element is used in the
management of Rheumatoid Arthritis?
Gold
68
Cold intolerance and slowing down of
metabolism are symptoms of?
Hypothyroidism
69
All of the following can be used to treat
hypothyroidism except
Methimazole
70
The preferred drug given in the first
trimester of pregnant patients with
hyperthyroidism
Propylthiouracil (PTU)
71
Which of the following preparations is a
peakless insulin?
Insulin Glargine
72
Which of the following insulins can be
administered intravenously?
regular insulin
73
Sodium-Glucose Co-Transporter 2 (SGLT2) Inhibitors block glucose reabsorption in the kidney thereby increasing its excretion thru urine. The most common ADR is:
UTI
74
Common ADR of alpha glucosidase
inhibitors such as Acarbose.
Flatulence
75
The following belongs to first generation
sulfonylureas, except:
Torsemide
76
Which of the following drugs block
the degradation of glucagon-like
polypeptide-1?
Saxagliptin
77
Which of the following classes of
compounds directly stimulates the release of insulin from pancreatic beta cells?
Sulfonylureas
78
Which of the following is a synthetic
analogue of human glucagon-like
polypeptide-1 that increases insulin
secretion and reduces glucagon secretion?
Exenatide
79
All of the following substances are
endogenous tropic hormones secreted by
the pituitary gland except
Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)
80
Which of the following compounds is
incorrectly matched with its mechanism of action?
Pioglitazone: competitively blocks the binding of estrogens to their receptor
81
Which of the following compounds
is incorrectly matched with one of its
therapeutic uses?
Raloxifene: ovulation induction
82
Agents used to treat hypercalcemia
include
I. Vitamin D III. Alendronate
II. Calcitonin
II, & III
83
Which of the following drugs should
a patient avoid if he has previously
experienced an allergic type of reaction to
aspirin?
I. Naproxen III. Ketoprofen
II. Paracetamol
I & III
84
The selective cyclooxygenase (COX) 2
inhibitors have been associated with which of the following adverse drug reactions?
Cardiovascular thrombotic events
85
Which of the following antigout
medications acts by decreasing serum
levels but increasing urine levels of uric
acid, thus increasing the risk of kidney
stone development?
Probenecid
86
A 22-year-old female presents with
sneezing, watery and itchy eyes, and a
runny nose. She has no significant medical history, but she is in the midst of final exams and must remain alert. What would be the best recommendation for her
symptoms?
Fexofenadine
87
A leukotriene modifier that inhibits the
action of 5-lipoxygenase.
Zileuton
88
Which corticosteroid is most appropriate
to administer to a woman in preterm labor
to accelerate fetal lung maturation?
Betamethasone
89
Which of the following prostaglandin
analogs is used specifically for the
treatment of glaucoma?
Latanoprost
90
This prostaglandin analog is an
abortifacient but can also be used to
manage NSAID-induced peptic ulcers.
Alprostadil
91
Which of the antacids below causes
diarrhea?
Magnesium hydroxide
92
Which of the following drugs, based on
its mechanism of action, is effective in
treating diarrhea-predominant irritable
bowel syndrome (IBS)?
Alosetron
93
Which of the following is the main physical hazard when administering parenteral drugs with vesicant properties?
Extravasation
94
Aldrich-Mees lines are a sign of what
poisoning?
Arsenic
95
Antidote for Lead poisoning
EDTA
96
What chemical antidote is best given for
Wilson's disease?
Penicillamine
97
Methanol toxicity causes blindness due to
the formation of
Formic acid
98
A healthy 2-year-old boy ingested one of
his mother's 2 mg clonazepam tablets
1 hour ago. The child presented to the
emergency department with CNS
depression but a normal heart rate and
blood pressure. His bedside glucose checkis also normal. Which antidote might be
helpful?
Flumazenil
99
Cyanide intoxication is best managed by
which drug?
Hydroxocobalamin
100
Toxic metabolite of acetaminophen which
causes hepatotoxicity
NAPQI