Module 4

100問 • 1年前

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通報

問題一覧

Study of DOSES

Posology

What is the antidote for BENZODIAZEPINE TOXICITY

Flumazenil

Carbonic Anhydrase Inhibitor that is DIURETIC also a treatment for GLAUCOMA

Acetazolamide

Drug given via subcutaneous route

Insulin

Drug given via subcutaneous route

Heparin

45 degrees angle

Subcutaneous

Amount of half life needed to achieve CSS or concentration of steady state?

Increasing Plasma Concentration = Increased half life = _______ Drug clearance

Decreasing

Oral Amoxicillin

Systemic Effect

Which are TRUE regarding local effect of drugs? I. Drug is administered at the site where the pharmacological response is desired. II. Drug preparations intended to produce local effects have minimal absorption to the systemic circulation. III. Anti-asthma drugs administered via inhalational route produce local effects.

I, II and III

The peak concentration for an intravenous bolus dose would be obtained ____.

Immediately after the dose is given

Which of the following refers to the form of parenteral administration that involves injecting drugs such as methotrexate to the spinal cord?

Intrathecal

Which of the following laws/equations governs the passive diffusion of drug?

Fick’s Law

Passive Diffusion

First Order Kinetics

Facilitated Diffusion

Zero Order Kinetics

Active Transport

Zero Order Kinetics

Slowest Transport

Passive Diffusion

Fastest Transport

Active Diffusion

Most Common Transport

Passive Diffusion

Equation involved in Dissolution Rate

Noyes-Whitney Equation

Equation involved in half life

Arrhenius Equation

Equation involved in buffer system

Henderson-Hasselbalch Equation

Also known as buffer EQUATION

Henderson-Hasselbalch Equation

Equation involved in Hyrophilic and Lipophilic Property

Partition Coefficient

Which of the following transport processes is NOT involved in the absorption of drug?

Phagocytosis

[True or False] High MW drugs diffuse across membrane more easily than low MW drugs.

False

[True or False] Protein-bound drugs do not easily cross cell membranes.

True

[True or False] Lipophilic drugs cross cell membrane more easily than hydrophilic drugs

True

[True or False] Drugs may be transported by passive diffusion, carrier mediated or vesicular transport

True

Weak base combined with break milk

Diffused, ionized, ion trapped

Weak acid combined with break milk

Diffused, unionized, reabsorbed

Organs for absorption (of oral drugs)

Small Intestine

Organs for drug excretion

Kidney

Renal excretion

Kidney

Biliary excretion

Small Intestine, Liver

Which drug forms are favorably absorbed?

Lipophilic / Hydrophobic

Which drug forms are favorably absorbed?

Uncharged

Which drug forms are favorably absorbed?

Non Polar

Which drug forms are favorably absorbed?

Distributed

Which of the following drugs easily crosses cell membrane?

LUNARD

Which drug forms are favorably excreted?

Lipophobic / Hydrophilic

Which drug forms are favorably excreted?

Charged

Which drug forms are favorably excreted?

Polar

How much of a 500 mg dose is bioavailable if the administered drug has an F of 75%?

375 mg

What does the upward slope of Curve II represent?

The drug’s absorption rate is greater than its elimination rate.

Curve I represents the blood level concentration of a drug administered in what dosage preparation?

Intravenous injection

Curve III represents the blood level concentration of a drug administered in what dosage preparation?

IV Infusion

Curve I represents the blood level concentration of a drug administered in what dosage preparation?

IV Bolus

Curve II represents the blood level concentration of a drug administered in what dosage preparation?

Intrathecal injection

Decreased oral absorption of a drug due to high stomach pH would result to:

Decreased bioavailability of the drug

Which of the following DFs would be absorbed the fastest in the GIT?

Solution

Which Erythromycin causes Cholestatic Jaundice?

Erythromycin Estolate

Which of the following forms of a drug is favorably absorbed? I. Non-ionized II. Water soluble III. Ionized IV. Lipids soluble

I and IV

The most important organ for the absorption of orally administered drugs

Small intestine

How much of a 500mg dose is bioavailable if the administered drug has an absolute bioavailability of 0.80?

400mg

A newly admitted hospital patient has been taking a brand of digoxin tablets 250 mcg, that are 60% bioavailable. The hospitalist wishes to administer a comparable IV dose using an injection containing digoxin, 0.5 mg/2ml. What is the equivalent dose?

0.6 mL

Which of the following is established when pharmaceutical equivalents display comparable bioavailabilities when studied under similar experimental conditions?

Drugs are bioequivalent.

Which of the following drugs will cross cell membranes easily? I. Polar drugs II. Non-polar drugs III. Lipophilic drugs IV. Hydrophilic drugs

II and III

Requirements for drug products to be considered “pharmaceutical alternatives” include having the same I. Active drug II. Dosage forms III. Salt or ester

I only

Pharmaceutical equivalent” drugs products must have the same I. Therapeutically active ingredients II. Salt or ester III. Dosage form and strength

I, II and III

Contraindicated drug for pregnant patient with Hyperthyroidism

Methimazole

DOC for pregnant patient with Hyperthyroidism

PTU

Doc for Gestational Diabetes Melitus in pregnant patient

Insulin

DOC for Atropine Poisoning

Physostigmine

High Vd = ____ in _________ (___DOA)

increase in Tissue (Higher Duration of Action)

Low Vd = ___ in __________ (___DOA)

increase in Plasma (Lower Duration of Action)

Binding prevents the drug from reaching the target site of action

False

Which of the following is/are the ideal characteristic/s of a drug when given to breastfeeding woman? I. Long half-life II. High molecular weight III. High lipid solubility

Which of the following is TRUE regarding acidic drugs? I. They exist mainly in the ionized form at the stomach II. They exist in a non-ionized form at an acidic environment. III. They exist mainly in the polar form in an acidic urine.

Enalapril: Inactive , ________ Active

Enalaprilat

Predisone: Inactive , ________ Active

Prednisolone

Levidopa: Inactive , ________ Active

Dopamine

Reduced Activity

Enzyme Induction

Increase enzyme = increase metabolism (decrease Plasma concentration)

Enzyme Induction

Decrease enzyme = increase metabolism (Increase Plasma concentration)

Enzyme Inhibition

Neonates have reduced enzyme capacity Result: ___ clearance = ___ t50

Decrease, Increase

Which of the following routes of administration by-passes first-pass effect?

Sublingual

also known as Functionalization phase

also known as Conjugation phase

Most common metabolism in Phase 1

Oxidation

Most common metabolism in Phase 2

Glucoronidation

Nearly absent in Neonates

Glucoronidation

Chloramphenicol is contraindicated to neonates becuaw it might cause:

Gray Baby Syndrome

May undergo Enterohepatic Cycling

Glucoronidation

Caucasians, Jews, Egyptians

Slow Acetylators

Eskimos and Asians

Fast Acetylators

Fast metabolism of Isoniazid will result to hepatotoxicity called:

Acetylhydrazine

Slow metabolism of Isoniazid will result to hepatotoxicity drug called:

Peripheral Neuritis

List the drugs that may undergo ACETYLATION

Hydralazine, Isoniazid, Procainamide, Sulfonamides

Which of the following process Phase 2 processes may undergo enterohepatic cycling?

Glucuronidation

Which of the following phase 2 processes is inducible and has reduced activity in neonates?

Glucuronidation

Depletion of which conjugation process is associated with paracetamol hepatotoxicity?

Glutathione conjugation

Which of the following phase II metabolic reactions makes phase I metabolites readily excretable in urine?

Glucuronidation

The following processes makes drugs polar, except:

Methylation

Most drugs follows what Kinetic Orders?

First-order kinetics

What governs the Kinetic Orders?

Rate Law

Theophylline is given a treatment for persistent asthma but not a first line drug. What kinetic order does Theophylline undergores?

Zero-Order Kinetic

ASA

Zero-Order Kinetic

Phenytoin

Zero-Order Kinetic

100

Ethanol

Zero-Order Kinetic

Module 2 Part 1

Module 2 Part 1

Module 1

Module 1

Module 2

Module 2

Antibiotics

Antibiotics

Module 2 (Part 2)

Module 2 (Part 2)

Module 2 Part 2

Module 2 Part 2

Module 2 Part 3

Module 2 Part 3

Module 4 Part 2

Module 4 Part 2

Module 4 Part 3

Module 4 Part 3

Module 2 (Part 4)

Module 2 (Part 4)

Randome Questions

Randome Questions

Module 2 (Part 5)

Module 2 (Part 5)

Module 2 (Part 6)

Module 2 (Part 6)

Module 4 Part 1

Module 4 Part 1

BCS

BCS

Routes of Administration

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Routes of Administration

Pharmacokinetics

Pharmacokinetics

Enzyme Inducers and Enzyme Inhibitors

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Enzyme Inducers and Enzyme Inhibitors

25問 • 1年前

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Metabolism and Excretion

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Metabolism and Excretion

PHARMACODYNAMICS

PHARMACODYNAMICS

Ramdom

Ramdom

A. Parasympathetic (Cholinergic) Drugs

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A. Parasympathetic (Cholinergic) Drugs

Module 1

Module 1

Module 1

Module 1

Module 2

Module 2

Module 3

Module 3

Module 2

Module 2

Module 3

Module 3

Module 3 Rationales

Module 3 Rationales

Module 3 Rationales

Module 3 Rationales

Terms

Terms

Excipients

Excipients

Module 4

Module 4

Module 5

Module 5

Flavors,Sweeteners, and Colors

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Flavors,Sweeteners, and Colors

Anti Glaucoma

Anti Glaucoma

B. Parasympathetic (Cholinergic) Blockers — Anti Cholinergic Agents

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B. Parasympathetic (Cholinergic) Blockers — Anti Cholinergic Agents

20問 • 1年前

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C. Sympathetic (Adrenergic) Drugs

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C. Sympathetic (Adrenergic) Drugs

80問 • 1年前

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D. Sympathetic (Adrenergic) BLOCKERS

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D. Sympathetic (Adrenergic) BLOCKERS

15問 • 1年前

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E. Nicotinic Receptor Blockers

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E. Nicotinic Receptor Blockers

30問 • 1年前

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F. Central Muscle Relaxants (or Spasmolytic agents)

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F. Central Muscle Relaxants (or Spasmolytic agents)

Rationale Quiz 1.0

Rationale Quiz 1.0

A. Anxiolytic Agents

A. Anxiolytic Agents

B.1 Drugs for Depression

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B.1 Drugs for Depression

29問 • 1年前

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B.2 Drugs for Mania / Bipolar Disorder

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B.2 Drugs for Mania / Bipolar Disorder

15問 • 1年前

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C. Drugs for Psychoses - Typical and Atypical Antipsychotics

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C. Drugs for Psychoses - Typical and Atypical Antipsychotics

44問 • 1年前

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D. Drugs for Seizure Disorders

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D. Drugs for Seizure Disorders

36問 • 1年前

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E. General Anesthetics

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E. General Anesthetics

32問 • 1年前

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G. Anti-Parkinson Drugs

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G. Anti-Parkinson Drugs

26問 • 1年前

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H. Drugs for Alzheimer's Disease

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H. Drugs for Alzheimer's Disease

Rationale Quiz 2

Rationale Quiz 2

1. Diuretics

1. Diuretics

2. Angiotensin Blockers

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2. Angiotensin Blockers

12問 • 1年前

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3 and 4. CCBs: Non-dihydropyridines and Vasodilators

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3 and 4. CCBs: Non-dihydropyridines and Vasodilators

Module 2

Module 2

Pharmacodynamics

Pharmacodynamics

Drug Classes

Drug Classes

MOA

MOA

5. Sympatholytics

5. Sympatholytics

B. Drugs for Heart Failure

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B. Drugs for Heart Failure

6問 • 1年前

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C. Drugs for Arrhythmia

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C. Drugs for Arrhythmia

36問 • 1年前

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D. Drugs for Hyperlipidemia

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D. Drugs for Hyperlipidemia

E. Angina Pectoris

E. Angina Pectoris

F. Thrombotic Disorders

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F. Thrombotic Disorders

Antidotes

Antidotes

Deficiencies

Deficiencies

A. Growth Hormones

A. Growth Hormones

B. Adrenal Steroids

B. Adrenal Steroids

C. GnRH, FSH & LH & Sex Hormones

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C. GnRH, FSH & LH & Sex Hormones

D. Thyroid Hormones

D. Thyroid Hormones

E. Diabetes Mellitus

E. Diabetes Mellitus

F. Drugs for osteoporosis

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F. Drugs for osteoporosis

Rationale Quiz

Rationale Quiz

A. Asthma

A. Asthma

B. Allergic Rhinitis

B. Allergic Rhinitis

問題一覧

Study of DOSES

Posology

What is the antidote for BENZODIAZEPINE TOXICITY

Flumazenil

Carbonic Anhydrase Inhibitor that is DIURETIC also a treatment for GLAUCOMA

Acetazolamide

Drug given via subcutaneous route

Insulin

Drug given via subcutaneous route

Heparin

45 degrees angle

Subcutaneous

Amount of half life needed to achieve CSS or concentration of steady state?

Increasing Plasma Concentration = Increased half life = _______ Drug clearance

Decreasing

Oral Amoxicillin

Systemic Effect

I, II and III

The peak concentration for an intravenous bolus dose would be obtained ____.

Immediately after the dose is given

Which of the following refers to the form of parenteral administration that involves injecting drugs such as methotrexate to the spinal cord?

Intrathecal

Which of the following laws/equations governs the passive diffusion of drug?

Fick’s Law

Passive Diffusion

First Order Kinetics

Facilitated Diffusion

Zero Order Kinetics

Active Transport

Zero Order Kinetics

Slowest Transport

Passive Diffusion

Fastest Transport

Active Diffusion

Most Common Transport

Passive Diffusion

Equation involved in Dissolution Rate

Noyes-Whitney Equation

Equation involved in half life

Arrhenius Equation

Equation involved in buffer system

Henderson-Hasselbalch Equation

Also known as buffer EQUATION

Henderson-Hasselbalch Equation

Equation involved in Hyrophilic and Lipophilic Property

Partition Coefficient

Which of the following transport processes is NOT involved in the absorption of drug?

Phagocytosis

[True or False] High MW drugs diffuse across membrane more easily than low MW drugs.

False

[True or False] Protein-bound drugs do not easily cross cell membranes.

True

[True or False] Lipophilic drugs cross cell membrane more easily than hydrophilic drugs

True

[True or False] Drugs may be transported by passive diffusion, carrier mediated or vesicular transport

True

Weak base combined with break milk

Diffused, ionized, ion trapped

Weak acid combined with break milk

Diffused, unionized, reabsorbed

Organs for absorption (of oral drugs)

Small Intestine

Organs for drug excretion

Kidney

Renal excretion

Kidney

Biliary excretion

Small Intestine, Liver

Which drug forms are favorably absorbed?

Lipophilic / Hydrophobic

Which drug forms are favorably absorbed?

Uncharged

Which drug forms are favorably absorbed?

Non Polar

Which drug forms are favorably absorbed?

Distributed

Which of the following drugs easily crosses cell membrane?

LUNARD

Which drug forms are favorably excreted?

Lipophobic / Hydrophilic

Which drug forms are favorably excreted?

Charged

Which drug forms are favorably excreted?

Polar

How much of a 500 mg dose is bioavailable if the administered drug has an F of 75%?

375 mg

What does the upward slope of Curve II represent?

The drug’s absorption rate is greater than its elimination rate.

Curve I represents the blood level concentration of a drug administered in what dosage preparation?

Intravenous injection

Curve III represents the blood level concentration of a drug administered in what dosage preparation?

IV Infusion

Curve I represents the blood level concentration of a drug administered in what dosage preparation?

IV Bolus

Curve II represents the blood level concentration of a drug administered in what dosage preparation?

Intrathecal injection

Decreased oral absorption of a drug due to high stomach pH would result to:

Decreased bioavailability of the drug

Which of the following DFs would be absorbed the fastest in the GIT?

Solution

Which Erythromycin causes Cholestatic Jaundice?

Erythromycin Estolate

Which of the following forms of a drug is favorably absorbed? I. Non-ionized II. Water soluble III. Ionized IV. Lipids soluble

I and IV

The most important organ for the absorption of orally administered drugs

Small intestine

How much of a 500mg dose is bioavailable if the administered drug has an absolute bioavailability of 0.80?

400mg

0.6 mL

Which of the following is established when pharmaceutical equivalents display comparable bioavailabilities when studied under similar experimental conditions?

Drugs are bioequivalent.

Which of the following drugs will cross cell membranes easily? I. Polar drugs II. Non-polar drugs III. Lipophilic drugs IV. Hydrophilic drugs

II and III

Requirements for drug products to be considered “pharmaceutical alternatives” include having the same I. Active drug II. Dosage forms III. Salt or ester

I only

Pharmaceutical equivalent” drugs products must have the same I. Therapeutically active ingredients II. Salt or ester III. Dosage form and strength

I, II and III

Contraindicated drug for pregnant patient with Hyperthyroidism

Methimazole

DOC for pregnant patient with Hyperthyroidism

PTU

Doc for Gestational Diabetes Melitus in pregnant patient

Insulin

DOC for Atropine Poisoning

Physostigmine

High Vd = ____ in _________ (___DOA)

increase in Tissue (Higher Duration of Action)

Low Vd = ___ in __________ (___DOA)

increase in Plasma (Lower Duration of Action)

Binding prevents the drug from reaching the target site of action

False

Which of the following is/are the ideal characteristic/s of a drug when given to breastfeeding woman? I. Long half-life II. High molecular weight III. High lipid solubility

Enalapril: Inactive , ________ Active

Enalaprilat

Predisone: Inactive , ________ Active

Prednisolone

Levidopa: Inactive , ________ Active

Dopamine

Reduced Activity

Enzyme Induction

Increase enzyme = increase metabolism (decrease Plasma concentration)

Enzyme Induction

Decrease enzyme = increase metabolism (Increase Plasma concentration)

Enzyme Inhibition

Neonates have reduced enzyme capacity Result: ___ clearance = ___ t50

Decrease, Increase

Which of the following routes of administration by-passes first-pass effect?

Sublingual

also known as Functionalization phase

also known as Conjugation phase

Most common metabolism in Phase 1

Oxidation

Most common metabolism in Phase 2

Glucoronidation

Nearly absent in Neonates

Glucoronidation

Chloramphenicol is contraindicated to neonates becuaw it might cause:

Gray Baby Syndrome

May undergo Enterohepatic Cycling

Glucoronidation

Caucasians, Jews, Egyptians

Slow Acetylators

Eskimos and Asians

Fast Acetylators

Fast metabolism of Isoniazid will result to hepatotoxicity called:

Acetylhydrazine

Slow metabolism of Isoniazid will result to hepatotoxicity drug called:

Peripheral Neuritis

List the drugs that may undergo ACETYLATION

Hydralazine, Isoniazid, Procainamide, Sulfonamides

Which of the following process Phase 2 processes may undergo enterohepatic cycling?

Glucuronidation

Which of the following phase 2 processes is inducible and has reduced activity in neonates?

Glucuronidation

Depletion of which conjugation process is associated with paracetamol hepatotoxicity?

Glutathione conjugation

Which of the following phase II metabolic reactions makes phase I metabolites readily excretable in urine?

Glucuronidation

The following processes makes drugs polar, except:

Methylation

Most drugs follows what Kinetic Orders?

First-order kinetics

What governs the Kinetic Orders?

Rate Law

Theophylline is given a treatment for persistent asthma but not a first line drug. What kinetic order does Theophylline undergores?

Zero-Order Kinetic

ASA

Zero-Order Kinetic

Phenytoin

Zero-Order Kinetic

100

Ethanol

Zero-Order Kinetic