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100問 • 1年前

ユーザ名非公開

通報

問題一覧

A type of data analysis in which the results of several studies are lumped together and analyzed.

Meta-analysis

Phase I clinical trials

Both Safety and Involves healthy individuals

The Ames Test, which is usually carried out before proceeding to a clinical trial, is a test that detects ___________.

Mutagenesis in bacteria

A systematically developed statement designed to assist practitioners and patients in making decisions about appropriate health care for a specific clinical circumstance.

Clinical Practice Guidelines

The following correctly describe Peripheral Parenteral Nutrition, except:

For hypertonic solutions

The following are macronutrients found in TPN, except:

Electrolytes

Taking griseofulvin with a high fatty meal will most likely result to

Increase in the absorption of griseofulvin

Blood Urea Nitrogen (BUN) I. Decreased when liver disease is significant II. Increased when liver disease is significant III. Decreased when renal function is decreased IV. Increased when renal function is decreased

I, IV

Indicators of renal damage I. Increased Serum Creatinine II. Decreased Serum Creatinine III. Increased Creatinine Clearance IV. Decreased Creatinine Clearance

I, IV

Megaloblastic anemia is due to the deficiency of: I. Iron III. Vitamin B12 II. Vitamin B9

II, III

Microcytic anemia is due to the deficiency of: I. Iron III. Vitamin B12 II. Vitamin B9

I only

Iopamidol

Contrast media

Patients in whom no specific cause of hypertension can be found are said to have a secondary hypertension. Meanwhile, patients with a specific etiology are said to have essential or primary hypertension.

Both statements are incorrect.

NYHA Classification: No limitation of physical activity.

Class I

Used in the diagnosis of Myasthenia Gravis

Neostigmine

Calcitonin I. Opposes parathyroid hormone II. Promotes parathyroid hormone action III. Increases serum calcium IV. Decreases serum calcium

I, IV

Which of the following is true regarding heparin and warfarin I. Heparin and warfarin are both anticoagulants II. Heparin is administered parenterally while warfarin is given orally III. Heparin and Warfarin overdose requires the same antidote IV. Dosage strength of both heparin and warfarin are expressed in “units”

I and II

An analgesic and antipyretic drug which lacks an anti-inflammatory action

Acetaminophen

Which of the following is not primarily a decongestant?

Chlorpheniramine

The following are H1 blockers used in the management of motion sickness, except: I. Diphenhydramine III. Promethazine II. Scopolamine

II only

All of the following are H2 antagonists, except:

Loratadine

Used to treat xerostomia

Pilocarpine

Which generation of Cephalosporin is the most abundant in the list?

Second

Which of the following antibiotic classes comprise more than half of the list?

Cephalosporins

Total percentage of aminoglycosides

3.9%

A patient was prescribed with the following drugs: Alpha-glucosidase inhibitor (Drug A), Protease inhibitor (Drug B), SGLT2 blocker (Drug C), Mitotic inhibitor (Drug D). Which drugs are helpful in managing the patient’s diabetes?

Drug A, Drug C

A patient was prescribed with the following drugs: Alpha-glucosidase inhibitor (Drug A), Protease inhibitor (Drug B), SGLT2 blocker (Drug C), Mitotic inhibitor (Drug D). What are the other comorbidities of the patient? I. Arrhythmia III. Cancer II. Viral infection

II, III

An asthmatic patient was prescribed with Mometasone, Terbutaline, Theophylline, and Montelukast. Which among the drugs will help provide immediate relief?

Terbutaline

Theophylline is a ______.

Methylxanthine

Which drug will help control the inflammation?

Mometasone

There is positive evidence of human fetal risk based on adverse reaction data from investigational or marketing experience or studies in humans, but potential benefits may warrant use of the drug in pregnant women despite potential risks.

Pregnancy Category D

Controlled studies in women fail to demonstrate a risk to the fetus in the first trimester (and there is no evidence of a risk in late trimesters), and the possibility of fetal harm appears remote.

Pregnancy Category A

The following should be included in hospital’s inventory in relation to newborn delivery except:

Infant formula

Teratogenic effect of Thalidomide

Phocomelia

All of the following drugs are not correctly matched with their teratogenic effects, except: I. Carbamazepine - Neural tube defects II. Valproic acid - Neural tube defects III. Tetracycline - Phocomelia IV. Warfarin - Aplasia cutis

I, II

According to the ASHP classification of medication errors, an error that resulted in a near-death event that needed life sustaining intervention falls under _______.

Category H

According to the ASHP classification of medication errors, an error that resulted in the need for medical intervention falls under _______.

Category E

Which of the following drugs require therapeutic drug monitoring (TDM)? I. Theophylline III. Gentamicin II. Warfarin IV. Losartan

I, II, III

Tetracycline phosphate and Tetracycline hydrochloride are _____.

Pharmaceutical alternatives

A new drug is to be added in a formulary. It was stated that the drug is to be excreted via the kidney. Which type of data should be sought for this type of information?

Pharmacokinetic data

Ritalin® is under what Philippine schedule?

Schedule II

All of the following are true about dispensing dangerous drugs, except:

Brand name is required.

Normal body surface area:

1.73 m2

Arrange from most frequent to least frequent (h.s., q8h, b.i.d.).

q8h > b.i.d. > h.s.

What does D5W mean?

Dextrose 5% in Water

The following are important patient counseling points for patients taking Alendronate, except:

Take with food.

Which of the following drugs may cause significant hypotension upon intake of the initial dose?

Prazosin

First generation H1 blockers are more sedating than second generation H1 blockers.

Not False

Anaphylaxis

Type B ADR

Hypoglycemia from antidiabetic medications

Type A ADR

Opiate withdrawal syndrome

Type E ADR

Which of the following are correctly matched? I. Type C ADR: Addison’s Disease II. Type E ADR: Addison’s Disease III. Type C ADR: Cushing’s Syndrome IV. Type E ADR: Cushing’s Syndrome

II, III

Which of the following are correctly matched?

Type F: AMR

All of the following are adverse effects of ACE inhibitors, except:

Hypokalemia

An adverse effect of statins

Rhabdomyolysis

First-line agents for tuberculosis, except:

Streptomycin

Anti-TB drugs work synergistically against M. tuberculosis.

Not False

Hepatotoxic Anti-TB agents I. Rifampin II. Isoniazid III. Pyrazinamide IV. Ethambutol

I, II, III

Reye’s syndrome is associated with ____.

Aspirin

Oxidation of Acetaminophen by the hepatic enzymes produces a toxic metabolite, ______, but is normally detoxified by reaction with _______.

NAPQI, Glutathione

The antidote for Paracetamol toxicity is _____.

N-Acetylcysteine

All of the following are useful for reversing opioid toxicity, except:

Nalbuphine

Physical incompatibilities may be manifested by: I. Gross precipitate III. Color change II. Haze

I, II, III

Type/s of incompatibility that may be classified as both physical and chemical: I. Insolubility III. Cementation II. Precipitation

II only

Red man syndrome is associated to:

Vancomycin

When a drug which has no effect or has a different effect enhances the effect of a second drug, this is _____.

Potentiation

Type of interaction between Warfarin and Vitamin K.

Antagonism

Alcohol and benzodiazepines I. Additive II. Antagonistic III. Increased sedation IV. Decreased sedation

I, III

St. John’s wort, a natural antidepressant, can cause serious interactions as a result of its enzyme-inhibiting effects.

Not True

The following are enzyme inducers, except: I. Rifampicin II. Chronic alcoholism III. Acute alcoholism IV. Cigarette smoking

III only

What is the clinical outcome when oral anticoagulants are used concomitantly with antibacterial agents such as Ciprofloxacin and Clarithromycin?

Increased anticoagulant effect, hence increased risk of bleeding

A male patient who is a smoker was prescribed diazepam. What could be the effect if he continues smoking while on therapy?

Reduced activity of diazepam

Interaction between MAOIs and Tyramine- rich foods would result in:

Hypertensive crisis

Why is the concomitant use of Amphotericin B with Aminoglycosides not advisable?

Both are nephrotoxic.

Antihemorrhagic vitamin

Vitamin K

The following prescription is received: 100 mg dose of Sodium valproate oral solution to be given b.i.d. for 2 weeks. If the available sodium valproate oral solution contains 200 mg/5 mL sodium valproate, what is the total quantity to be dispensed?

70 mL

The 6-week smoking cessation regimen for Varenicline tartrate (CHANTIX) is as follows: Days 1 to 3: 0.5 mg once daily Days 4 to 7: 1 mg once daily Days 8 to end of treatment: 0.5 mg q.i.d. If the drug is available in 0.5-mg and 1.0- mg tablets, what is the total quantity of tablets to be dispensed?

(4) 1-mg tablets and (143) 0.5-mg table

Calculate the specific gravity of a 132-mL sorbitol solution weighing 150 g.

1.136 g/mL

If a cough syrup weighing 1.285 kg has a specific gravity of 1.285, what is its volume?

1 L

What is the BMI of a patient weighing 80 kg and standing 180 cm tall?

24.69

How many inhalation doses will a 10- mg salbutamol inhaler deliver if each inhalation dose contains 45 mcg of the drug?

222 doses

If a physician prescribes 100 units of insulin to a diabetic patient, how many mL of U-500 insulin injection should be added to D5W?

0.2 mL

A medication order calls for 500 mL of D5W to be administered over a 6-hour period. Using an IV administration set that delivers 15 drops/mL, how many drops per minute should be delivered to the patient?

21 drops/min

Express 1:1500 as a percent strength.

0.067%

A 500-mL lotion contains 8 mL of liquefied phenol. What is the concentration (v/v) of liquefied phenol in the lotion?

1.6%

What is the final concentration in w/w of a solution containing 200 mL of water and 10 g of boric acid?

4.76%

How many mL of a 1:500 w/v solution of the preservative lauralkonium chloride can be made from 120 mL of a 0.25% w/v solution of the preservative?

150 mL

How many mOsmol/L is represented by a solution containing 10% anhydrous dextrose in water for injection? (MW=180 g/mol)

555.56 mOsmol/L

A physician orders for 1.8 g of potassium chloride in 80 mL of solution. How many millimoles of KCl are contained in each milliliter of the solution? (MW = 74.5 g/mol)

0.302 mmol/mL

Convert 10 Kelvin into degree Celsius.

-263.15

Dichlorobenzyl alcohol + amylmetacresol comes in what type of dosage form?

Lozenge

Senolytics are _____ drugs.

Anti-aging

Nalidixic Acid I. Broad-spectrum II. A quinolone antibiotic III. Used to treat sexually transmitted infections

II only

Thalidomide I. Was used as a sedative II. Mutagen III. Used for cancer

I, III

Tamoxifen is used for:

Breast cancer

Magnesium sulfate is used as:

Osmotic laxative

NPH is an Intermediate-acting Insulin. NPH stands for _____.

Neutral Protamine Hagedorn

Glulisine

Rapid-acting

Which of the following compounds exhibits amphoteric properties that makes it suitable to prevent systemic alkalosis?

Aluminum hydroxide

100

Which types of hepatitis are vaccine preventable? I. Hepatitis A II. Hepatitis B III. Hepatitis C

I, II

Module 2 Part 1

Module 2 Part 1

Module 1

Module 1

Module 2

Module 2

Antibiotics

Antibiotics

Module 2 Part 2

Module 2 Part 2

Module 2 (Part 2)

Module 2 (Part 2)

Module 2 Part 3

Module 2 Part 3

Module 4

Module 4

Module 4 Part 2

Module 4 Part 2

Module 4 Part 3

Module 4 Part 3

Module 2 (Part 4)

Module 2 (Part 4)

Randome Questions

Randome Questions

Module 2 (Part 5)

Module 2 (Part 5)

Module 2 (Part 6)

Module 2 (Part 6)

Module 4 Part 1

Module 4 Part 1

BCS

BCS

Routes of Administration

ユーザ名非公開 · 79問 · 1年前

Routes of Administration

Pharmacokinetics

Pharmacokinetics

Enzyme Inducers and Enzyme Inhibitors

ユーザ名非公開 · 25問 · 1年前

Enzyme Inducers and Enzyme Inhibitors

25問 • 1年前

ユーザ名非公開

Metabolism and Excretion

ユーザ名非公開 · 31問 · 1年前

Metabolism and Excretion

PHARMACODYNAMICS

PHARMACODYNAMICS

Ramdom

Ramdom

A. Parasympathetic (Cholinergic) Drugs

ユーザ名非公開 · 43問 · 1年前

A. Parasympathetic (Cholinergic) Drugs

Module 1

Module 1

Module 1

Module 1

Module 2

Module 2

Module 3

Module 3

Module 2

Module 2

Module 3

Module 3

Module 3 Rationales

Module 3 Rationales

Terms

Terms

Module 3 Rationales

Module 3 Rationales

Excipients

Excipients

Module 4

Module 4

Flavors,Sweeteners, and Colors

ユーザ名非公開 · 17問 · 1年前

Flavors,Sweeteners, and Colors

Module 5

Module 5

Anti Glaucoma

Anti Glaucoma

B. Parasympathetic (Cholinergic) Blockers — Anti Cholinergic Agents

ユーザ名非公開 · 20問 · 1年前

B. Parasympathetic (Cholinergic) Blockers — Anti Cholinergic Agents

20問 • 1年前

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C. Sympathetic (Adrenergic) Drugs

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C. Sympathetic (Adrenergic) Drugs

80問 • 1年前

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D. Sympathetic (Adrenergic) BLOCKERS

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D. Sympathetic (Adrenergic) BLOCKERS

15問 • 1年前

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E. Nicotinic Receptor Blockers

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E. Nicotinic Receptor Blockers

30問 • 1年前

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F. Central Muscle Relaxants (or Spasmolytic agents)

ユーザ名非公開 · 19問 · 1年前

F. Central Muscle Relaxants (or Spasmolytic agents)

Rationale Quiz 1.0

Rationale Quiz 1.0

A. Anxiolytic Agents

A. Anxiolytic Agents

B.1 Drugs for Depression

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B.1 Drugs for Depression

29問 • 1年前

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B.2 Drugs for Mania / Bipolar Disorder

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B.2 Drugs for Mania / Bipolar Disorder

15問 • 1年前

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C. Drugs for Psychoses - Typical and Atypical Antipsychotics

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C. Drugs for Psychoses - Typical and Atypical Antipsychotics

44問 • 1年前

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D. Drugs for Seizure Disorders

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D. Drugs for Seizure Disorders

36問 • 1年前

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E. General Anesthetics

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E. General Anesthetics

32問 • 1年前

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G. Anti-Parkinson Drugs

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G. Anti-Parkinson Drugs

26問 • 1年前

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H. Drugs for Alzheimer's Disease

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H. Drugs for Alzheimer's Disease

Rationale Quiz 2

Rationale Quiz 2

1. Diuretics

1. Diuretics

2. Angiotensin Blockers

ユーザ名非公開 · 12問 · 1年前

2. Angiotensin Blockers

12問 • 1年前

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3 and 4. CCBs: Non-dihydropyridines and Vasodilators

ユーザ名非公開 · 20問 · 1年前

3 and 4. CCBs: Non-dihydropyridines and Vasodilators

Module 2

Module 2

Pharmacodynamics

Pharmacodynamics

Drug Classes

Drug Classes

MOA

MOA

5. Sympatholytics

5. Sympatholytics

B. Drugs for Heart Failure

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B. Drugs for Heart Failure

6問 • 1年前

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C. Drugs for Arrhythmia

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C. Drugs for Arrhythmia

36問 • 1年前

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D. Drugs for Hyperlipidemia

ユーザ名非公開 · 11問 · 1年前

D. Drugs for Hyperlipidemia

E. Angina Pectoris

E. Angina Pectoris

F. Thrombotic Disorders

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F. Thrombotic Disorders

Antidotes

Antidotes

Deficiencies

Deficiencies

A. Growth Hormones

A. Growth Hormones

B. Adrenal Steroids

B. Adrenal Steroids

C. GnRH, FSH & LH & Sex Hormones

ユーザ名非公開 · 45問 · 1年前

C. GnRH, FSH & LH & Sex Hormones

D. Thyroid Hormones

D. Thyroid Hormones

E. Diabetes Mellitus

E. Diabetes Mellitus

F. Drugs for osteoporosis

ユーザ名非公開 · 21問 · 1年前

F. Drugs for osteoporosis

Rationale Quiz

Rationale Quiz

A. Asthma

A. Asthma

B. Allergic Rhinitis

B. Allergic Rhinitis

問題一覧

A type of data analysis in which the results of several studies are lumped together and analyzed.

Meta-analysis

Phase I clinical trials

Both Safety and Involves healthy individuals

The Ames Test, which is usually carried out before proceeding to a clinical trial, is a test that detects ___________.

Mutagenesis in bacteria

A systematically developed statement designed to assist practitioners and patients in making decisions about appropriate health care for a specific clinical circumstance.

Clinical Practice Guidelines

The following correctly describe Peripheral Parenteral Nutrition, except:

For hypertonic solutions

The following are macronutrients found in TPN, except:

Electrolytes

Taking griseofulvin with a high fatty meal will most likely result to

Increase in the absorption of griseofulvin

I, IV

Indicators of renal damage I. Increased Serum Creatinine II. Decreased Serum Creatinine III. Increased Creatinine Clearance IV. Decreased Creatinine Clearance

I, IV

Megaloblastic anemia is due to the deficiency of: I. Iron III. Vitamin B12 II. Vitamin B9

II, III

Microcytic anemia is due to the deficiency of: I. Iron III. Vitamin B12 II. Vitamin B9

I only

Iopamidol

Contrast media

Both statements are incorrect.

NYHA Classification: No limitation of physical activity.

Class I

Used in the diagnosis of Myasthenia Gravis

Neostigmine

Calcitonin I. Opposes parathyroid hormone II. Promotes parathyroid hormone action III. Increases serum calcium IV. Decreases serum calcium

I, IV

I and II

An analgesic and antipyretic drug which lacks an anti-inflammatory action

Acetaminophen

Which of the following is not primarily a decongestant?

Chlorpheniramine

The following are H1 blockers used in the management of motion sickness, except: I. Diphenhydramine III. Promethazine II. Scopolamine

II only

All of the following are H2 antagonists, except:

Loratadine

Used to treat xerostomia

Pilocarpine

Which generation of Cephalosporin is the most abundant in the list?

Second

Which of the following antibiotic classes comprise more than half of the list?

Cephalosporins

Total percentage of aminoglycosides

3.9%

Drug A, Drug C

II, III

An asthmatic patient was prescribed with Mometasone, Terbutaline, Theophylline, and Montelukast. Which among the drugs will help provide immediate relief?

Terbutaline

Theophylline is a ______.

Methylxanthine

Which drug will help control the inflammation?

Mometasone

Pregnancy Category D

Controlled studies in women fail to demonstrate a risk to the fetus in the first trimester (and there is no evidence of a risk in late trimesters), and the possibility of fetal harm appears remote.

Pregnancy Category A

The following should be included in hospital’s inventory in relation to newborn delivery except:

Infant formula

Teratogenic effect of Thalidomide

Phocomelia

I, II

According to the ASHP classification of medication errors, an error that resulted in a near-death event that needed life sustaining intervention falls under _______.

Category H

According to the ASHP classification of medication errors, an error that resulted in the need for medical intervention falls under _______.

Category E

Which of the following drugs require therapeutic drug monitoring (TDM)? I. Theophylline III. Gentamicin II. Warfarin IV. Losartan

I, II, III

Tetracycline phosphate and Tetracycline hydrochloride are _____.

Pharmaceutical alternatives

A new drug is to be added in a formulary. It was stated that the drug is to be excreted via the kidney. Which type of data should be sought for this type of information?

Pharmacokinetic data

Ritalin® is under what Philippine schedule?

Schedule II

All of the following are true about dispensing dangerous drugs, except:

Brand name is required.

Normal body surface area:

1.73 m2

Arrange from most frequent to least frequent (h.s., q8h, b.i.d.).

q8h > b.i.d. > h.s.

What does D5W mean?

Dextrose 5% in Water

The following are important patient counseling points for patients taking Alendronate, except:

Take with food.

Which of the following drugs may cause significant hypotension upon intake of the initial dose?

Prazosin

First generation H1 blockers are more sedating than second generation H1 blockers.

Not False

Anaphylaxis

Type B ADR

Hypoglycemia from antidiabetic medications

Type A ADR

Opiate withdrawal syndrome

Type E ADR

Which of the following are correctly matched? I. Type C ADR: Addison’s Disease II. Type E ADR: Addison’s Disease III. Type C ADR: Cushing’s Syndrome IV. Type E ADR: Cushing’s Syndrome

II, III

Which of the following are correctly matched?

Type F: AMR

All of the following are adverse effects of ACE inhibitors, except:

Hypokalemia

An adverse effect of statins

Rhabdomyolysis

First-line agents for tuberculosis, except:

Streptomycin

Anti-TB drugs work synergistically against M. tuberculosis.

Not False

Hepatotoxic Anti-TB agents I. Rifampin II. Isoniazid III. Pyrazinamide IV. Ethambutol

I, II, III

Reye’s syndrome is associated with ____.

Aspirin

Oxidation of Acetaminophen by the hepatic enzymes produces a toxic metabolite, ______, but is normally detoxified by reaction with _______.

NAPQI, Glutathione

The antidote for Paracetamol toxicity is _____.

N-Acetylcysteine

All of the following are useful for reversing opioid toxicity, except:

Nalbuphine

Physical incompatibilities may be manifested by: I. Gross precipitate III. Color change II. Haze

I, II, III

Type/s of incompatibility that may be classified as both physical and chemical: I. Insolubility III. Cementation II. Precipitation

II only

Red man syndrome is associated to:

Vancomycin

When a drug which has no effect or has a different effect enhances the effect of a second drug, this is _____.

Potentiation

Type of interaction between Warfarin and Vitamin K.

Antagonism

Alcohol and benzodiazepines I. Additive II. Antagonistic III. Increased sedation IV. Decreased sedation

I, III

St. John’s wort, a natural antidepressant, can cause serious interactions as a result of its enzyme-inhibiting effects.

Not True

The following are enzyme inducers, except: I. Rifampicin II. Chronic alcoholism III. Acute alcoholism IV. Cigarette smoking

III only

What is the clinical outcome when oral anticoagulants are used concomitantly with antibacterial agents such as Ciprofloxacin and Clarithromycin?

Increased anticoagulant effect, hence increased risk of bleeding

A male patient who is a smoker was prescribed diazepam. What could be the effect if he continues smoking while on therapy?

Reduced activity of diazepam

Interaction between MAOIs and Tyramine- rich foods would result in:

Hypertensive crisis

Why is the concomitant use of Amphotericin B with Aminoglycosides not advisable?

Both are nephrotoxic.

Antihemorrhagic vitamin

Vitamin K

70 mL

(4) 1-mg tablets and (143) 0.5-mg table

Calculate the specific gravity of a 132-mL sorbitol solution weighing 150 g.

1.136 g/mL

If a cough syrup weighing 1.285 kg has a specific gravity of 1.285, what is its volume?

1 L

What is the BMI of a patient weighing 80 kg and standing 180 cm tall?

24.69

How many inhalation doses will a 10- mg salbutamol inhaler deliver if each inhalation dose contains 45 mcg of the drug?

222 doses

If a physician prescribes 100 units of insulin to a diabetic patient, how many mL of U-500 insulin injection should be added to D5W?

0.2 mL

21 drops/min

Express 1:1500 as a percent strength.

0.067%

A 500-mL lotion contains 8 mL of liquefied phenol. What is the concentration (v/v) of liquefied phenol in the lotion?

1.6%

What is the final concentration in w/w of a solution containing 200 mL of water and 10 g of boric acid?

4.76%

How many mL of a 1:500 w/v solution of the preservative lauralkonium chloride can be made from 120 mL of a 0.25% w/v solution of the preservative?

150 mL

How many mOsmol/L is represented by a solution containing 10% anhydrous dextrose in water for injection? (MW=180 g/mol)

555.56 mOsmol/L

A physician orders for 1.8 g of potassium chloride in 80 mL of solution. How many millimoles of KCl are contained in each milliliter of the solution? (MW = 74.5 g/mol)

0.302 mmol/mL

Convert 10 Kelvin into degree Celsius.

-263.15

Dichlorobenzyl alcohol + amylmetacresol comes in what type of dosage form?

Lozenge

Senolytics are _____ drugs.

Anti-aging

Nalidixic Acid I. Broad-spectrum II. A quinolone antibiotic III. Used to treat sexually transmitted infections

II only

Thalidomide I. Was used as a sedative II. Mutagen III. Used for cancer

I, III

Tamoxifen is used for:

Breast cancer

Magnesium sulfate is used as:

Osmotic laxative

NPH is an Intermediate-acting Insulin. NPH stands for _____.

Neutral Protamine Hagedorn

Glulisine

Rapid-acting

Which of the following compounds exhibits amphoteric properties that makes it suitable to prevent systemic alkalosis?

Aluminum hydroxide

100

Which types of hepatitis are vaccine preventable? I. Hepatitis A II. Hepatitis B III. Hepatitis C

I, II